UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 9 July 2025

UPSC Static Quiz – History : 9 July 2025 We will post 5 questions daily on static topics mentioned in the UPSC civil services preliminary examination syllabus. Each week will focus on a specific topic from the syllabus, such as History of India and Indian National Movement, Indian and World Geography, and more.We are excited to bring you our daily UPSC Static Quiz, designed to help you prepare for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination. Each day, we will post 5 questions on static topics mentioned in the UPSC syllabus. This week, we are focusing on Indian and World Geography.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements regarding contemporary challenges to constitutionalism in India: The increasing use of ordinances can potentially undermine the legislative process, a key aspect of separation of powers. Delays in judicial appointments and perceived executive influence may impact the independence of the judiciary. The rise of strong coalition governments invariably strengthens constitutional checks and balances. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Contemporary challenges to constitutionalism in India are multifaceted. Statement 1 is correct. While the power to promulgate ordinances is a constitutional provision (Article 123 for the President, Article 213 for Governors), its frequent or excessive use, bypassing normal legislative scrutiny and debate, can be seen as undermining the legislative process. This can challenge the principle of separation of powers, where law-making is primarily the legislature’s domain. Statement 2 is correct. An independent judiciary is vital for constitutionalism. Delays in judicial appointments, or perceptions of executive interference in the appointment process or in the functioning of the judiciary, can raise concerns about its independence and its ability to act as an effective check on other branches of government. Statement 3 is incorrect. While coalition governments can sometimes lead to more debate and checks due to diverse interests, they do not “invariably” strengthen constitutional checks and balances. Strong coalition governments can also lead to policy paralysis or, conversely, a dominant coalition partner might exert undue influence. The impact of coalition governments on constitutionalism is complex and context-dependent, not invariably positive. Sometimes, the compulsions of coalition politics can also lead to compromises on constitutional principles. Incorrect Solution: B Contemporary challenges to constitutionalism in India are multifaceted. Statement 1 is correct. While the power to promulgate ordinances is a constitutional provision (Article 123 for the President, Article 213 for Governors), its frequent or excessive use, bypassing normal legislative scrutiny and debate, can be seen as undermining the legislative process. This can challenge the principle of separation of powers, where law-making is primarily the legislature’s domain. Statement 2 is correct. An independent judiciary is vital for constitutionalism. Delays in judicial appointments, or perceptions of executive interference in the appointment process or in the functioning of the judiciary, can raise concerns about its independence and its ability to act as an effective check on other branches of government. Statement 3 is incorrect. While coalition governments can sometimes lead to more debate and checks due to diverse interests, they do not “invariably” strengthen constitutional checks and balances. Strong coalition governments can also lead to policy paralysis or, conversely, a dominant coalition partner might exert undue influence. The impact of coalition governments on constitutionalism is complex and context-dependent, not invariably positive. Sometimes, the compulsions of coalition politics can also lead to compromises on constitutional principles.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding contemporary challenges to constitutionalism in India:

• The increasing use of ordinances can potentially undermine the legislative process, a key aspect of separation of powers.

• Delays in judicial appointments and perceived executive influence may impact the independence of the judiciary.

• The rise of strong coalition governments invariably strengthens constitutional checks and balances.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Contemporary challenges to constitutionalism in India are multifaceted.

• Statement 1 is correct. While the power to promulgate ordinances is a constitutional provision (Article 123 for the President, Article 213 for Governors), its frequent or excessive use, bypassing normal legislative scrutiny and debate, can be seen as undermining the legislative process. This can challenge the principle of separation of powers, where law-making is primarily the legislature’s domain.

• Statement 2 is correct. An independent judiciary is vital for constitutionalism. Delays in judicial appointments, or perceptions of executive interference in the appointment process or in the functioning of the judiciary, can raise concerns about its independence and its ability to act as an effective check on other branches of government.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. While coalition governments can sometimes lead to more debate and checks due to diverse interests, they do not “invariably” strengthen constitutional checks and balances. Strong coalition governments can also lead to policy paralysis or, conversely, a dominant coalition partner might exert undue influence. The impact of coalition governments on constitutionalism is complex and context-dependent, not invariably positive. Sometimes, the compulsions of coalition politics can also lead to compromises on constitutional principles.

Solution: B

Contemporary challenges to constitutionalism in India are multifaceted.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Which one of the following statements best reflects a limitation of constitutionalism in its practical application in India? (a) The Constitution of India is the longest written constitution, making it difficult to interpret. (b) The formal adherence to constitutional procedures may sometimes mask substantive violations of its spirit. (c) The process of constitutional amendment is overly rigid, preventing necessary societal changes. (d) Fundamental Rights are absolute and cannot be restricted under any circumstances. Correct Solution: B Constitutionalism aims to ensure governance according to the letter and spirit of the constitution. However, its practical application can face limitations. Option (a) is a characteristic, not necessarily a limitation of constitutionalism itself, though complexity can pose challenges. Option (c) is not entirely accurate; the Indian Constitution has a blend of rigidity and flexibility in its amendment process. Option (d) is incorrect; Fundamental Rights in India are not absolute and are subject to reasonable restrictions. Option (b) accurately reflects a significant limitation. Constitutionalism is not just about having constitutional rules and procedures but also about their substantive observance. There can be instances where governmental actions formally comply with procedures (e.g., passing a law through the legislature) but the law itself or its application might violate the underlying spirit of constitutional principles like equality, liberty, or justice. This gap between formal adherence and substantive compliance is a recognized challenge in the practical realization of constitutionalism. For example, laws might be passed that are procedurally correct but are criticized for being discriminatory or for unduly restricting freedoms, thereby challenging the spirit of constitutionalism. Incorrect Solution: B Constitutionalism aims to ensure governance according to the letter and spirit of the constitution. However, its practical application can face limitations. Option (a) is a characteristic, not necessarily a limitation of constitutionalism itself, though complexity can pose challenges. Option (c) is not entirely accurate; the Indian Constitution has a blend of rigidity and flexibility in its amendment process. Option (d) is incorrect; Fundamental Rights in India are not absolute and are subject to reasonable restrictions. Option (b) accurately reflects a significant limitation. Constitutionalism is not just about having constitutional rules and procedures but also about their substantive observance. There can be instances where governmental actions formally comply with procedures (e.g., passing a law through the legislature) but the law itself or its application might violate the underlying spirit of constitutional principles like equality, liberty, or justice. This gap between formal adherence and substantive compliance is a recognized challenge in the practical realization of constitutionalism. For example, laws might be passed that are procedurally correct but are criticized for being discriminatory or for unduly restricting freedoms, thereby challenging the spirit of constitutionalism.

#### 2. Question

Which one of the following statements best reflects a limitation of constitutionalism in its practical application in India?

• (a) The Constitution of India is the longest written constitution, making it difficult to interpret.

• (b) The formal adherence to constitutional procedures may sometimes mask substantive violations of its spirit.

• (c) The process of constitutional amendment is overly rigid, preventing necessary societal changes.

• (d) Fundamental Rights are absolute and cannot be restricted under any circumstances.

Solution: B

• Constitutionalism aims to ensure governance according to the letter and spirit of the constitution. However, its practical application can face limitations.

• Option (a) is a characteristic, not necessarily a limitation of constitutionalism itself, though complexity can pose challenges.

• Option (c) is not entirely accurate; the Indian Constitution has a blend of rigidity and flexibility in its amendment process.

• Option (d) is incorrect; Fundamental Rights in India are not absolute and are subject to reasonable restrictions.

• Option (b) accurately reflects a significant limitation. Constitutionalism is not just about having constitutional rules and procedures but also about their substantive observance. There can be instances where governmental actions formally comply with procedures (e.g., passing a law through the legislature) but the law itself or its application might violate the underlying spirit of constitutional principles like equality, liberty, or justice.

This gap between formal adherence and substantive compliance is a recognized challenge in the practical realization of constitutionalism. For example, laws might be passed that are procedurally correct but are criticized for being discriminatory or for unduly restricting freedoms, thereby challenging the spirit of constitutionalism.

Solution: B

• Constitutionalism aims to ensure governance according to the letter and spirit of the constitution. However, its practical application can face limitations.

• Option (a) is a characteristic, not necessarily a limitation of constitutionalism itself, though complexity can pose challenges.

• Option (c) is not entirely accurate; the Indian Constitution has a blend of rigidity and flexibility in its amendment process.

• Option (d) is incorrect; Fundamental Rights in India are not absolute and are subject to reasonable restrictions.

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements. Statement-I: In a federal system of government, there is a constitutional division of powers between the central government and regional (state) governments. Statement-II: India is considered a perfect example of a classical federal system, with states enjoying absolute autonomy in their legislative spheres. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Statement-I is correct. A defining feature of a federal system is the constitutional division of powers between two levels of government – the central/federal government and the regional/state governments. Both levels are coordinate and operate in their respective spheres as assigned by the constitution.27 Statement-II is incorrect. While India has a federal structure with a constitutional division of powers (e.g., Seventh Schedule), it is not considered a perfect example of a classical federal system. The Indian Constitution exhibits strong unitary or centralizing tendencies, such as a strong Centre, single citizenship, appointment of Governors by the President, emergency provisions that can turn the system unitary, and Parliament’s power to legislate on state subjects under certain conditions. States in India do not enjoy absolute autonomy; their powers are subject to various constitutional limitations and central oversight. India is often described as ‘quasi-federal’ or a ‘federation with unitary bias’. Incorrect Solution: C Statement-I is correct. A defining feature of a federal system is the constitutional division of powers between two levels of government – the central/federal government and the regional/state governments. Both levels are coordinate and operate in their respective spheres as assigned by the constitution.27 Statement-II is incorrect. While India has a federal structure with a constitutional division of powers (e.g., Seventh Schedule), it is not considered a perfect example of a classical federal system. The Indian Constitution exhibits strong unitary or centralizing tendencies, such as a strong Centre, single citizenship, appointment of Governors by the President, emergency provisions that can turn the system unitary, and Parliament’s power to legislate on state subjects under certain conditions. States in India do not enjoy absolute autonomy; their powers are subject to various constitutional limitations and central oversight. India is often described as ‘quasi-federal’ or a ‘federation with unitary bias’.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements.

Statement-I: In a federal system of government, there is a constitutional division of powers between the central government and regional (state) governments.

Statement-II: India is considered a perfect example of a classical federal system, with states enjoying absolute autonomy in their legislative spheres.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

• Statement-I is correct. A defining feature of a federal system is the constitutional division of powers between two levels of government – the central/federal government and the regional/state governments. Both levels are coordinate and operate in their respective spheres as assigned by the constitution.27

• Statement-II is incorrect. While India has a federal structure with a constitutional division of powers (e.g., Seventh Schedule), it is not considered a perfect example of a classical federal system. The Indian Constitution exhibits strong unitary or centralizing tendencies, such as a strong Centre, single citizenship, appointment of Governors by the President, emergency provisions that can turn the system unitary, and Parliament’s power to legislate on state subjects under certain conditions. States in India do not enjoy absolute autonomy; their powers are subject to various constitutional limitations and central oversight. India is often described as ‘quasi-federal’ or a ‘federation with unitary bias’.

Solution: C

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Right to Freedom of Religion in India: The right to propagate religion under Article 25 includes the right to convert another person to one’s own religion through coercion or allurement. Religious denominations have the absolute right under Article 26 to manage their own affairs in matters of religion, without any state interference. No religious instruction can be provided in any educational institution wholly maintained out of State funds. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Supreme Court has held that the right to propagate religion under Article 25 does not include the right to convert another person to one’s own religion by means of force, fraud, or allurement. Forcible conversions impinge on the ‘freedom of conscience’ of the person being converted, which is also guaranteed under Article 25. Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 26 grants every religious denomination or any section thereof the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion. However, this right is subject to public order, morality, and health. It is not an absolute right and the State can regulate secular activities associated with religious practices. Statement 3 is correct. Article 28(1) explicitly states that no religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution wholly maintained out of State funds. However, this prohibition does not apply to an educational institution administered by the State but established under any endowment or trust which requires that religious instruction shall be imparted in such institution (Article 28(2)). Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Supreme Court has held that the right to propagate religion under Article 25 does not include the right to convert another person to one’s own religion by means of force, fraud, or allurement. Forcible conversions impinge on the ‘freedom of conscience’ of the person being converted, which is also guaranteed under Article 25. Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 26 grants every religious denomination or any section thereof the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion. However, this right is subject to public order, morality, and health. It is not an absolute right and the State can regulate secular activities associated with religious practices. Statement 3 is correct. Article 28(1) explicitly states that no religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution wholly maintained out of State funds. However, this prohibition does not apply to an educational institution administered by the State but established under any endowment or trust which requires that religious instruction shall be imparted in such institution (Article 28(2)).

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Right to Freedom of Religion in India:

• The right to propagate religion under Article 25 includes the right to convert another person to one’s own religion through coercion or allurement.

• Religious denominations have the absolute right under Article 26 to manage their own affairs in matters of religion, without any state interference.

• No religious instruction can be provided in any educational institution wholly maintained out of State funds.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Supreme Court has held that the right to propagate religion under Article 25 does not include the right to convert another person to one’s own religion by means of force, fraud, or allurement. Forcible conversions impinge on the ‘freedom of conscience’ of the person being converted, which is also guaranteed under Article 25.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 26 grants every religious denomination or any section thereof the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion. However, this right is subject to public order, morality, and health. It is not an absolute right and the State can regulate secular activities associated with religious practices.

Statement 3 is correct. Article 28(1) explicitly states that no religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution wholly maintained out of State funds. However, this prohibition does not apply to an educational institution administered by the State but established under any endowment or trust which requires that religious instruction shall be imparted in such institution (Article 28(2)).

Solution: A

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question With regard to the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: A resolution for his removal can be moved only after giving at least 14 days’ advance notice. When such a resolution is under consideration of the House, he cannot preside at the sitting of the House, though he may be present. He can speak and take part in the proceedings and has the right to vote in the first instance on such a resolution. If the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the Speaker must vacate his office immediately. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Article 94(c) provides that the Speaker can be removed from his office by a resolution of the Lok Sabha passed by an effective majority (a majority of all the then members of the House). A crucial procedural safeguard is that at least 14 days’ advance notice must be given of the intention to move the resolution. Statement 2 is correct. Article 96(1) explicitly states that while a resolution for the removal of the Speaker from his office is under consideration, the Speaker shall not preside. The same applies to the Deputy Speaker if a resolution for his removal is being considered. He can, however, remain present in the House. Statement 3 is correct. Article 96(2) clarifies the rights of the Speaker during the consideration of a removal resolution. It states that he shall have the right to speak and to otherwise take part in the proceedings of the House. Crucially, it also states that he “shall… be entitled to vote only in the first instance on such resolution or on any other matter during such proceedings but not in the case of an equality of votes.” This is an exception to his normal role where he does not vote in the first instance but only exercises a casting vote in case of a tie. Statement 4 is incorrect. According to the proviso to Article 94, whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the Speaker shall not vacate his office until immediately before the first meeting of the new Lok Sabha after the dissolution. This provision ensures that the office of the Speaker, which represents the House itself, remains occupied during the interim period between the dissolution of one Lok Sabha and the constitution of the next. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Article 94(c) provides that the Speaker can be removed from his office by a resolution of the Lok Sabha passed by an effective majority (a majority of all the then members of the House). A crucial procedural safeguard is that at least 14 days’ advance notice must be given of the intention to move the resolution. Statement 2 is correct. Article 96(1) explicitly states that while a resolution for the removal of the Speaker from his office is under consideration, the Speaker shall not preside. The same applies to the Deputy Speaker if a resolution for his removal is being considered. He can, however, remain present in the House. Statement 3 is correct. Article 96(2) clarifies the rights of the Speaker during the consideration of a removal resolution. It states that he shall have the right to speak and to otherwise take part in the proceedings of the House. Crucially, it also states that he “shall… be entitled to vote only in the first instance on such resolution or on any other matter during such proceedings but not in the case of an equality of votes.” This is an exception to his normal role where he does not vote in the first instance but only exercises a casting vote in case of a tie. Statement 4 is incorrect. According to the proviso to Article 94, whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the Speaker shall not vacate his office until immediately before the first meeting of the new Lok Sabha after the dissolution. This provision ensures that the office of the Speaker, which represents the House itself, remains occupied during the interim period between the dissolution of one Lok Sabha and the constitution of the next.

#### 5. Question

With regard to the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

• A resolution for his removal can be moved only after giving at least 14 days’ advance notice.

• When such a resolution is under consideration of the House, he cannot preside at the sitting of the House, though he may be present.

• He can speak and take part in the proceedings and has the right to vote in the first instance on such a resolution.

• If the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the Speaker must vacate his office immediately.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. Article 94(c) provides that the Speaker can be removed from his office by a resolution of the Lok Sabha passed by an effective majority (a majority of all the then members of the House). A crucial procedural safeguard is that at least 14 days’ advance notice must be given of the intention to move the resolution.

• Statement 2 is correct. Article 96(1) explicitly states that while a resolution for the removal of the Speaker from his office is under consideration, the Speaker shall not preside. The same applies to the Deputy Speaker if a resolution for his removal is being considered. He can, however, remain present in the House.

• Statement 3 is correct. Article 96(2) clarifies the rights of the Speaker during the consideration of a removal resolution. It states that he shall have the right to speak and to otherwise take part in the proceedings of the House. Crucially, it also states that he “shall… be entitled to vote only in the first instance on such resolution or on any other matter during such proceedings but not in the case of an equality of votes.” This is an exception to his normal role where he does not vote in the first instance but only exercises a casting vote in case of a tie.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. According to the proviso to Article 94, whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the Speaker shall not vacate his office until immediately before the first meeting of the new Lok Sabha after the dissolution. This provision ensures that the office of the Speaker, which represents the House itself, remains occupied during the interim period between the dissolution of one Lok Sabha and the constitution of the next.

Solution: C

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