UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 6 March 2026

UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 6 March 2026 We will post 5 questions daily on static topics mentioned in the UPSC civil services preliminary examination syllabus. Each week will focus on a specific topic from the syllabus, such as History of India and Indian National Movement, Indian and World Geography, and more. We are excited to bring you our daily UPSC Static Quiz, designed to help you prepare for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination. Each day, we will post 5 questions on static topics mentioned in the UPSC syllabus. This week, we are focusing on Indian and World Geography.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements: The Government of India Act, 1935, provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation consisting of provinces and princely states as units. The residuary powers under the Government of India Act, 1935, were vested in the Federal Legislature. The introduction of provincial autonomy was a key feature of the Government of India Act, 1935. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Act provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation comprising the British Indian Provinces and the Princely States. However, this federation never came into being because the required number of princely states did not agree to join it. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Act divided powers between the Centre and the units into three lists: Federal List, Provincial List, and Concurrent List. The residuary powers, which are powers not mentioned in any of the three lists, were not given to the Federal Legislature or the Provincial Legislatures. Instead, they were vested in the Viceroy (Governor-General). This is a crucial detail that distinguishes it from the current Indian Constitution where residuary powers lie with the Union Parliament. Statement 3 is correct. A major feature of the Act was the introduction of provincial autonomy. It abolished dyarchy in the provinces and allowed the provinces to act as autonomous units of administration in their defined spheres. The provincial governments were made responsible to the provincial legislatures. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Act provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation comprising the British Indian Provinces and the Princely States. However, this federation never came into being because the required number of princely states did not agree to join it. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Act divided powers between the Centre and the units into three lists: Federal List, Provincial List, and Concurrent List. The residuary powers, which are powers not mentioned in any of the three lists, were not given to the Federal Legislature or the Provincial Legislatures. Instead, they were vested in the Viceroy (Governor-General). This is a crucial detail that distinguishes it from the current Indian Constitution where residuary powers lie with the Union Parliament. Statement 3 is correct. A major feature of the Act was the introduction of provincial autonomy. It abolished dyarchy in the provinces and allowed the provinces to act as autonomous units of administration in their defined spheres. The provincial governments were made responsible to the provincial legislatures.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Government of India Act, 1935, provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation consisting of provinces and princely states as units.

• The residuary powers under the Government of India Act, 1935, were vested in the Federal Legislature.

• The introduction of provincial autonomy was a key feature of the Government of India Act, 1935.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The Act provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation comprising the British Indian Provinces and the Princely States. However, this federation never came into being because the required number of princely states did not agree to join it.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Act divided powers between the Centre and the units into three lists: Federal List, Provincial List, and Concurrent List. The residuary powers, which are powers not mentioned in any of the three lists, were not given to the Federal Legislature or the Provincial Legislatures. Instead, they were vested in the Viceroy (Governor-General). This is a crucial detail that distinguishes it from the current Indian Constitution where residuary powers lie with the Union Parliament.

• Statement 3 is correct. A major feature of the Act was the introduction of provincial autonomy. It abolished dyarchy in the provinces and allowed the provinces to act as autonomous units of administration in their defined spheres. The provincial governments were made responsible to the provincial legislatures.

Solution: B

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is considered the apex vigilance institution in India, yet its role is often described as being primarily advisory. Reason (R): The CVC does not have the power to register a criminal case itself and can only refer matters to the CBI or departmental authorities, whose recommendations are not binding on the government. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (c) (A) is true but (R) is false. (d) (A) is false but (R) is true. Correct Solution: A Assertion (A) is true. The CVC is the apex body for preventing corruption in the Central government. However, its effectiveness is often debated because it functions largely as an advisory body. It oversees vigilance administration, but its direct powers of enforcement are limited. Reason (R) is true. This statement accurately describes the key limitations of the CVC. It is not an investigating agency in the way the CBI is. The CVC cannot register a criminal case. It can either refer the matter to the CBI or recommend departmental inquiries. Furthermore, its advice to the government or disciplinary authorities is not binding. The department can choose to disagree with the CVC’s recommendation, although it is required to provide written reasons for doing so. Therefore, (R) is the correct explanation for (A). Incorrect Solution: A Assertion (A) is true. The CVC is the apex body for preventing corruption in the Central government. However, its effectiveness is often debated because it functions largely as an advisory body. It oversees vigilance administration, but its direct powers of enforcement are limited. Reason (R) is true. This statement accurately describes the key limitations of the CVC. It is not an investigating agency in the way the CBI is. The CVC cannot register a criminal case. It can either refer the matter to the CBI or recommend departmental inquiries. Furthermore, its advice to the government or disciplinary authorities is not binding. The department can choose to disagree with the CVC’s recommendation, although it is required to provide written reasons for doing so. Therefore, (R) is the correct explanation for (A).

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is considered the apex vigilance institution in India, yet its role is often described as being primarily advisory.

Reason (R): The CVC does not have the power to register a criminal case itself and can only refer matters to the CBI or departmental authorities, whose recommendations are not binding on the government.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

• (b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

• (c) (A) is true but (R) is false.

• (d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Solution: A

• Assertion (A) is true. The CVC is the apex body for preventing corruption in the Central government. However, its effectiveness is often debated because it functions largely as an advisory body. It oversees vigilance administration, but its direct powers of enforcement are limited.

• Reason (R) is true. This statement accurately describes the key limitations of the CVC. It is not an investigating agency in the way the CBI is. The CVC cannot register a criminal case. It can either refer the matter to the CBI or recommend departmental inquiries. Furthermore, its advice to the government or disciplinary authorities is not binding. The department can choose to disagree with the CVC’s recommendation, although it is required to provide written reasons for doing so.

• Therefore, (R) is the correct explanation for (A).

Solution: A

• Therefore, (R) is the correct explanation for (A).

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements: The Appropriation Bill is passed after the discussion and voting on Demands for Grants. The Rajya Sabha can amend or reject a Money Bill, including the Appropriation Bill. A ‘Vote on Account’ allows the government to incur expenditure for the entire financial year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The budgetary process follows a specific sequence. After the general discussion on the budget, the Lok Sabha discusses and votes on the Demands for Grants for various ministries. According to Article 114 of the Constitution, no money can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under appropriation made by law. Therefore, after the Demands for Grants are passed, an Appropriation Bill is introduced and passed to give legal authority to the government to withdraw funds from the Consolidated Fund to meet this expenditure. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Appropriation Bill is a Money Bill. As per Article 110 and 109 of the Constitution, the Rajya Sabha has limited powers with respect to Money Bills. It cannot reject or amend a Money Bill. It can only make recommendations, which the Lok Sabha may or may not accept. The bill must be returned to the Lok Sabha within 14 days. Statement 3 is incorrect. A ‘Vote on Account’ is a special provision that allows the government to draw funds from the Consolidated Fund to meet its expenditure for a part of the financial year, typically two to four months. It is used to keep the government functioning pending the detailed discussion and passing of the full budget. It does not grant expenditure authority for the entire financial year. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The budgetary process follows a specific sequence. After the general discussion on the budget, the Lok Sabha discusses and votes on the Demands for Grants for various ministries. According to Article 114 of the Constitution, no money can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under appropriation made by law. Therefore, after the Demands for Grants are passed, an Appropriation Bill is introduced and passed to give legal authority to the government to withdraw funds from the Consolidated Fund to meet this expenditure. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Appropriation Bill is a Money Bill. As per Article 110 and 109 of the Constitution, the Rajya Sabha has limited powers with respect to Money Bills. It cannot reject or amend a Money Bill. It can only make recommendations, which the Lok Sabha may or may not accept. The bill must be returned to the Lok Sabha within 14 days. Statement 3 is incorrect. A ‘Vote on Account’ is a special provision that allows the government to draw funds from the Consolidated Fund to meet its expenditure for a part of the financial year, typically two to four months. It is used to keep the government functioning pending the detailed discussion and passing of the full budget. It does not grant expenditure authority for the entire financial year.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Appropriation Bill is passed after the discussion and voting on Demands for Grants.

• The Rajya Sabha can amend or reject a Money Bill, including the Appropriation Bill.

• A ‘Vote on Account’ allows the government to incur expenditure for the entire financial year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 1 and 2 only

• (c) 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. The budgetary process follows a specific sequence. After the general discussion on the budget, the Lok Sabha discusses and votes on the Demands for Grants for various ministries. According to Article 114 of the Constitution, no money can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under appropriation made by law. Therefore, after the Demands for Grants are passed, an Appropriation Bill is introduced and passed to give legal authority to the government to withdraw funds from the Consolidated Fund to meet this expenditure.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Appropriation Bill is a Money Bill. As per Article 110 and 109 of the Constitution, the Rajya Sabha has limited powers with respect to Money Bills. It cannot reject or amend a Money Bill. It can only make recommendations, which the Lok Sabha may or may not accept. The bill must be returned to the Lok Sabha within 14 days.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. A ‘Vote on Account’ is a special provision that allows the government to draw funds from the Consolidated Fund to meet its expenditure for a part of the financial year, typically two to four months. It is used to keep the government functioning pending the detailed discussion and passing of the full budget. It does not grant expenditure authority for the entire financial year.

Solution: A

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements about the budgetary process: A ‘Token Cut’ motion is moved to demand that the amount of the demand be reduced to Re 1. An ‘Economy Cut’ motion is moved to highlight a specific grievance that is within the sphere of responsibility of the Government of India. A ‘Policy Cut’ motion states that the amount of the demand be reduced by a specified amount. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Policy Cut Motion: This motion represents the disapproval of the policy underlying the demand. It states that “the amount of the demand be reduced to Re 1”. If passed, it amounts to a no-confidence vote. Statement 1 incorrectly describes this as a ‘Token Cut’. Economy Cut Motion: This motion is moved to argue that the proposed expenditure can be reduced, suggesting a more economical way of achieving the objective. It states that “the amount of the demand be reduced by a specified amount”. Statement 3 incorrectly describes this as a ‘Policy Cut’. Token Cut Motion: This motion is moved to ventilate a specific grievance that is within the sphere of the responsibility of the Government of India. It states that “the amount of the demand be reduced by Rs 100”. The reduction is nominal and the purpose is to initiate a discussion on a specific issue. Statement 2 incorrectly describes this as an ‘Economy Cut’. Incorrect Solution: D Policy Cut Motion: This motion represents the disapproval of the policy underlying the demand. It states that “the amount of the demand be reduced to Re 1”. If passed, it amounts to a no-confidence vote. Statement 1 incorrectly describes this as a ‘Token Cut’. Economy Cut Motion: This motion is moved to argue that the proposed expenditure can be reduced, suggesting a more economical way of achieving the objective. It states that “the amount of the demand be reduced by a specified amount”. Statement 3 incorrectly describes this as a ‘Policy Cut’. Token Cut Motion: This motion is moved to ventilate a specific grievance that is within the sphere of the responsibility of the Government of India. It states that “the amount of the demand be reduced by Rs 100”. The reduction is nominal and the purpose is to initiate a discussion on a specific issue. Statement 2 incorrectly describes this as an ‘Economy Cut’.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements about the budgetary process:

• A ‘Token Cut’ motion is moved to demand that the amount of the demand be reduced to Re 1.

• An ‘Economy Cut’ motion is moved to highlight a specific grievance that is within the sphere of responsibility of the Government of India.

• A ‘Policy Cut’ motion states that the amount of the demand be reduced by a specified amount.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• Policy Cut Motion: This motion represents the disapproval of the policy underlying the demand. It states that “the amount of the demand be reduced to Re 1”. If passed, it amounts to a no-confidence vote. Statement 1 incorrectly describes this as a ‘Token Cut’.

• Economy Cut Motion: This motion is moved to argue that the proposed expenditure can be reduced, suggesting a more economical way of achieving the objective. It states that “the amount of the demand be reduced by a specified amount”. Statement 3 incorrectly describes this as a ‘Policy Cut’.

• Token Cut Motion: This motion is moved to ventilate a specific grievance that is within the sphere of the responsibility of the Government of India. It states that “the amount of the demand be reduced by Rs 100”. The reduction is nominal and the purpose is to initiate a discussion on a specific issue. Statement 2 incorrectly describes this as an ‘Economy Cut’.

Solution: D

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Match List-I (Landmark Judgment) with List-II (Core Constitutional Principle): List-I (Landmark Judgment) List-II (Core Constitutional Principle) A. E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu 1. Federalism is a ‘basic structure’ and a floor test is the only arbiter of majority. B. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India 2. Parliament’s amending power is limited by the ‘basic structure’ doctrine. C. In re: Berubari Union (1960) 3. Equality is antithetical to arbitrariness; Art. 14 is a guarantee against arbitrary state action. D. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala 4. Cession of Indian territory to a foreign state requires a constitutional amendment under Art. 368. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 (b) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 (c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 (d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 Correct Solution: B *E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu* (1974) is the case where the Supreme Court, through Justice Bhagwati, propounded the “new doctrine” of equality. It held that Article 14 strikes at arbitrariness and that “Equality is antithetic to arbitrariness.” (Matches 3). *S.R. Bommai v. Union of India* (1994) is the seminal judgment on Article 356. The court laid down strict guidelines, held that federalism is a ‘basic structure,’ and, most critically, ruled that the only forum to test a government’s majority is on the floor of the House (floor test), not the subjective opinion of the Governor. (Matches 1). *In re: Berubari Union* (1960) was a Presidential reference regarding the Nehru-Noon agreement to cede territory to Pakistan. The Supreme Court held that the power of Parliament under Article 3 (alteration of boundaries) does not include the power to cede territory. Such a cession requires a formal constitutional amendment under Article 368, which led to the 9th Amendment Act. (Matches 4). *Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala* (1973) is arguably the most important case in Indian constitutional history. The 13-judge bench, while upholding Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution (overruling Golaknath), laid down the “basic structure doctrine,” which limits that very power. It held that Parliament cannot amend the Constitution so as to alter or destroy its ‘basic structure’. (Matches 2). Incorrect Solution: B *E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu* (1974) is the case where the Supreme Court, through Justice Bhagwati, propounded the “new doctrine” of equality. It held that Article 14 strikes at arbitrariness and that “Equality is antithetic to arbitrariness.” (Matches 3). *S.R. Bommai v. Union of India* (1994) is the seminal judgment on Article 356. The court laid down strict guidelines, held that federalism is a ‘basic structure,’ and, most critically, ruled that the only forum to test a government’s majority is on the floor of the House (floor test), not the subjective opinion of the Governor. (Matches 1). *In re: Berubari Union* (1960) was a Presidential reference regarding the Nehru-Noon agreement to cede territory to Pakistan. The Supreme Court held that the power of Parliament under Article 3 (alteration of boundaries) does not include the power to cede territory. Such a cession requires a formal constitutional amendment under Article 368, which led to the 9th Amendment Act. (Matches 4). *Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala* (1973) is arguably the most important case in Indian constitutional history. The 13-judge bench, while upholding Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution (overruling Golaknath), laid down the “basic structure doctrine,” which limits that very power. It held that Parliament cannot amend the Constitution so as to alter or destroy its ‘basic structure’. (Matches 2).

#### 5. Question

Match List-I (Landmark Judgment) with List-II (Core Constitutional Principle):

List-I (Landmark Judgment) | List-II (Core Constitutional Principle)

A. E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu | 1. Federalism is a ‘basic structure’ and a floor test is the only arbiter of majority.

B. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India | 2. Parliament’s amending power is limited by the ‘basic structure’ doctrine.

C. In re: Berubari Union (1960) | 3. Equality is antithetical to arbitrariness; Art. 14 is a guarantee against arbitrary state action.

D. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala | 4. Cession of Indian territory to a foreign state requires a constitutional amendment under Art. 368.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

• (b) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

• (c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

• (d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

Solution: B

• *E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu* (1974) is the case where the Supreme Court, through Justice Bhagwati, propounded the “new doctrine” of equality. It held that Article 14 strikes at arbitrariness and that “Equality is antithetic to arbitrariness.” (Matches 3).

• *S.R. Bommai v. Union of India* (1994) is the seminal judgment on Article 356. The court laid down strict guidelines, held that federalism is a ‘basic structure,’ and, most critically, ruled that the only forum to test a government’s majority is on the floor of the House (floor test), not the subjective opinion of the Governor. (Matches 1).

• *In re: Berubari Union* (1960) was a Presidential reference regarding the Nehru-Noon agreement to cede territory to Pakistan. The Supreme Court held that the power of Parliament under Article 3 (alteration of boundaries) does not include the power to cede territory. Such a cession requires a formal constitutional amendment under Article 368, which led to the 9th Amendment Act. (Matches 4).

• *Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala* (1973) is arguably the most important case in Indian constitutional history. The 13-judge bench, while upholding Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution (overruling Golaknath), laid down the “basic structure doctrine,” which limits that very power. It held that Parliament cannot amend the Constitution so as to alter or destroy its ‘basic structure’. (Matches 2).

Solution: B

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