UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 6 February 2026

UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 6 February 2026 We will post 5 questions daily on static topics mentioned in the UPSC civil services preliminary examination syllabus. Each week will focus on a specific topic from the syllabus, such as History of India and Indian National Movement, Indian and World Geography, and more. We are excited to bring you our daily UPSC Static Quiz, designed to help you prepare for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination. Each day, we will post 5 questions on static topics mentioned in the UPSC syllabus. This week, we are focusing on Indian and World Geography.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements: Statement-I: A proclamation of President’s Rule can be extended beyond one year if a National Emergency is in operation in the whole of India or in the whole or any part of the state. Statement-II: The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 introduced a restraint on the power of Parliament to extend President’s Rule beyond one year to prevent its arbitrary use. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct. According to the provisions added by the 44th Amendment Act, the extension of President’s Rule beyond one year is subject to two conditions: (i) a National Emergency must be in operation in the whole of India or the whole or any part of the state, and (ii) the Election Commission must certify that the general elections to the legislative assembly of the concerned state cannot be held on account of difficulties. Statement-II is also correct and provides the underlying rationale. Before 1978, the Executive had broader leeway to extend the rule up to three years without such specific constraints. The 44th Amendment sought to ensure that President’s Rule remains an exceptional measure rather than a routine political tool. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct. According to the provisions added by the 44th Amendment Act, the extension of President’s Rule beyond one year is subject to two conditions: (i) a National Emergency must be in operation in the whole of India or the whole or any part of the state, and (ii) the Election Commission must certify that the general elections to the legislative assembly of the concerned state cannot be held on account of difficulties. Statement-II is also correct and provides the underlying rationale. Before 1978, the Executive had broader leeway to extend the rule up to three years without such specific constraints. The 44th Amendment sought to ensure that President’s Rule remains an exceptional measure rather than a routine political tool.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: A proclamation of President’s Rule can be extended beyond one year if a National Emergency is in operation in the whole of India or in the whole or any part of the state.

Statement-II: The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 introduced a restraint on the power of Parliament to extend President’s Rule beyond one year to prevent its arbitrary use.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. According to the provisions added by the 44th Amendment Act, the extension of President’s Rule beyond one year is subject to two conditions: (i) a National Emergency must be in operation in the whole of India or the whole or any part of the state, and (ii) the Election Commission must certify that the general elections to the legislative assembly of the concerned state cannot be held on account of difficulties.

• (i) a National Emergency must be in operation in the whole of India or the whole or any part of the state, and

• (ii) the Election Commission must certify that the general elections to the legislative assembly of the concerned state cannot be held on account of difficulties.

• Statement-II is also correct and provides the underlying rationale. Before 1978, the Executive had broader leeway to extend the rule up to three years without such specific constraints. The 44th Amendment sought to ensure that President’s Rule remains an exceptional measure rather than a routine political tool.

Solution: A

• (i) a National Emergency must be in operation in the whole of India or the whole or any part of the state, and

• (ii) the Election Commission must certify that the general elections to the legislative assembly of the concerned state cannot be held on account of difficulties.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements regarding Delimitation Commission. The Delimitation Commission is a temporary body established by the President of India on the recommendation of the Election Commission. The Constitution of India explicitly provides that the orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be called into question in any court of law. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B The Delimitation Commission is a temporary body, but Statement 1 is incorrect because it is not established on the recommendation of the Election Commission. Instead, it is constituted by the President of India under a Delimitation Act passed by Parliament. While the Chief Election Commissioner or an Election Commissioner is a member of the Commission, the Election Commission as an institution does not recommend its establishment. Statement 2 is correct. The Constitution explicitly provides that the orders of the Delimitation Commission have the force of law and are not subject to judicial review. This provision exists to ensure certainty and finality in the delimitation of constituencies, preventing prolonged litigation that could disrupt electoral processes. Once the Commission’s orders are published, they are binding on all authorities, including courts. Incorrect Solution: B The Delimitation Commission is a temporary body, but Statement 1 is incorrect because it is not established on the recommendation of the Election Commission. Instead, it is constituted by the President of India under a Delimitation Act passed by Parliament. While the Chief Election Commissioner or an Election Commissioner is a member of the Commission, the Election Commission as an institution does not recommend its establishment. Statement 2 is correct. The Constitution explicitly provides that the orders of the Delimitation Commission have the force of law and are not subject to judicial review. This provision exists to ensure certainty and finality in the delimitation of constituencies, preventing prolonged litigation that could disrupt electoral processes. Once the Commission’s orders are published, they are binding on all authorities, including courts.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Delimitation Commission.

• The Delimitation Commission is a temporary body established by the President of India on the recommendation of the Election Commission.

• The Constitution of India explicitly provides that the orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be called into question in any court of law.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

• The Delimitation Commission is a temporary body, but Statement 1 is incorrect because it is not established on the recommendation of the Election Commission. Instead, it is constituted by the President of India under a Delimitation Act passed by Parliament. While the Chief Election Commissioner or an Election Commissioner is a member of the Commission, the Election Commission as an institution does not recommend its establishment.

• Statement 2 is correct. The Constitution explicitly provides that the orders of the Delimitation Commission have the force of law and are not subject to judicial review. This provision exists to ensure certainty and finality in the delimitation of constituencies, preventing prolonged litigation that could disrupt electoral processes. Once the Commission’s orders are published, they are binding on all authorities, including courts.

Solution: B

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements: Statement I: The recommendations of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council are not binding on the State Legislatures. Statement II: Under Article 246A of the Constitution, both the Parliament and the State Legislatures possess simultaneous and equal power to legislate on matters related to GST. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement I is Correct: In the landmark Union of India v. Mohit Minerals (2022) judgment, the Supreme Court clarified that the GST Council’s recommendations are persuasive, not mandatory. Treating them as binding would erode the legislative sovereignty of States. Statement II is Correct: Article 246A introduced a special provision for GST, granting “simultaneous” power to both Centre and States. This is distinct from the exclusive powers in the Union and State Lists. The non-binding nature of the recommendations (Statement I) is a direct constitutional consequence of the simultaneous legislative power granted by Article 246A (Statement II). Thus, II serves as the constitutional reason for I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is Correct: In the landmark Union of India v. Mohit Minerals (2022) judgment, the Supreme Court clarified that the GST Council’s recommendations are persuasive, not mandatory. Treating them as binding would erode the legislative sovereignty of States. Statement II is Correct: Article 246A introduced a special provision for GST, granting “simultaneous” power to both Centre and States. This is distinct from the exclusive powers in the Union and State Lists. The non-binding nature of the recommendations (Statement I) is a direct constitutional consequence of the simultaneous legislative power granted by Article 246A (Statement II). Thus, II serves as the constitutional reason for I.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The recommendations of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council are not binding on the State Legislatures.

Statement II: Under Article 246A of the Constitution, both the Parliament and the State Legislatures possess simultaneous and equal power to legislate on matters related to GST.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement I is Correct: In the landmark Union of India v. Mohit Minerals (2022) judgment, the Supreme Court clarified that the GST Council’s recommendations are persuasive, not mandatory. Treating them as binding would erode the legislative sovereignty of States.

• Statement II is Correct: Article 246A introduced a special provision for GST, granting “simultaneous” power to both Centre and States. This is distinct from the exclusive powers in the Union and State Lists.

• The non-binding nature of the recommendations (Statement I) is a direct constitutional consequence of the simultaneous legislative power granted by Article 246A (Statement II). Thus, II serves as the constitutional reason for I.

Solution: A

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Under Article 30 of the Indian Constitution, religious or linguistic minorities have the right to: Establish educational institutions of their choice. Administer educational institutions of their choice. Receive aid from the State for their educational institutions without any discrimination. Claim reservation for their community members in public employment as part of their cultural rights. How many of the above statements are correct with respect to rights under Article 30? (a) Only one statement (b) Only two statements (c) Only three statements (d) All four statements Correct Solution: C Article 30 of the Constitution confers certain rights on minorities, whether based on religion or language. Statement 1 is correct. Article 30(1) explicitly states that all minorities shall have the right to establish educational institutions of their choice. Statement 2 is correct. Article 30(1) also grants minorities the right to administer educational institutions of their choice. This includes the right to choose their governing body, staff (teaching and non-teaching), and admit eligible students. Statement 3 is correct. Article 30(2) provides that the State shall not, in granting aid to educational institutions, discriminate against any educational institution on the ground that it is under the management of a minority, whether based on religion or language. This ensures non-discriminatory financial assistance. Statement 4 is incorrect. Article 30 pertains to cultural and educational rights, specifically the establishment and administration of educational institutions by minorities. The claim for reservation in public employment falls under the scope of Article 16 (Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment) and is not a direct right flowing from Article 30 as a cultural or educational right. Incorrect Solution: C Article 30 of the Constitution confers certain rights on minorities, whether based on religion or language. Statement 1 is correct. Article 30(1) explicitly states that all minorities shall have the right to establish educational institutions of their choice. Statement 2 is correct. Article 30(1) also grants minorities the right to administer educational institutions of their choice. This includes the right to choose their governing body, staff (teaching and non-teaching), and admit eligible students. Statement 3 is correct. Article 30(2) provides that the State shall not, in granting aid to educational institutions, discriminate against any educational institution on the ground that it is under the management of a minority, whether based on religion or language. This ensures non-discriminatory financial assistance. Statement 4 is incorrect. Article 30 pertains to cultural and educational rights, specifically the establishment and administration of educational institutions by minorities. The claim for reservation in public employment falls under the scope of Article 16 (Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment) and is not a direct right flowing from Article 30 as a cultural or educational right.

#### 4. Question

Under Article 30 of the Indian Constitution, religious or linguistic minorities have the right to:

• Establish educational institutions of their choice.

• Administer educational institutions of their choice.

• Receive aid from the State for their educational institutions without any discrimination.

• Claim reservation for their community members in public employment as part of their cultural rights.

How many of the above statements are correct with respect to rights under Article 30?

• (a) Only one statement

• (b) Only two statements

• (c) Only three statements

• (d) All four statements

Solution: C

• Article 30 of the Constitution confers certain rights on minorities, whether based on religion or language.

• Statement 1 is correct. Article 30(1) explicitly states that all minorities shall have the right to establish educational institutions of their choice.

• Statement 2 is correct. Article 30(1) also grants minorities the right to administer educational institutions of their choice. This includes the right to choose their governing body, staff (teaching and non-teaching), and admit eligible students.

• Statement 3 is correct. Article 30(2) provides that the State shall not, in granting aid to educational institutions, discriminate against any educational institution on the ground that it is under the management of a minority, whether based on religion or language. This ensures non-discriminatory financial assistance.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. Article 30 pertains to cultural and educational rights, specifically the establishment and administration of educational institutions by minorities. The claim for reservation in public employment falls under the scope of Article 16 (Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment) and is not a direct right flowing from Article 30 as a cultural or educational right.

Solution: C

• Article 30 of the Constitution confers certain rights on minorities, whether based on religion or language.

• Statement 1 is correct. Article 30(1) explicitly states that all minorities shall have the right to establish educational institutions of their choice.

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Match List-I (Writ) with List-II (Meaning/Purpose) and List-III (Generally Issued Against): List-I (Writ) List-II (Meaning/Purpose) List-III (Generally Issued Against) A. Mandamus 1. To quash the order of a lower court or tribunal P. Private individual unlawfully detaining another B. Certiorari 2. To command a public official to perform his official duty Q. Inferior court or tribunal exceeding jurisdiction C. Habeas Corpus 3. To inquire into the legality of a claim to a public office R. Public official or body, inferior court D. Quo Warranto 4. To produce the body of a person S. Person illegally usurping a public office Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) A-4-P, B-3-S, C-2-R, D-1-Q (b) A-1-Q, B-2-R, C-3-S, D-4-P (c) A-2-R, B-4-P, C-1-Q, D-3-S (d) A-2-R, B-1-Q, C-4-P, D-3-S Correct Solution: D Mandamus literally means “we command.” Its purpose is to compel the performance of a public duty, hence it correctly matches with List-II (2). It is generally issued against a public official, authority, or even an inferior court that has failed to discharge a statutory or constitutional obligation, making R the correct pairing. Certiorari is a corrective writ. Its core function is to quash the order of a lower court or tribunal when it has acted without jurisdiction, in excess of jurisdiction, or in violation of principles of natural justice. Therefore, it matches List-II (1) and is issued against an inferior court or tribunal exceeding jurisdiction, i.e., Q. Habeas Corpus is a writ of liberty. Its object is to produce the body of a person who is allegedly detained unlawfully before the court. Unlike most other writs, it can be issued even against a private individual who is illegally detaining someone, which makes 4-P the correct match. Quo Warranto means “by what authority.” It is issued to inquire into the legality of a claim to a public office and lies against a person who has unlawfully usurped a public office, making 3-S the correct combination. Incorrect Solution: D Mandamus literally means “we command.” Its purpose is to compel the performance of a public duty, hence it correctly matches with List-II (2). It is generally issued against a public official, authority, or even an inferior court that has failed to discharge a statutory or constitutional obligation, making R the correct pairing. Certiorari is a corrective writ. Its core function is to quash the order of a lower court or tribunal when it has acted without jurisdiction, in excess of jurisdiction, or in violation of principles of natural justice. Therefore, it matches List-II (1) and is issued against an inferior court or tribunal exceeding jurisdiction, i.e., Q. Habeas Corpus is a writ of liberty. Its object is to produce the body of a person who is allegedly detained unlawfully before the court. Unlike most other writs, it can be issued even against a private individual who is illegally detaining someone, which makes 4-P the correct match. Quo Warranto means “by what authority.” It is issued to inquire into the legality of a claim to a public office and lies against a person who has unlawfully usurped a public office, making 3-S the correct combination.

#### 5. Question

Match List-I (Writ) with List-II (Meaning/Purpose) and List-III (Generally Issued Against):

List-I (Writ) | List-II (Meaning/Purpose) | List-III (Generally Issued Against)

A. Mandamus | 1. To quash the order of a lower court or tribunal | P. Private individual unlawfully detaining another

B. Certiorari | 2. To command a public official to perform his official duty | Q. Inferior court or tribunal exceeding jurisdiction

C. Habeas Corpus | 3. To inquire into the legality of a claim to a public office | R. Public official or body, inferior court

D. Quo Warranto | 4. To produce the body of a person | S. Person illegally usurping a public office

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) A-4-P, B-3-S, C-2-R, D-1-Q

• (b) A-1-Q, B-2-R, C-3-S, D-4-P

• (c) A-2-R, B-4-P, C-1-Q, D-3-S

• (d) A-2-R, B-1-Q, C-4-P, D-3-S

Solution: D

• Mandamus literally means “we command.” Its purpose is to compel the performance of a public duty, hence it correctly matches with List-II (2). It is generally issued against a public official, authority, or even an inferior court that has failed to discharge a statutory or constitutional obligation, making R the correct pairing.

• Certiorari is a corrective writ. Its core function is to quash the order of a lower court or tribunal when it has acted without jurisdiction, in excess of jurisdiction, or in violation of principles of natural justice. Therefore, it matches List-II (1) and is issued against an inferior court or tribunal exceeding jurisdiction, i.e., Q.

• Habeas Corpus is a writ of liberty. Its object is to produce the body of a person who is allegedly detained unlawfully before the court. Unlike most other writs, it can be issued even against a private individual who is illegally detaining someone, which makes 4-P the correct match.

• Quo Warranto means “by what authority.” It is issued to inquire into the legality of a claim to a public office and lies against a person who has unlawfully usurped a public office, making 3-S the correct combination.

Solution: D

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