UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 5 March 2026

UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 5 March 2026 We will post 5 questions daily on static topics mentioned in the UPSC civil services preliminary examination syllabus. Each week will focus on a specific topic from the syllabus, such as History of India and Indian National Movement, Indian and World Geography, and more. We are excited to bring you our daily UPSC Static Quiz, designed to help you prepare for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination. Each day, we will post 5 questions on static topics mentioned in the UPSC syllabus. This week, we are focusing on Indian and World Geography.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Constitution of India, under Article 365, provides that where any State has failed to comply with any directions given by the Union, it shall be lawful for the President to hold that a situation has arisen in which the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. Statement-II: The Union Government’s power to give directions to the State Governments is absolute and covers all matters in the State List. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Statement-I is correct. It accurately quotes the substance of Article 365 of the Constitution. This article acts as a constitutional sanction behind the Union’s power to give directions. Failure by a state to comply with these directions can be a valid ground for the imposition of President’s Rule under Article 356, as it is deemed a failure of the constitutional machinery in the state. This provision underscores the unitary tilt in the Indian federal structure. Statement-II is incorrect. The Union Government’s power to give directions is not absolute nor does it cover all matters in the State List. The Constitution specifies the circumstances under which such directions can be given. These are primarily under Article 256 (to ensure compliance with laws made by Parliament) and Article 257 (to ensure that the executive power of the state does not impede or prejudice the executive power of the Union, especially concerning communications and railways). Directions can also be given under other provisions, but they are specific and not general. The power is circumscribed by the constitutional framework and is not an instrument for the Union to interfere in the ordinary administration of state subjects. Incorrect Solution: C Statement-I is correct. It accurately quotes the substance of Article 365 of the Constitution. This article acts as a constitutional sanction behind the Union’s power to give directions. Failure by a state to comply with these directions can be a valid ground for the imposition of President’s Rule under Article 356, as it is deemed a failure of the constitutional machinery in the state. This provision underscores the unitary tilt in the Indian federal structure. Statement-II is incorrect. The Union Government’s power to give directions is not absolute nor does it cover all matters in the State List. The Constitution specifies the circumstances under which such directions can be given. These are primarily under Article 256 (to ensure compliance with laws made by Parliament) and Article 257 (to ensure that the executive power of the state does not impede or prejudice the executive power of the Union, especially concerning communications and railways). Directions can also be given under other provisions, but they are specific and not general. The power is circumscribed by the constitutional framework and is not an instrument for the Union to interfere in the ordinary administration of state subjects.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Constitution of India, under Article 365, provides that where any State has failed to comply with any directions given by the Union, it shall be lawful for the President to hold that a situation has arisen in which the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.

Statement-II: The Union Government’s power to give directions to the State Governments is absolute and covers all matters in the State List.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

• Statement-I is correct. It accurately quotes the substance of Article 365 of the Constitution. This article acts as a constitutional sanction behind the Union’s power to give directions. Failure by a state to comply with these directions can be a valid ground for the imposition of President’s Rule under Article 356, as it is deemed a failure of the constitutional machinery in the state. This provision underscores the unitary tilt in the Indian federal structure.

• Statement-II is incorrect. The Union Government’s power to give directions is not absolute nor does it cover all matters in the State List. The Constitution specifies the circumstances under which such directions can be given. These are primarily under Article 256 (to ensure compliance with laws made by Parliament) and Article 257 (to ensure that the executive power of the state does not impede or prejudice the executive power of the Union, especially concerning communications and railways). Directions can also be given under other provisions, but they are specific and not general. The power is circumscribed by the constitutional framework and is not an instrument for the Union to interfere in the ordinary administration of state subjects.

Solution: C

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Which of the following statements correctly describe the relationship between the Lokpal, CVC, and CBI? The Lokpal can refer complaints against Group A, B, C, and D officers for preliminary inquiry to the CVC. The CVC has the power to direct the CBI to initiate an inquiry against any officer, including those of the level of Joint Secretary and above, without government approval. The Director of CBI is appointed by a committee in which the Central Vigilance Commissioner is the chairperson. If the Lokpal has referred a case to the CBI, the investigating officer in such a case cannot be transferred without the approval of the Lokpal. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, establishes a clear mechanism for handling complaints. The Lokpal can refer complaints concerning public servants belonging to Group A, B, C, or D to the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) for preliminary inquiry. For complaints against Group A and B officers, the CVC submits its report to the Lokpal. For Group C and D officers, the CVC proceeds as per the CVC Act. Statement 2 is incorrect. It does not have the authority to direct the CBI to initiate inquiries against officers of the level of Joint Secretary and above on its own. Such an investigation often requires permission from the concerned department or government. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Director of the CBI is appointed by a committee headed by the Prime Minister, with the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and the Chief Justice of India (or his nominee) as members. The Central Vigilance Commissioner heads a different committee that recommends officers for posts of SP and above in the CBI, but not the Director. Statement 4 is correct. This is a powerful provision in the Lokpal Act designed to ensure the independence of investigations. Section 25 of the Act states that for a case referred to the CBI by the Lokpal, the concerned CBI officers cannot be transferred without the Lokpal’s approval. This insulates the investigation from executive pressure. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, establishes a clear mechanism for handling complaints. The Lokpal can refer complaints concerning public servants belonging to Group A, B, C, or D to the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) for preliminary inquiry. For complaints against Group A and B officers, the CVC submits its report to the Lokpal. For Group C and D officers, the CVC proceeds as per the CVC Act. Statement 2 is incorrect. It does not have the authority to direct the CBI to initiate inquiries against officers of the level of Joint Secretary and above on its own. Such an investigation often requires permission from the concerned department or government. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Director of the CBI is appointed by a committee headed by the Prime Minister, with the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and the Chief Justice of India (or his nominee) as members. The Central Vigilance Commissioner heads a different committee that recommends officers for posts of SP and above in the CBI, but not the Director. Statement 4 is correct. This is a powerful provision in the Lokpal Act designed to ensure the independence of investigations. Section 25 of the Act states that for a case referred to the CBI by the Lokpal, the concerned CBI officers cannot be transferred without the Lokpal’s approval. This insulates the investigation from executive pressure.

#### 2. Question

Which of the following statements correctly describe the relationship between the Lokpal, CVC, and CBI?

• The Lokpal can refer complaints against Group A, B, C, and D officers for preliminary inquiry to the CVC.

• The CVC has the power to direct the CBI to initiate an inquiry against any officer, including those of the level of Joint Secretary and above, without government approval.

• The Director of CBI is appointed by a committee in which the Central Vigilance Commissioner is the chairperson.

• If the Lokpal has referred a case to the CBI, the investigating officer in such a case cannot be transferred without the approval of the Lokpal.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 4 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

• (d) 3 and 4 only

Solution: A

Statement 1 is correct. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, establishes a clear mechanism for handling complaints. The Lokpal can refer complaints concerning public servants belonging to Group A, B, C, or D to the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) for preliminary inquiry. For complaints against Group A and B officers, the CVC submits its report to the Lokpal. For Group C and D officers, the CVC proceeds as per the CVC Act.

Statement 2 is incorrect. It does not have the authority to direct the CBI to initiate inquiries against officers of the level of Joint Secretary and above on its own. Such an investigation often requires permission from the concerned department or government.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Director of the CBI is appointed by a committee headed by the Prime Minister, with the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and the Chief Justice of India (or his nominee) as members. The Central Vigilance Commissioner heads a different committee that recommends officers for posts of SP and above in the CBI, but not the Director.

Statement 4 is correct. This is a powerful provision in the Lokpal Act designed to ensure the independence of investigations. Section 25 of the Act states that for a case referred to the CBI by the Lokpal, the concerned CBI officers cannot be transferred without the Lokpal’s approval. This insulates the investigation from executive pressure.

Solution: A

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Act/Report) List-II (Key Provision/Outcome) A. Indian Councils Act, 1909 1. Introduction of Provincial Autonomy B. Government of India Act, 1919 2. Introduction of Separate Electorates for Muslims C. Government of India Act, 1935 3. Transfer of power from East India Company to the Crown D. Government of India Act, 1858 4. Introduction of Dyarchy in the Provinces Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 (b) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 (c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 (d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 Correct Solution: A Indian Councils Act, 1909: This Act, also known as the Morley-Minto Reforms, is infamous for introducing the principle of separate electorates for Muslims, thereby introducing communal electorates in legislative councils. Lord Minto came to be known as the Father of the Communal Electorate. So, A matches with 2. Government of India Act, 1919: This Act, also known as the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, introduced dyarchy in the provinces. It divided provincial subjects into ‘transferred’ (administered by the governor with the aid of ministers responsible to the legislative council) and ‘reserved’ (administered by the governor and his executive council without being responsible to the legislative council). So, B matches with 4. Government of India Act, 1935: This comprehensive Act abolished dyarchy in the provinces and introduced provincial autonomy. It also provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation and a Federal Court. So, C matches with 1. D. Government of India Act, 1858: Enacted after the Revolt of 1857, this Act abolished the East India Company and transferred the powers of government, territories, and revenues directly to the British Crown. So, D matches with 3. The correct matching is A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3. This corresponds to option (a). Incorrect Solution: A Indian Councils Act, 1909: This Act, also known as the Morley-Minto Reforms, is infamous for introducing the principle of separate electorates for Muslims, thereby introducing communal electorates in legislative councils. Lord Minto came to be known as the Father of the Communal Electorate. So, A matches with 2. Government of India Act, 1919: This Act, also known as the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, introduced dyarchy in the provinces. It divided provincial subjects into ‘transferred’ (administered by the governor with the aid of ministers responsible to the legislative council) and ‘reserved’ (administered by the governor and his executive council without being responsible to the legislative council). So, B matches with 4. Government of India Act, 1935: This comprehensive Act abolished dyarchy in the provinces and introduced provincial autonomy. It also provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation and a Federal Court. So, C matches with 1. D. Government of India Act, 1858: Enacted after the Revolt of 1857, this Act abolished the East India Company and transferred the powers of government, territories, and revenues directly to the British Crown. So, D matches with 3. The correct matching is A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3. This corresponds to option (a).

#### 3. Question

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Act/Report) | List-II (Key Provision/Outcome)

A. Indian Councils Act, 1909 | 1. Introduction of Provincial Autonomy

B. Government of India Act, 1919 | 2. Introduction of Separate Electorates for Muslims

C. Government of India Act, 1935 | 3. Transfer of power from East India Company to the Crown

D. Government of India Act, 1858 | 4. Introduction of Dyarchy in the Provinces

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

• (b) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

• (c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

• (d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

Solution: A

• Indian Councils Act, 1909: This Act, also known as the Morley-Minto Reforms, is infamous for introducing the principle of separate electorates for Muslims, thereby introducing communal electorates in legislative councils. Lord Minto came to be known as the Father of the Communal Electorate. So, A matches with 2.

• Government of India Act, 1919: This Act, also known as the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, introduced dyarchy in the provinces. It divided provincial subjects into ‘transferred’ (administered by the governor with the aid of ministers responsible to the legislative council) and ‘reserved’ (administered by the governor and his executive council without being responsible to the legislative council). So, B matches with 4.

• Government of India Act, 1935: This comprehensive Act abolished dyarchy in the provinces and introduced provincial autonomy. It also provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation and a Federal Court. So, C matches with 1.

• D. Government of India Act, 1858: Enacted after the Revolt of 1857, this Act abolished the East India Company and transferred the powers of government, territories, and revenues directly to the British Crown. So, D matches with 3. The correct matching is A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3. This corresponds to option (a).

Solution: A

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question With reference to the Constituent Assembly of India, consider the following statements: It was constituted under the scheme formulated by the Cripps Mission. It was a partly elected and partly nominated body. Its total strength was determined after the partition of the country under the Mountbatten Plan of 1947. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan, not the Cripps Mission. The Cripps Mission of 1942 had proposed the idea of a Constituent Assembly to be set up after World War II, but its proposals were rejected by the major political parties. The actual framework for its formation came from the Cabinet Mission. Statement 2 is correct. The Constituent Assembly was not a directly elected body based on universal adult franchise. The members from the British Indian provinces were elected indirectly by the members of the provincial legislative assemblies. The representatives of the princely states were nominated by the heads of those states. Thus, it was a unique blend of a partly elected and partly nominated body. Statement 3 is incorrect. The total strength of the Constituent Assembly was originally fixed at 389 under the Cabinet Mission Plan (296 from British India and 93 from Princely States). After the partition of the country under the Mountbatten Plan, the members representing territories that went to Pakistan withdrew from the Assembly. Consequently, the total strength of the Assembly was reduced to 299, not determined for the first time after partition. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan, not the Cripps Mission. The Cripps Mission of 1942 had proposed the idea of a Constituent Assembly to be set up after World War II, but its proposals were rejected by the major political parties. The actual framework for its formation came from the Cabinet Mission. Statement 2 is correct. The Constituent Assembly was not a directly elected body based on universal adult franchise. The members from the British Indian provinces were elected indirectly by the members of the provincial legislative assemblies. The representatives of the princely states were nominated by the heads of those states. Thus, it was a unique blend of a partly elected and partly nominated body. Statement 3 is incorrect. The total strength of the Constituent Assembly was originally fixed at 389 under the Cabinet Mission Plan (296 from British India and 93 from Princely States). After the partition of the country under the Mountbatten Plan, the members representing territories that went to Pakistan withdrew from the Assembly. Consequently, the total strength of the Assembly was reduced to 299, not determined for the first time after partition.

#### 4. Question

With reference to the Constituent Assembly of India, consider the following statements:

• It was constituted under the scheme formulated by the Cripps Mission.

• It was a partly elected and partly nominated body.

• Its total strength was determined after the partition of the country under the Mountbatten Plan of 1947.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan, not the Cripps Mission. The Cripps Mission of 1942 had proposed the idea of a Constituent Assembly to be set up after World War II, but its proposals were rejected by the major political parties. The actual framework for its formation came from the Cabinet Mission.

• Statement 2 is correct. The Constituent Assembly was not a directly elected body based on universal adult franchise. The members from the British Indian provinces were elected indirectly by the members of the provincial legislative assemblies. The representatives of the princely states were nominated by the heads of those states. Thus, it was a unique blend of a partly elected and partly nominated body.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The total strength of the Constituent Assembly was originally fixed at 389 under the Cabinet Mission Plan (296 from British India and 93 from Princely States). After the partition of the country under the Mountbatten Plan, the members representing territories that went to Pakistan withdrew from the Assembly. Consequently, the total strength of the Assembly was reduced to 299, not determined for the first time after partition.

Solution: A

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements regarding a State Public Service Commission (SPSC): The Chairman and members of an SPSC are appointed by the Governor but can be removed only by the President. The Constitution provides for the establishment of a Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC) by an act of Parliament at the request of the concerned state legislatures. The entire expenses of an SPSC, including the salaries of its members and staff, are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Under Article 316, the Chairman and members of an SPSC are appointed by the Governor of the State. However, under Article 317, they can be removed from office only by the President on grounds and in the manner specified (similar to a UPSC member), not by the Governor. This provides them with a high degree of security of tenure. Statement 2 is correct. Article 315(2) of the Constitution allows for the creation of a Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC) to serve the needs of two or more states. This is done if a resolution to that effect is passed by the House(s) of the Legislature of each of those states. Following such resolutions, Parliament may by law provide for the appointment of a JSPSC. Statement 3 is incorrect. To ensure the financial autonomy of the SPSC, its expenses are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of the State, not the Consolidated Fund of India. Article 322 explicitly states this. The expenses of the UPSC are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. Incorrect Solution: B Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Under Article 316, the Chairman and members of an SPSC are appointed by the Governor of the State. However, under Article 317, they can be removed from office only by the President on grounds and in the manner specified (similar to a UPSC member), not by the Governor. This provides them with a high degree of security of tenure. Statement 2 is correct. Article 315(2) of the Constitution allows for the creation of a Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC) to serve the needs of two or more states. This is done if a resolution to that effect is passed by the House(s) of the Legislature of each of those states. Following such resolutions, Parliament may by law provide for the appointment of a JSPSC. Statement 3 is incorrect. To ensure the financial autonomy of the SPSC, its expenses are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of the State, not the Consolidated Fund of India. Article 322 explicitly states this. The expenses of the UPSC are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding a State Public Service Commission (SPSC):

• The Chairman and members of an SPSC are appointed by the Governor but can be removed only by the President.

• The Constitution provides for the establishment of a Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC) by an act of Parliament at the request of the concerned state legislatures.

• The entire expenses of an SPSC, including the salaries of its members and staff, are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct. Under Article 316, the Chairman and members of an SPSC are appointed by the Governor of the State. However, under Article 317, they can be removed from office only by the President on grounds and in the manner specified (similar to a UPSC member), not by the Governor. This provides them with a high degree of security of tenure.

• Statement 2 is correct. Article 315(2) of the Constitution allows for the creation of a Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC) to serve the needs of two or more states. This is done if a resolution to that effect is passed by the House(s) of the Legislature of each of those states. Following such resolutions, Parliament may by law provide for the appointment of a JSPSC.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. To ensure the financial autonomy of the SPSC, its expenses are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of the State, not the Consolidated Fund of India. Article 322 explicitly states this. The expenses of the UPSC are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.

Solution: B

Explanation:

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