UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 4 September 2025

UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 4 September 2025 We will post 5 questions daily on static topics mentioned in the UPSC civil services preliminary examination syllabus. Each week will focus on a specific topic from the syllabus, such as History of India and Indian National Movement, Indian and World Geography, and more.We are excited to bring you our daily UPSC Static Quiz, designed to help you prepare for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination. Each day, we will post 5 questions on static topics mentioned in the UPSC syllabus. This week, we are focusing on Indian and World Geography.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Match List-I (Feature borrowed by Indian Constitution) with List-II (Source Country/Act): List-I (Feature) List-II (Source) A. Federal Scheme 1. U.S. Constitution B. Judicial Review 2. Irish Constitution C. Concurrent List 3. Government of India Act, 1935 D. Nomination of members to Rajya Sabha 4. Australian Constitution Select the correct answer code: (a) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 (b) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 (c) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 (d) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2 Correct Solution: C Federal Scheme: The structural part of the Constitution, including the federal scheme (division of powers), is largely derived from the Government of India Act, 1935. So, A matches with 3. Judicial Review: The concept of Judicial Review, which empowers the judiciary to examine the constitutionality of laws, was borrowed from the U.S. Constitution. So, B matches with 1. Concurrent List: The idea of a Concurrent List, where both the Union and States can legislate, was taken from the Australian Constitution. So, C matches with 4. D. Nomination of members to Rajya Sabha: The provision for the President to nominate members to the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) who have special knowledge or practical experience in fields like literature, science, art, and social service was borrowed from the Irish Constitution. So, D matches with 2. Thus, the correct code is A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2. Incorrect Solution: C Federal Scheme: The structural part of the Constitution, including the federal scheme (division of powers), is largely derived from the Government of India Act, 1935. So, A matches with 3. Judicial Review: The concept of Judicial Review, which empowers the judiciary to examine the constitutionality of laws, was borrowed from the U.S. Constitution. So, B matches with 1. Concurrent List: The idea of a Concurrent List, where both the Union and States can legislate, was taken from the Australian Constitution. So, C matches with 4. D. Nomination of members to Rajya Sabha: The provision for the President to nominate members to the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) who have special knowledge or practical experience in fields like literature, science, art, and social service was borrowed from the Irish Constitution. So, D matches with 2. Thus, the correct code is A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2.

#### 1. Question

Match List-I (Feature borrowed by Indian Constitution) with List-II (Source Country/Act):

List-I (Feature) | List-II (Source)

A. Federal Scheme | 1. U.S. Constitution

B. Judicial Review | 2. Irish Constitution

C. Concurrent List | 3. Government of India Act, 1935

D. Nomination of members to Rajya Sabha | 4. Australian Constitution

Select the correct answer code:

• (a) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

• (b) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

• (c) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

• (d) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2

Solution: C

• Federal Scheme: The structural part of the Constitution, including the federal scheme (division of powers), is largely derived from the Government of India Act, 1935. So, A matches with 3.

• Judicial Review: The concept of Judicial Review, which empowers the judiciary to examine the constitutionality of laws, was borrowed from the U.S. Constitution. So, B matches with 1.

• Concurrent List: The idea of a Concurrent List, where both the Union and States can legislate, was taken from the Australian Constitution. So, C matches with 4.

D. Nomination of members to Rajya Sabha: The provision for the President to nominate members to the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) who have special knowledge or practical experience in fields like literature, science, art, and social service was borrowed from the Irish Constitution. So, D matches with 2. Thus, the correct code is A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2.

Solution: C

• Judicial Review: The concept of Judicial Review, which empowers the judiciary to examine the constitutionality of laws, was borrowed from the U.S. Constitution. So, B matches with 1.

• Concurrent List: The idea of a Concurrent List, where both the Union and States can legislate, was taken from the Australian Constitution. So, C matches with 4.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements: All republics are democratic in nature. All democracies are republics. India is a democratic republic. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. A republic is defined by an elected head of state. While many modern republics are also democratic (power vested in the people, free and fair elections, rights, etc.), it is not a necessary condition. History provides examples of republics that were oligarchic or authoritarian (e.g., some ancient Roman periods, or some 20th-century states). Statement 2 is incorrect. A democracy is a system where supreme power is vested in the people. A country can be a democracy but still have a monarch as a constitutional head of state (e.g., the UK, Canada, Australia are democracies but also constitutional monarchies, not republics). Statement 3 is correct. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution explicitly declares India to be a “SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC”. This means India has an elected Head of State (republican feature) and its government is based on the will of the people, with citizens enjoying political rights and participation (democratic feature). Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. A republic is defined by an elected head of state. While many modern republics are also democratic (power vested in the people, free and fair elections, rights, etc.), it is not a necessary condition. History provides examples of republics that were oligarchic or authoritarian (e.g., some ancient Roman periods, or some 20th-century states). Statement 2 is incorrect. A democracy is a system where supreme power is vested in the people. A country can be a democracy but still have a monarch as a constitutional head of state (e.g., the UK, Canada, Australia are democracies but also constitutional monarchies, not republics). Statement 3 is correct. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution explicitly declares India to be a “SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC”. This means India has an elected Head of State (republican feature) and its government is based on the will of the people, with citizens enjoying political rights and participation (democratic feature).

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

• All republics are democratic in nature.

• All democracies are republics.

• India is a democratic republic.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

Statement 1 is incorrect. A republic is defined by an elected head of state. While many modern republics are also democratic (power vested in the people, free and fair elections, rights, etc.), it is not a necessary condition. History provides examples of republics that were oligarchic or authoritarian (e.g., some ancient Roman periods, or some 20th-century states).

Statement 2 is incorrect. A democracy is a system where supreme power is vested in the people. A country can be a democracy but still have a monarch as a constitutional head of state (e.g., the UK, Canada, Australia are democracies but also constitutional monarchies, not republics).

Statement 3 is correct. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution explicitly declares India to be a “SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC”. This means India has an elected Head of State (republican feature) and its government is based on the will of the people, with citizens enjoying political rights and participation (democratic feature).

Solution: A

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Which of the following functions are performed by the Chief Minister of a state? Advising the Governor with regard to the summoning and proroguing of the sessions of the state legislature. Serving as the vice-chairman of the concerned Zonal Council by rotation. Advising the Governor on the appointment of the chairman of the State Public Service Commission. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. The Chief Minister, as the leader of the house, advises the Governor on summoning and proroguing the sessions of the state legislature under Article 174. This is a key part of his role in managing the legislative business of the state. Statement 2 is correct. The Zonal Councils are statutory bodies established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. The Chief Minister of each state within a zone acts as its vice-chairman by rotation, holding the office for a period of one year at a time. This highlights his role in inter-state cooperation. Statement 3 is correct. The Chief Minister advises the Governor on the appointment of important state officials, including the Advocate General, the State Election Commissioner, and the chairman and members of the State Public Service Commission. While the formal appointment is made by the Governor, it is done on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the CM. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. The Chief Minister, as the leader of the house, advises the Governor on summoning and proroguing the sessions of the state legislature under Article 174. This is a key part of his role in managing the legislative business of the state. Statement 2 is correct. The Zonal Councils are statutory bodies established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. The Chief Minister of each state within a zone acts as its vice-chairman by rotation, holding the office for a period of one year at a time. This highlights his role in inter-state cooperation. Statement 3 is correct. The Chief Minister advises the Governor on the appointment of important state officials, including the Advocate General, the State Election Commissioner, and the chairman and members of the State Public Service Commission. While the formal appointment is made by the Governor, it is done on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the CM.

#### 3. Question

Which of the following functions are performed by the Chief Minister of a state?

• Advising the Governor with regard to the summoning and proroguing of the sessions of the state legislature.

• Serving as the vice-chairman of the concerned Zonal Council by rotation.

• Advising the Governor on the appointment of the chairman of the State Public Service Commission.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1 and 3 only

• (c) 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

Statement 1 is correct. The Chief Minister, as the leader of the house, advises the Governor on summoning and proroguing the sessions of the state legislature under Article 174. This is a key part of his role in managing the legislative business of the state.

Statement 2 is correct. The Zonal Councils are statutory bodies established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. The Chief Minister of each state within a zone acts as its vice-chairman by rotation, holding the office for a period of one year at a time. This highlights his role in inter-state cooperation.

Statement 3 is correct. The Chief Minister advises the Governor on the appointment of important state officials, including the Advocate General, the State Election Commissioner, and the chairman and members of the State Public Service Commission. While the formal appointment is made by the Governor, it is done on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the CM.

Solution: D

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements: Statement I: The Indian federal system is often described as ‘quasi-federal’ or a ‘federation with a strong centralising tendency’. Statement II: The Indian Constitution contains several unitary or non-federal features, such as a single constitution, single citizenship, and the appointment of State Governors by the Centre. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement I accurately describes the nature of the Indian federal system. Unlike a classic federation (like the USA) where states have more autonomy, the Indian model tilts power in favour of the Union government. Scholars and courts have used terms like ‘quasi-federal’ (K.C. Wheare), ‘cooperative federalism’, and ‘federation with a unitary bias’ to describe this unique structure. So, Statement I is correct. Statement II provides the reasons for this characterization. It correctly lists several features of the Indian Constitution that deviate from a purely federal model and exhibit a unitary character. These include a single constitution for both the Union and the states, single citizenship for all Indians, an integrated judiciary, All-India Services, and the power of the central government to appoint and remove State Governors. These provisions give the Union government significant control over the states. So, Statement II is also correct. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I accurately describes the nature of the Indian federal system. Unlike a classic federation (like the USA) where states have more autonomy, the Indian model tilts power in favour of the Union government. Scholars and courts have used terms like ‘quasi-federal’ (K.C. Wheare), ‘cooperative federalism’, and ‘federation with a unitary bias’ to describe this unique structure. So, Statement I is correct. Statement II provides the reasons for this characterization. It correctly lists several features of the Indian Constitution that deviate from a purely federal model and exhibit a unitary character. These include a single constitution for both the Union and the states, single citizenship for all Indians, an integrated judiciary, All-India Services, and the power of the central government to appoint and remove State Governors. These provisions give the Union government significant control over the states. So, Statement II is also correct.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The Indian federal system is often described as ‘quasi-federal’ or a ‘federation with a strong centralising tendency’.

Statement II: The Indian Constitution contains several unitary or non-federal features, such as a single constitution, single citizenship, and the appointment of State Governors by the Centre.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement I accurately describes the nature of the Indian federal system. Unlike a classic federation (like the USA) where states have more autonomy, the Indian model tilts power in favour of the Union government. Scholars and courts have used terms like ‘quasi-federal’ (K.C. Wheare), ‘cooperative federalism’, and ‘federation with a unitary bias’ to describe this unique structure. So, Statement I is correct.

• Statement II provides the reasons for this characterization. It correctly lists several features of the Indian Constitution that deviate from a purely federal model and exhibit a unitary character. These include a single constitution for both the Union and the states, single citizenship for all Indians, an integrated judiciary, All-India Services, and the power of the central government to appoint and remove State Governors. These provisions give the Union government significant control over the states. So, Statement II is also correct.

Solution: A

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements regarding Fundamental Duties under Part IV-A of the Constitution: The inclusion of Fundamental Duties was inspired by the Constitution of the erstwhile USSR and was recommended by the Ashok Mehta Committee. Like the Directive Principles, the Fundamental Duties are also non-justiciable, and Parliament cannot enact laws for their implementation. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: D Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. While the inclusion of Fundamental Duties was inspired by the Constitution of the former USSR, their incorporation was recommended by the Swaran Singh Committee, not the Ashok Mehta Committee. The Ashok Mehta Committee (1977) was appointed to study and make recommendations on Panchayati Raj Institutions. Statement 2 is incorrect. The first part of the statement is correct: like the DPSPs, the Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be directly enforced by the courts. However, the second part is incorrect. Parliament is free to enact laws to implement the Fundamental Duties. For example, the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971, enforces the duty under Article 51A(a) (to respect the National Flag and National Anthem). Similarly, various environmental laws give effect to Article 51A(g) (to protect and improve the natural environment). Incorrect Solution: D Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. While the inclusion of Fundamental Duties was inspired by the Constitution of the former USSR, their incorporation was recommended by the Swaran Singh Committee, not the Ashok Mehta Committee. The Ashok Mehta Committee (1977) was appointed to study and make recommendations on Panchayati Raj Institutions. Statement 2 is incorrect. The first part of the statement is correct: like the DPSPs, the Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be directly enforced by the courts. However, the second part is incorrect. Parliament is free to enact laws to implement the Fundamental Duties. For example, the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971, enforces the duty under Article 51A(a) (to respect the National Flag and National Anthem). Similarly, various environmental laws give effect to Article 51A(g) (to protect and improve the natural environment).

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Fundamental Duties under Part IV-A of the Constitution:

• The inclusion of Fundamental Duties was inspired by the Constitution of the erstwhile USSR and was recommended by the Ashok Mehta Committee.

• Like the Directive Principles, the Fundamental Duties are also non-justiciable, and Parliament cannot enact laws for their implementation.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While the inclusion of Fundamental Duties was inspired by the Constitution of the former USSR, their incorporation was recommended by the Swaran Singh Committee, not the Ashok Mehta Committee. The Ashok Mehta Committee (1977) was appointed to study and make recommendations on Panchayati Raj Institutions.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The first part of the statement is correct: like the DPSPs, the Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be directly enforced by the courts. However, the second part is incorrect. Parliament is free to enact laws to implement the Fundamental Duties. For example, the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971, enforces the duty under Article 51A(a) (to respect the National Flag and National Anthem). Similarly, various environmental laws give effect to Article 51A(g) (to protect and improve the natural environment).

Solution: D

Explanation:

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