UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 30 October 2024

UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 30 October 2024 We will post 5 questions daily on static topics mentioned in the UPSC civil services preliminary examination syllabus. Each week will focus on a specific topic from the syllabus, such as History of India and Indian National Movement, Indian and World Geography, and more.We are excited to bring you our daily UPSC Static Quiz, designed to help you prepare for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination. Each day, we will post 5 questions on static topics mentioned in the UPSC syllabus. This week, we are focusing on Indian and World Geography.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the followings statements. The All-India Services Act of 1951 authorised the Central government to make rules for the regulation of recruitment and service conditions of the members of all-India services The members of these services belong to the centre and different state cadres. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: b) The All-India Services Act of 1951 authorised the Central government to make rules in consultation with the state governments for the regulation of recruitment and service conditions of the members of all-India services. The members of these services are recruited and trained by the Central government but are assigned to different states for work. They belong to different state cadres; the Centre having no cadre of its own in this regard. They serve the Central government on deputation and after completing their fixed tenure they go back to their respective states. Hence, statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: b) The All-India Services Act of 1951 authorised the Central government to make rules in consultation with the state governments for the regulation of recruitment and service conditions of the members of all-India services. The members of these services are recruited and trained by the Central government but are assigned to different states for work. They belong to different state cadres; the Centre having no cadre of its own in this regard. They serve the Central government on deputation and after completing their fixed tenure they go back to their respective states. Hence, statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.

#### 1. Question

Consider the followings statements.

• The All-India Services Act of 1951 authorised the Central government to make rules for the regulation of recruitment and service conditions of the members of all-India services

• The members of these services belong to the centre and different state cadres.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b)

The All-India Services Act of 1951 authorised the Central government to make rules in consultation with the state governments for the regulation of recruitment and service conditions of the members of all-India services. The members of these services are recruited and trained by the Central government but are assigned to different states for work. They belong to different state cadres; the Centre having no cadre of its own in this regard.

They serve the Central government on deputation and after completing their fixed tenure they go back to their respective states.

Hence, statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution: b)

They serve the Central government on deputation and after completing their fixed tenure they go back to their respective states.

Hence, statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Impeachment of the President: The impeachment charges can only be initiated by the Lower House of Parliament. An impeachment is a quasi-judicial procedure in the Parliament. Only the elected members of the Parliament can participate in this procedure. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is not correct: The impeachment charges can be initiated by either House of Parliament. These charges should be signed by one-fourth members of the House (that framed the charges), and a 14 days’ notice should be given to the President. Statement 2 is correct: An impeachment is a quasi-judicial procedure in the Parliament. In this context, two things should be noted: Statement 3 is not correct: the nominated members of either House of Parliament can participate in the impeachment of the President though they do not participate in his election; Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is not correct: The impeachment charges can be initiated by either House of Parliament. These charges should be signed by one-fourth members of the House (that framed the charges), and a 14 days’ notice should be given to the President. Statement 2 is correct: An impeachment is a quasi-judicial procedure in the Parliament. In this context, two things should be noted: Statement 3 is not correct: the nominated members of either House of Parliament can participate in the impeachment of the President though they do not participate in his election;

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Impeachment of the President:

• The impeachment charges can only be initiated by the Lower House of Parliament.

• An impeachment is a quasi-judicial procedure in the Parliament.

• Only the elected members of the Parliament can participate in this procedure.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is not correct: The impeachment charges can be initiated by either House of Parliament. These charges should be signed by one-fourth members of the House (that framed the charges), and a 14 days’ notice should be given to the President.

Statement 2 is correct: An impeachment is a quasi-judicial procedure in the Parliament.

In this context, two things should be noted:

Statement 3 is not correct: the nominated members of either House of Parliament can participate in the impeachment of the President though they do not participate in his election;

Solution: a)

Statement 2 is correct: An impeachment is a quasi-judicial procedure in the Parliament.

In this context, two things should be noted:

Statement 3 is not correct: the nominated members of either House of Parliament can participate in the impeachment of the President though they do not participate in his election;

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements: Both the terms ‘chargesheet’ and ‘First Information Report’ have been explicitly defined in the Indian Penal Code. A chargesheet must be filed against the accused within a prescribed period of 60-90 days otherwise the accused is entitled to bail. As per the Supreme Court, a chargesheet cannot be made publicly available as it’s not a ‘public document’. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: c) Statement 1 is not correct: The term ‘chargesheet’ has been expressly defined under Section 173 of the CrPC but ‘First Information Report’ or FIR, has not been defined in either the Indian Penal Code (IPC) or the CrPC. Instead, it finds a place under the police regulations/ rules under Section 154 of CrPC, which deals with ‘Information in Cognizable Cases’. Statement 2 is correct: A chargesheet must be filed against the accused within a prescribed period of 60-90 days, otherwise the arrest is illegal and the accused is entitled to bail. Statement 3 is correct: The Supreme Court held that a chargesheet cannot be made publicly available as it’s not a ‘public document’ under Sections 74 and 76 of the Evidence Act, as argued by the petitioners’. Section 74 of the Evidence Act defines ‘public documents’ as those which form the acts or records of sovereign authority, official bodies, tribunals, and of public offices either legislative, judicial or executive in any part of India, Commonwealth or a foreign country. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement 1 is not correct: The term ‘chargesheet’ has been expressly defined under Section 173 of the CrPC but ‘First Information Report’ or FIR, has not been defined in either the Indian Penal Code (IPC) or the CrPC. Instead, it finds a place under the police regulations/ rules under Section 154 of CrPC, which deals with ‘Information in Cognizable Cases’. Statement 2 is correct: A chargesheet must be filed against the accused within a prescribed period of 60-90 days, otherwise the arrest is illegal and the accused is entitled to bail. Statement 3 is correct: The Supreme Court held that a chargesheet cannot be made publicly available as it’s not a ‘public document’ under Sections 74 and 76 of the Evidence Act, as argued by the petitioners’. Section 74 of the Evidence Act defines ‘public documents’ as those which form the acts or records of sovereign authority, official bodies, tribunals, and of public offices either legislative, judicial or executive in any part of India, Commonwealth or a foreign country.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Both the terms ‘chargesheet’ and ‘First Information Report’ have been explicitly defined in the Indian Penal Code.

• A chargesheet must be filed against the accused within a prescribed period of 60-90 days otherwise the accused is entitled to bail.

• As per the Supreme Court, a chargesheet cannot be made publicly available as it’s not a ‘public document’.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• b) 1 and 2 only

• c) 2 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c)

Statement 1 is not correct: The term ‘chargesheet’ has been expressly defined under Section 173 of the CrPC but ‘First Information Report’ or FIR, has not been defined in either the Indian Penal Code (IPC) or the CrPC.

Instead, it finds a place under the police regulations/ rules under Section 154 of CrPC, which deals with ‘Information in Cognizable Cases’.

Statement 2 is correct: A chargesheet must be filed against the accused within a prescribed period of 60-90 days, otherwise the arrest is illegal and the accused is entitled to bail.

Statement 3 is correct: The Supreme Court held that a chargesheet cannot be made publicly available as it’s not a ‘public document’ under Sections 74 and 76 of the Evidence Act, as argued by the petitioners’.

Section 74 of the Evidence Act defines ‘public documents’ as those which form the acts or records of sovereign authority, official bodies, tribunals, and of public offices either legislative, judicial or executive in any part of India, Commonwealth or a foreign country.

Solution: c)

Instead, it finds a place under the police regulations/ rules under Section 154 of CrPC, which deals with ‘Information in Cognizable Cases’.

Statement 2 is correct: A chargesheet must be filed against the accused within a prescribed period of 60-90 days, otherwise the arrest is illegal and the accused is entitled to bail.

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question With reference to the Devices of parliamentary procedures, consider the following statements: The time gap between the question hour and the agenda is known as zero hour. Zero hour is available to the members to raise matters without any prior notice. Unlike the question hour, the zero hour is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: c) Statement 1 is correct: The time gap between the question hour and the agenda is known as zero hour. It is an Indian innovation in the field of parliamentary procedures and it does not include the Question hour. It has been in existence since 1962 Statement 2 is correct: Thus, unlike question hour, zero hour is an informal device available to the members of the Parliament to raise matters without any prior notice. The zero hour starts immediately after the question hour and lasts until the agenda for the day (ie, regular business of the House) is taken up. Statement 3 is correct: Unlike the question hour, the zero hour is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement 1 is correct: The time gap between the question hour and the agenda is known as zero hour. It is an Indian innovation in the field of parliamentary procedures and it does not include the Question hour. It has been in existence since 1962 Statement 2 is correct: Thus, unlike question hour, zero hour is an informal device available to the members of the Parliament to raise matters without any prior notice. The zero hour starts immediately after the question hour and lasts until the agenda for the day (ie, regular business of the House) is taken up. Statement 3 is correct: Unlike the question hour, the zero hour is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure.

#### 4. Question

With reference to the Devices of parliamentary procedures, consider the following statements:

• The time gap between the question hour and the agenda is known as zero hour.

• Zero hour is available to the members to raise matters without any prior notice.

• Unlike the question hour, the zero hour is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: c)

Statement 1 is correct: The time gap between the question hour and the agenda is known as zero hour. It is an Indian innovation in the field of parliamentary procedures and it does not include the Question hour. It has been in existence since 1962

Statement 2 is correct: Thus, unlike question hour, zero hour is an informal device available to the members of the Parliament to raise matters without any prior notice. The zero hour starts immediately after the question hour and lasts until the agenda for the day (ie, regular business of the House) is taken up.

Statement 3 is correct: Unlike the question hour, the zero hour is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure.

Solution: c)

Statement 3 is correct: Unlike the question hour, the zero hour is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure.

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Preventive Detention in India: These detentions cannot be used to counter ordinary law and order situations. It is an exceptional power of the State and affects personal liberty of individuals. It must fall entirely within the ambit of Article 21 which is the due process of law. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct: The Supreme Court has held in an order that preventive detention cannot be used to counter ordinary law and order situations. Statement 2 is correct: Preventive detention is an “exceptional power” of the State which affects the personal liberty of the individual and has to be employed sparingly. The State should not arbitrarily resort to “preventive detention” to deal with all and sundry “law and order” problems, which could be dealt with by the ordinary laws of the country. Statement 3 is not correct: Preventive detention must fall within the four corners of Article 21 (due process of law) read with Article 22 (safeguards against arbitrary arrest and detention) and the statute in question. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct: The Supreme Court has held in an order that preventive detention cannot be used to counter ordinary law and order situations. Statement 2 is correct: Preventive detention is an “exceptional power” of the State which affects the personal liberty of the individual and has to be employed sparingly. The State should not arbitrarily resort to “preventive detention” to deal with all and sundry “law and order” problems, which could be dealt with by the ordinary laws of the country. Statement 3 is not correct: Preventive detention must fall within the four corners of Article 21 (due process of law) read with Article 22 (safeguards against arbitrary arrest and detention) and the statute in question.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Preventive Detention in India:

• These detentions cannot be used to counter ordinary law and order situations.

• It is an exceptional power of the State and affects personal liberty of individuals.

• It must fall entirely within the ambit of Article 21 which is the due process of law.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is correct: The Supreme Court has held in an order that preventive detention cannot be used to counter ordinary law and order situations.

Statement 2 is correct: Preventive detention is an “exceptional power” of the State which affects the personal liberty of the individual and has to be employed sparingly. The State should not arbitrarily resort to “preventive detention” to deal with all and sundry “law and order” problems, which could be dealt with by the ordinary laws of the country.

Statement 3 is not correct: Preventive detention must fall within the four corners of Article 21 (due process of law) read with Article 22 (safeguards against arbitrary arrest and detention) and the statute in question.

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is correct: The Supreme Court has held in an order that preventive detention cannot be used to counter ordinary law and order situations.

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