UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 30 July 2025

UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 30 July 2025 We will post 5 questions daily on static topics mentioned in the UPSC civil services preliminary examination syllabus. Each week will focus on a specific topic from the syllabus, such as History of India and Indian National Movement, Indian and World Geography, and more.We are excited to bring you our daily UPSC Static Quiz, designed to help you prepare for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination. Each day, we will post 5 questions on static topics mentioned in the UPSC syllabus. This week, we are focusing on Indian and World Geography.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The President of India can proclaim President’s Rule in a state under Article 356 if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. Statement-II: The satisfaction of the President is based solely on the report of the Governor of the state and is not open to judicial review. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Statement-I is correct. It accurately quotes the constitutional ground for the imposition of President’s Rule as laid down in Article 356(1). The key phrase is the breakdown of constitutional machinery, i.e., the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. Statement-II is incorrect. President’s satisfaction can be based on a report from the Governor or otherwise. The President can act even without a Governor’s report, based on other information. The satisfaction of the President is not immune from judicial review. The Supreme Court, in the landmark S.R. Bommai v. Union of India case (1994), laid down that the proclamation under Article 356 is subject to judicial review. The court can examine whether the proclamation was based on any material at all, whether the material was relevant, and whether it was made in a mala fide manner. Incorrect Solution: C Statement-I is correct. It accurately quotes the constitutional ground for the imposition of President’s Rule as laid down in Article 356(1). The key phrase is the breakdown of constitutional machinery, i.e., the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. Statement-II is incorrect. President’s satisfaction can be based on a report from the Governor or otherwise. The President can act even without a Governor’s report, based on other information. The satisfaction of the President is not immune from judicial review. The Supreme Court, in the landmark S.R. Bommai v. Union of India case (1994), laid down that the proclamation under Article 356 is subject to judicial review. The court can examine whether the proclamation was based on any material at all, whether the material was relevant, and whether it was made in a mala fide manner.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The President of India can proclaim President’s Rule in a state under Article 356 if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.

Statement-II: The satisfaction of the President is based solely on the report of the Governor of the state and is not open to judicial review.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

• Statement-I is correct. It accurately quotes the constitutional ground for the imposition of President’s Rule as laid down in Article 356(1). The key phrase is the breakdown of constitutional machinery, i.e., the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.

Statement-II is incorrect. President’s satisfaction can be based on a report from the Governor or otherwise. The President can act even without a Governor’s report, based on other information. The satisfaction of the President is not immune from judicial review. The Supreme Court, in the landmark S.R. Bommai v. Union of India case (1994), laid down that the proclamation under Article 356 is subject to judicial review. The court can examine whether the proclamation was based on any material at all, whether the material was relevant, and whether it was made in a mala fide manner.

Solution: C

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements regarding Government of India Act, 1858: Statement I: The Government of India Act, 1858, significantly altered the administrative structure of governance in India. Statement II: The Act abolished the East India Company and transferred the powers of government, territories, and revenues to the British Crown. Statement III: The Act introduced the portfolio system for more convenient transaction of business in the Viceroy’s Council. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct Correct Solution: C The Act of 1858, enacted in the wake of the Revolt of 1857, was a major turning point that fundamentally changed the system of governance in India. Statement II is correct and is the primary explanation for the change mentioned in Statement I. The most significant alteration brought by the Act was the abolition of the rule of the East India Company. It ended the system of ‘double government’ (by the Board of Control and Court of Directors) and directly transferred all powers to the British Crown, exercised through a Secretary of State for India. This transfer of power is the core reason why the administrative structure was significantly altered. Statement III is incorrect. The portfolio system, which involves allocating specific departments to individual members of the council, was recognized and introduced by the Indian Councils Act of 1861, not the Act of 1858. It was started informally by Lord Canning in 1859 but received statutory recognition only in 1861. Incorrect Solution: C The Act of 1858, enacted in the wake of the Revolt of 1857, was a major turning point that fundamentally changed the system of governance in India. Statement II is correct and is the primary explanation for the change mentioned in Statement I. The most significant alteration brought by the Act was the abolition of the rule of the East India Company. It ended the system of ‘double government’ (by the Board of Control and Court of Directors) and directly transferred all powers to the British Crown, exercised through a Secretary of State for India. This transfer of power is the core reason why the administrative structure was significantly altered. Statement III is incorrect. The portfolio system, which involves allocating specific departments to individual members of the council, was recognized and introduced by the Indian Councils Act of 1861, not the Act of 1858. It was started informally by Lord Canning in 1859 but received statutory recognition only in 1861.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Government of India Act, 1858:

Statement I: The Government of India Act, 1858, significantly altered the administrative structure of governance in India.

Statement II: The Act abolished the East India Company and transferred the powers of government, territories, and revenues to the British Crown.

Statement III: The Act introduced the portfolio system for more convenient transaction of business in the Viceroy’s Council.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

• (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Solution: C

• The Act of 1858, enacted in the wake of the Revolt of 1857, was a major turning point that fundamentally changed the system of governance in India. Statement II is correct and is the primary explanation for the change mentioned in Statement I. The most significant alteration brought by the Act was the abolition of the rule of the East India Company. It ended the system of ‘double government’ (by the Board of Control and Court of Directors) and directly transferred all powers to the British Crown, exercised through a Secretary of State for India. This transfer of power is the core reason why the administrative structure was significantly altered.

Statement III is incorrect. The portfolio system, which involves allocating specific departments to individual members of the council, was recognized and introduced by the Indian Councils Act of 1861, not the Act of 1858. It was started informally by Lord Canning in 1859 but received statutory recognition only in 1861.

Solution: C

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements: A retired judge of the Supreme Court can be appointed as the Chairperson of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes. The conditions of service of the members of the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes are determined by the Parliament by law. A person who has served two terms as a member of the National Commission for Backward Classes is eligible for appointment as its Chairperson. How many of the statements given above are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. There is no constitutional or statutory bar on a retired judge of the Supreme Court being appointed as the Chairperson of the NCSC. The appointment is made by the President, and the primary consideration is the individual’s standing and commitment to the cause of the Scheduled Castes. A retired judge is often seen as a person of eminence and integrity, making them a suitable candidate for such a role. Statement 2 is incorrect. According to Article 338A(4) of the Constitution, the conditions of service and tenure of office of the Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson, and other Members of the NCST shall be such as the President may by rule determine. They are not determined by the Parliament by law. This power is vested directly in the President. The same provision exists for the NCSC and NCBC. Statement 3 is incorrect. The rules governing the commissions state that the Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson, and other members shall not be eligible for appointment for more than two terms. If a person has already served two terms as a member, they would be ineligible for any further appointment within the commission, including as its Chairperson. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. There is no constitutional or statutory bar on a retired judge of the Supreme Court being appointed as the Chairperson of the NCSC. The appointment is made by the President, and the primary consideration is the individual’s standing and commitment to the cause of the Scheduled Castes. A retired judge is often seen as a person of eminence and integrity, making them a suitable candidate for such a role. Statement 2 is incorrect. According to Article 338A(4) of the Constitution, the conditions of service and tenure of office of the Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson, and other Members of the NCST shall be such as the President may by rule determine. They are not determined by the Parliament by law. This power is vested directly in the President. The same provision exists for the NCSC and NCBC. Statement 3 is incorrect. The rules governing the commissions state that the Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson, and other members shall not be eligible for appointment for more than two terms. If a person has already served two terms as a member, they would be ineligible for any further appointment within the commission, including as its Chairperson.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements:

• A retired judge of the Supreme Court can be appointed as the Chairperson of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes.

• The conditions of service of the members of the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes are determined by the Parliament by law.

• A person who has served two terms as a member of the National Commission for Backward Classes is eligible for appointment as its Chairperson.

How many of the statements given above are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. There is no constitutional or statutory bar on a retired judge of the Supreme Court being appointed as the Chairperson of the NCSC. The appointment is made by the President, and the primary consideration is the individual’s standing and commitment to the cause of the Scheduled Castes. A retired judge is often seen as a person of eminence and integrity, making them a suitable candidate for such a role.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. According to Article 338A(4) of the Constitution, the conditions of service and tenure of office of the Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson, and other Members of the NCST shall be such as the President may by rule determine. They are not determined by the Parliament by law. This power is vested directly in the President. The same provision exists for the NCSC and NCBC.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The rules governing the commissions state that the Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson, and other members shall not be eligible for appointment for more than two terms. If a person has already served two terms as a member, they would be ineligible for any further appointment within the commission, including as its Chairperson.

Solution: B

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question The scope of audit conducted by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India includes which of the following? All expenditure from the Contingency Fund of India. All transactions relating to the Public Account of India. Accounts of any other authority when requested by the President or Governor. Accounts of municipalities and panchayats. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. The CAG audits all expenditure from the Contingency Fund of India and the Contingency Fund of each state. This is to ensure that the funds drawn from this corpus, which is held at the disposal of the President (or Governor) to meet unforeseen expenditure, are legitimate and are subsequently approved by the Parliament (or state legislature). Statement 2 is correct. The CAG audits all transactions related to the Public Account of India and the Public Account of each state. This account holds money received by or on behalf of the government that does not fall into the Consolidated Fund, such as provident fund deposits, savings bank deposits, etc. The CAG’s audit ensures these funds are properly managed and accounted for. Statement 3 is correct. The CAG can also audit the accounts of any other authority when requested to do so by the President or a Governor. This provision allows for the extension of the CAG’s audit to bodies that may not otherwise fall under its mandatory jurisdiction, enhancing public accountability where deemed necessary. Statement 4 is correct. The CAG can be entrusted with the audit of the accounts of municipalities and panchayats at the request of the Governor of a state. The 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts have provisions for the maintenance of accounts by local bodies and their audit. The CAG can advise on the technical aspects and may even conduct the audit if requested, playing a crucial role in strengthening financial accountability at the grassroots level. The CAG’s role can also be in providing technical guidance and support for such audits. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. The CAG audits all expenditure from the Contingency Fund of India and the Contingency Fund of each state. This is to ensure that the funds drawn from this corpus, which is held at the disposal of the President (or Governor) to meet unforeseen expenditure, are legitimate and are subsequently approved by the Parliament (or state legislature). Statement 2 is correct. The CAG audits all transactions related to the Public Account of India and the Public Account of each state. This account holds money received by or on behalf of the government that does not fall into the Consolidated Fund, such as provident fund deposits, savings bank deposits, etc. The CAG’s audit ensures these funds are properly managed and accounted for. Statement 3 is correct. The CAG can also audit the accounts of any other authority when requested to do so by the President or a Governor. This provision allows for the extension of the CAG’s audit to bodies that may not otherwise fall under its mandatory jurisdiction, enhancing public accountability where deemed necessary. Statement 4 is correct. The CAG can be entrusted with the audit of the accounts of municipalities and panchayats at the request of the Governor of a state. The 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts have provisions for the maintenance of accounts by local bodies and their audit. The CAG can advise on the technical aspects and may even conduct the audit if requested, playing a crucial role in strengthening financial accountability at the grassroots level. The CAG’s role can also be in providing technical guidance and support for such audits.

#### 4. Question

The scope of audit conducted by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India includes which of the following?

• All expenditure from the Contingency Fund of India.

• All transactions relating to the Public Account of India.

• Accounts of any other authority when requested by the President or Governor.

• Accounts of municipalities and panchayats.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (c) 3 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is correct. The CAG audits all expenditure from the Contingency Fund of India and the Contingency Fund of each state. This is to ensure that the funds drawn from this corpus, which is held at the disposal of the President (or Governor) to meet unforeseen expenditure, are legitimate and are subsequently approved by the Parliament (or state legislature).

• Statement 2 is correct. The CAG audits all transactions related to the Public Account of India and the Public Account of each state. This account holds money received by or on behalf of the government that does not fall into the Consolidated Fund, such as provident fund deposits, savings bank deposits, etc. The CAG’s audit ensures these funds are properly managed and accounted for.

• Statement 3 is correct. The CAG can also audit the accounts of any other authority when requested to do so by the President or a Governor. This provision allows for the extension of the CAG’s audit to bodies that may not otherwise fall under its mandatory jurisdiction, enhancing public accountability where deemed necessary.

Statement 4 is correct. The CAG can be entrusted with the audit of the accounts of municipalities and panchayats at the request of the Governor of a state. The 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts have provisions for the maintenance of accounts by local bodies and their audit. The CAG can advise on the technical aspects and may even conduct the audit if requested, playing a crucial role in strengthening financial accountability at the grassroots level. The CAG’s role can also be in providing technical guidance and support for such audits.

Solution: D

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements about the Indian judicial system: The institution of High Court originated in India in 1862. The Parliament can establish a common High Court for two or more states. The judges of a High Court are administered the oath of office by the Chief Justice of India. The salaries and allowances of the judges of a High Court are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The institution of High Courts was established in India for the first time in 1862 when High Courts were set up at Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras under the Indian High Courts Act, 1861. Statement 2 is correct. Originally, the Constitution provided for a High Court for each state. However, the Seventh Amendment Act of 1956 authorized the Parliament to establish a common High Court for two or more states or for two or more states and a union territory. Statement 3 is incorrect. According to Article 219, every person appointed to be a judge of a High Court shall, before he enters upon his office, make and subscribe an oath or affirmation before the Governor of the State, or some person appointed in that behalf by him. Statement 4 is incorrect. The salaries and allowances of the judges of a High Court are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of the State, not the Consolidated Fund of India. However, their pensions are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The institution of High Courts was established in India for the first time in 1862 when High Courts were set up at Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras under the Indian High Courts Act, 1861. Statement 2 is correct. Originally, the Constitution provided for a High Court for each state. However, the Seventh Amendment Act of 1956 authorized the Parliament to establish a common High Court for two or more states or for two or more states and a union territory. Statement 3 is incorrect. According to Article 219, every person appointed to be a judge of a High Court shall, before he enters upon his office, make and subscribe an oath or affirmation before the Governor of the State, or some person appointed in that behalf by him. Statement 4 is incorrect. The salaries and allowances of the judges of a High Court are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of the State, not the Consolidated Fund of India. However, their pensions are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements about the Indian judicial system:

• The institution of High Court originated in India in 1862.

• The Parliament can establish a common High Court for two or more states.

• The judges of a High Court are administered the oath of office by the Chief Justice of India.

• The salaries and allowances of the judges of a High Court are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

Statement 1 is correct. The institution of High Courts was established in India for the first time in 1862 when High Courts were set up at Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras under the Indian High Courts Act, 1861.

Statement 2 is correct. Originally, the Constitution provided for a High Court for each state. However, the Seventh Amendment Act of 1956 authorized the Parliament to establish a common High Court for two or more states or for two or more states and a union territory.

Statement 3 is incorrect. According to Article 219, every person appointed to be a judge of a High Court shall, before he enters upon his office, make and subscribe an oath or affirmation before the Governor of the State, or some person appointed in that behalf by him.

Statement 4 is incorrect. The salaries and allowances of the judges of a High Court are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of the State, not the Consolidated Fund of India. However, their pensions are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.

Solution: B

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