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UPSC STATIC QUIZ – Polity : 30 April 2024

Kartavya Desk Staff

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We will post 5 questions daily on static topics mentioned in the UPSC civil services preliminary examination syllabus. Each week will focus on a specific topic from the syllabus, such as History of India and Indian National Movement, Indian and World Geography, and more.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements regarding Public Account of India. Public Account of India accounts for flows for those transactions where the Union government acts as a banker. It does not include state provident funds and small savings deposits. Expenditures from Public Account of India require the approval of the parliament. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: a) Only Statement 1 is correct. Public Account of India accounts for flows for those transactions where the government is merely acting as a banker. This fund was constituted under Article 266 (2) of the Constitution. Examples of those are provident funds, small savings and so on. These funds do not belong to the government. They have to be paid back at some time to their rightful owners. Because of this nature of the fund, expenditures from it are not required to be approved by the Parliament. Incorrect Solution: a) Only Statement 1 is correct. Public Account of India accounts for flows for those transactions where the government is merely acting as a banker. This fund was constituted under Article 266 (2) of the Constitution. Examples of those are provident funds, small savings and so on. These funds do not belong to the government. They have to be paid back at some time to their rightful owners. Because of this nature of the fund, expenditures from it are not required to be approved by the Parliament.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Public Account of India.

• Public Account of India accounts for flows for those transactions where the Union government acts as a banker.

• It does not include state provident funds and small savings deposits.

• Expenditures from Public Account of India require the approval of the parliament.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: a)

Only Statement 1 is correct.

Public Account of India accounts for flows for those transactions where the government is merely acting as a banker. This fund was constituted under Article 266 (2) of the Constitution.

Examples of those are provident funds, small savings and so on. These funds do not belong to the government. They have to be paid back at some time to their rightful owners. Because of this nature of the fund, expenditures from it are not required to be approved by the Parliament.

Solution: a)

Only Statement 1 is correct.

Public Account of India accounts for flows for those transactions where the government is merely acting as a banker. This fund was constituted under Article 266 (2) of the Constitution.

Examples of those are provident funds, small savings and so on. These funds do not belong to the government. They have to be paid back at some time to their rightful owners. Because of this nature of the fund, expenditures from it are not required to be approved by the Parliament.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Puttaswamy judgement is a landmark judgment of the Supreme Court of India that mainly deals with a) Constitutionality of reservations b) Uniform Civil Code c) Right to privacy d) Right to life Correct Solution: c) Justice K. S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) and Anr. vs Union Of India And Ors is a landmark judgment of the Supreme Court of India, which holds that the right to privacy is protected as a fundamental constitutional right under Articles 14, 19 and 21 of the Constitution of India. Incorrect Solution: c) Justice K. S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) and Anr. vs Union Of India And Ors is a landmark judgment of the Supreme Court of India, which holds that the right to privacy is protected as a fundamental constitutional right under Articles 14, 19 and 21 of the Constitution of India.

#### 2. Question

Puttaswamy judgement is a landmark judgment of the Supreme Court of India that mainly deals with

• a) Constitutionality of reservations

• b) Uniform Civil Code

• c) Right to privacy

• d) Right to life

Solution: c)

Justice K. S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) and Anr. vs Union Of India And Ors is a landmark judgment of the Supreme Court of India, which holds that the right to privacy is protected as a fundamental constitutional right under Articles 14, 19 and 21 of the Constitution of India.

Solution: c)

Justice K. S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) and Anr. vs Union Of India And Ors is a landmark judgment of the Supreme Court of India, which holds that the right to privacy is protected as a fundamental constitutional right under Articles 14, 19 and 21 of the Constitution of India.

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Article 239A of the Constitution deals with a) Power of President to make regulations for Union territories b) High Courts for Union territories c) Power of the Parliament to create a legislature for Union Territories. d) Special provisions with respect to Delhi Correct Solution: c) In 1962, after the signing of a treaty with France, the territories of Pondicherry, Karaikal, Mahe, and Yanam became part of the Indian Union. In the same year, then Home Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri introduced a Constitution Amendment Bill in Parliament, which grouped these territories into the Union Territory of Pondicherry, and also inserted a new Article 239A into the Constitution. The new article gave Parliament power to create a legislature for Union Territories. Incorrect Solution: c) In 1962, after the signing of a treaty with France, the territories of Pondicherry, Karaikal, Mahe, and Yanam became part of the Indian Union. In the same year, then Home Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri introduced a Constitution Amendment Bill in Parliament, which grouped these territories into the Union Territory of Pondicherry, and also inserted a new Article 239A into the Constitution. The new article gave Parliament power to create a legislature for Union Territories.

#### 3. Question

Article 239A of the Constitution deals with

• a) Power of President to make regulations for Union territories

• b) High Courts for Union territories

• c) Power of the Parliament to create a legislature for Union Territories.

• d) Special provisions with respect to Delhi

Solution: c)

In 1962, after the signing of a treaty with France, the territories of Pondicherry, Karaikal, Mahe, and Yanam became part of the Indian Union. In the same year, then Home Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri introduced a Constitution Amendment Bill in Parliament, which grouped these territories into the Union Territory of Pondicherry, and also inserted a new Article 239A into the Constitution. The new article gave Parliament power to create a legislature for Union Territories.

Solution: c)

In 1962, after the signing of a treaty with France, the territories of Pondicherry, Karaikal, Mahe, and Yanam became part of the Indian Union. In the same year, then Home Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri introduced a Constitution Amendment Bill in Parliament, which grouped these territories into the Union Territory of Pondicherry, and also inserted a new Article 239A into the Constitution. The new article gave Parliament power to create a legislature for Union Territories.

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements. During the election period, the Election Commission of India (ECI) can order the government to observe election related guidelines. ECI can send Border Security Force (BSF) and Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) to states ahead of the Assembly elections to maintain law and order during the election campaign. When on election duty, government officers work under the control of the ECI and not the government. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: d) Very few election commissions in the world have such wide-ranging powers as the Election Commission of India. EC takes decisions on every aspect of conduct and control of elections from the announcement of elections to the declaration of results. It implements the Code of Conduct and punishes any candidate or party that violates it. During the election period, the EC can order the government to follow some guidelines, to prevent use and misuse of governmental power to enhance its chances to win elections, or to transfer some government officials. ECI can send Companies of central security forces to states ahead of the Assembly elections to maintain law and order during the election campaign. Incorrect Solution: d) Very few election commissions in the world have such wide-ranging powers as the Election Commission of India. EC takes decisions on every aspect of conduct and control of elections from the announcement of elections to the declaration of results. It implements the Code of Conduct and punishes any candidate or party that violates it. During the election period, the EC can order the government to follow some guidelines, to prevent use and misuse of governmental power to enhance its chances to win elections, or to transfer some government officials. ECI can send Companies of central security forces to states ahead of the Assembly elections to maintain law and order during the election campaign.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements.

• During the election period, the Election Commission of India (ECI) can order the government to observe election related guidelines.

• ECI can send Border Security Force (BSF) and Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) to states ahead of the Assembly elections to maintain law and order during the election campaign.

• When on election duty, government officers work under the control of the ECI and not the government.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: d)

• Very few election commissions in the world have such wide-ranging powers as the Election Commission of India.

• EC takes decisions on every aspect of conduct and control of elections from the announcement of elections to the declaration of results.

• It implements the Code of Conduct and punishes any candidate or party that violates it.

During the election period, the EC can order the government to follow some guidelines, to prevent use and misuse of governmental power to enhance its chances to win elections, or to transfer some government officials.

• ECI can send Companies of central security forces to states ahead of the Assembly elections to maintain law and order during the election campaign.

Solution: d)

• Very few election commissions in the world have such wide-ranging powers as the Election Commission of India.

• EC takes decisions on every aspect of conduct and control of elections from the announcement of elections to the declaration of results.

• It implements the Code of Conduct and punishes any candidate or party that violates it.

During the election period, the EC can order the government to follow some guidelines, to prevent use and misuse of governmental power to enhance its chances to win elections, or to transfer some government officials.

• ECI can send Companies of central security forces to states ahead of the Assembly elections to maintain law and order during the election campaign.

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements. 1. Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha have the same rights and privileges as elected members of Rajya Sabha with the right to vote in the election of the President. The anti-defection law was not present in the original Constitution. The Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha are subjected to disqualification, if they join a political party within six months of being nominated to the House. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: a) Only Statement 2 is correct. In 1985 the Tenth Schedule, popularly known as the anti-defection law, was added to the Constitution. The law specifies the circumstances under which changing of political parties by MPs invite action under the law. The law covers three types of scenarios with respect to an MP switching parties. The first is when a member elected on the ticket of a political party “voluntarily gives up” membership of such a party or votes in the House contrary to the wishes of the party. The second possibility is when an MP who has won his or her seat as an independent candidate after the election joins a political party. In both these instances, the MP lose the seat in the House on changing (or joining) a party. The third scenario relates to nominated MPs. In their case, the law specifies that within six months of being nominated to the House, they can choose to join a political party. Incorrect Solution: a) Only Statement 2 is correct. In 1985 the Tenth Schedule, popularly known as the anti-defection law, was added to the Constitution. The law specifies the circumstances under which changing of political parties by MPs invite action under the law. The law covers three types of scenarios with respect to an MP switching parties. The first is when a member elected on the ticket of a political party “voluntarily gives up” membership of such a party or votes in the House contrary to the wishes of the party. The second possibility is when an MP who has won his or her seat as an independent candidate after the election joins a political party. In both these instances, the MP lose the seat in the House on changing (or joining) a party. The third scenario relates to nominated MPs. In their case, the law specifies that within six months of being nominated to the House, they can choose to join a political party.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements.

• 1. Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha have the same rights and privileges as elected members of Rajya Sabha with the right to vote in the election of the President.

• The anti-defection law was not present in the original Constitution.

• The Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha are subjected to disqualification, if they join a political party within six months of being nominated to the House.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: a)

Only Statement 2 is correct.

In 1985 the Tenth Schedule, popularly known as the anti-defection law, was added to the Constitution.

The law specifies the circumstances under which changing of political parties by MPs invite action under the law. The law covers three types of scenarios with respect to an MP switching parties.

The first is when a member elected on the ticket of a political party “voluntarily gives up” membership of such a party or votes in the House contrary to the wishes of the party.

The second possibility is when an MP who has won his or her seat as an independent candidate after the election joins a political party. In both these instances, the MP lose the seat in the House on changing (or joining) a party.

The third scenario relates to nominated MPs. In their case, the law specifies that within six months of being nominated to the House, they can choose to join a political party.

Solution: a)

Only Statement 2 is correct.

In 1985 the Tenth Schedule, popularly known as the anti-defection law, was added to the Constitution.

The law specifies the circumstances under which changing of political parties by MPs invite action under the law. The law covers three types of scenarios with respect to an MP switching parties.

The first is when a member elected on the ticket of a political party “voluntarily gives up” membership of such a party or votes in the House contrary to the wishes of the party.

The second possibility is when an MP who has won his or her seat as an independent candidate after the election joins a political party. In both these instances, the MP lose the seat in the House on changing (or joining) a party.

The third scenario relates to nominated MPs. In their case, the law specifies that within six months of being nominated to the House, they can choose to join a political party.

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