UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 24 January 2026

UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 24 January 2026 We will post 5 questions daily on static topics mentioned in the UPSC civil services preliminary examination syllabus. Each week will focus on a specific topic from the syllabus, such as History of India and Indian National Movement, Indian and World Geography, and more. We are excited to bring you our daily UPSC Static Quiz, designed to help you prepare for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination. Each day, we will post 5 questions on static topics mentioned in the UPSC syllabus. This week, we are focusing on Indian and World Geography.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Which one of the following statements correctly distinguishes the Public Account of India from the Consolidated Fund of India? (a) The Public Account includes the proceeds of all loans raised by the Government, while the Consolidated Fund includes only tax revenues. (b) Disbursements from the Public Account require a legislative vote (Appropriation Act), whereas the Consolidated Fund is operated by executive action. (c) The Government acts merely as a banker for funds in the Public Account, and hence, withdrawals from it do not require Parliamentary authorization. (d) The National Small Savings Fund (NSSF) is a part of the Consolidated Fund of India, while the Provident Funds are kept in the Public Account. Correct Solution: C Option (a) is Incorrect: The Consolidated Fund of India (Article 266(1)) is the reservoir of all revenues (tax and non-tax), all loans raised, and all loan repayments received. The Public Account contains “other public moneys”. Option (b) is Incorrect: It is the reverse. Article 266(3) explicitly mandates that no money can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund without an Appropriation Act passed by Parliament. The Public Account (Article 266(2)) is operated by executive action. Option (c) is Correct: The Public Account holds money where the government is liable to repay the depositors (Provident Funds, Small Savings, Judicial Deposits, Remittances). The government is a trustee or banker. Since this money does not belong to the government, it does not require a Parliamentary vote to repay it. Option (d) is Incorrect: Both the NSSF and Provident Funds are liabilities of the government held in the Public Account, not the Consolidated Fund. Incorrect Solution: C Option (a) is Incorrect: The Consolidated Fund of India (Article 266(1)) is the reservoir of all revenues (tax and non-tax), all loans raised, and all loan repayments received. The Public Account contains “other public moneys”. Option (b) is Incorrect: It is the reverse. Article 266(3) explicitly mandates that no money can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund without an Appropriation Act passed by Parliament. The Public Account (Article 266(2)) is operated by executive action. Option (c) is Correct: The Public Account holds money where the government is liable to repay the depositors (Provident Funds, Small Savings, Judicial Deposits, Remittances). The government is a trustee or banker. Since this money does not belong to the government, it does not require a Parliamentary vote to repay it. Option (d) is Incorrect: Both the NSSF and Provident Funds are liabilities of the government held in the Public Account, not the Consolidated Fund.

#### 1. Question

Which one of the following statements correctly distinguishes the Public Account of India from the Consolidated Fund of India?

• (a) The Public Account includes the proceeds of all loans raised by the Government, while the Consolidated Fund includes only tax revenues.

• (b) Disbursements from the Public Account require a legislative vote (Appropriation Act), whereas the Consolidated Fund is operated by executive action.

• (c) The Government acts merely as a banker for funds in the Public Account, and hence, withdrawals from it do not require Parliamentary authorization.

• (d) The National Small Savings Fund (NSSF) is a part of the Consolidated Fund of India, while the Provident Funds are kept in the Public Account.

Solution: C

• Option (a) is Incorrect: The Consolidated Fund of India (Article 266(1)) is the reservoir of all revenues (tax and non-tax), all loans raised, and all loan repayments received. The Public Account contains “other public moneys”.

• Option (b) is Incorrect: It is the reverse. Article 266(3) explicitly mandates that no money can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund without an Appropriation Act passed by Parliament. The Public Account (Article 266(2)) is operated by executive action.

• Option (c) is Correct: The Public Account holds money where the government is liable to repay the depositors (Provident Funds, Small Savings, Judicial Deposits, Remittances). The government is a trustee or banker. Since this money does not belong to the government, it does not require a Parliamentary vote to repay it.

• Option (d) is Incorrect: Both the NSSF and Provident Funds are liabilities of the government held in the Public Account, not the Consolidated Fund.

Solution: C

• Option (d) is Incorrect: Both the NSSF and Provident Funds are liabilities of the government held in the Public Account, not the Consolidated Fund.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements: Statement I: A democratic government is considered more legitimate than a non-democratic government. Statement II: In a democracy, citizens have the right to participate in decision-making, either directly or through elected representatives, and can hold the government accountable. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement I makes a widely accepted assertion in political theory. Legitimacy refers to the right and acceptance of an authority, usually a governing law or a regime. A democratic government, which is based on the consent of the governed, is generally considered to have a higher degree of legitimacy than a non-democratic government, which often rules through coercion or inheritance. So, Statement I is correct. Statement II explains the mechanism through which this legitimacy is derived. It correctly points out that democracy is people’s own government. The key features of a democracy include popular participation (the right to vote and choose the government) and accountability (the ability to remove the government through elections if it fails to perform). This process of deriving power from the people and being answerable to them is the source of its legitimacy. So, Statement II is also correct. Statement II provides the fundamental reason why a democratic government is considered legitimate. Therefore, Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I makes a widely accepted assertion in political theory. Legitimacy refers to the right and acceptance of an authority, usually a governing law or a regime. A democratic government, which is based on the consent of the governed, is generally considered to have a higher degree of legitimacy than a non-democratic government, which often rules through coercion or inheritance. So, Statement I is correct. Statement II explains the mechanism through which this legitimacy is derived. It correctly points out that democracy is people’s own government. The key features of a democracy include popular participation (the right to vote and choose the government) and accountability (the ability to remove the government through elections if it fails to perform). This process of deriving power from the people and being answerable to them is the source of its legitimacy. So, Statement II is also correct. Statement II provides the fundamental reason why a democratic government is considered legitimate. Therefore, Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: A democratic government is considered more legitimate than a non-democratic government.

Statement II: In a democracy, citizens have the right to participate in decision-making, either directly or through elected representatives, and can hold the government accountable.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement I makes a widely accepted assertion in political theory. Legitimacy refers to the right and acceptance of an authority, usually a governing law or a regime. A democratic government, which is based on the consent of the governed, is generally considered to have a higher degree of legitimacy than a non-democratic government, which often rules through coercion or inheritance. So, Statement I is correct.

• Statement II explains the mechanism through which this legitimacy is derived. It correctly points out that democracy is people’s own government. The key features of a democracy include popular participation (the right to vote and choose the government) and accountability (the ability to remove the government through elections if it fails to perform). This process of deriving power from the people and being answerable to them is the source of its legitimacy. So, Statement II is also correct.

• Statement II provides the fundamental reason why a democratic government is considered legitimate. Therefore, Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.

Solution: A

• Statement II provides the fundamental reason why a democratic government is considered legitimate. Therefore, Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements related to the acquisition and termination of Indian citizenship: The Constitution of India, in Article 5, exhaustively lays down five distinct modes for the acquisition of citizenship. Article 9 of the Constitution provides that the Central Government may, by order, deprive a citizen of their citizenship on grounds of disloyalty or fraud. The Citizenship Act, 1955, provides for termination of citizenship if a citizen voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country, an event that is held in abeyance if declared during a war in which India is engaged. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect.The Constitution of India, in Articles 5-8, only deals with the acquisition of citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution (Jan 26, 1950). It does not lay down the five modes of acquisition. The five modes (Birth, Descent, Registration, Naturalisation, Incorporation of Territory) are laid down in the Citizenship Act, 1955, a law made by Parliament under Article 11. Statement 2 is incorrect.Article 9 of the Constitution is a simple, self-executing provision that bars dual citizenship. It states that no person shall be a citizen of India if he has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of any foreign state. It does not empower the government to deprive a citizen of citizenship. The power of “Deprivation” (on grounds of fraud, disloyalty, etc.) is a statutory power granted to the Central Government under Section 10 of the Citizenship Act, 1955. Statement 3 is incorrect.This statement correctly describes the provision for “Termination” of citizenship under Section 9 of the Citizenship Act, 1955. However, it misattributes the wartime exception. The exception (allowing the government to hold the registration in abeyance during a war) applies to the Renunciation of citizenship (Section 8 of the Act), not to automatic Termination under Section 9. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect.The Constitution of India, in Articles 5-8, only deals with the acquisition of citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution (Jan 26, 1950). It does not lay down the five modes of acquisition. The five modes (Birth, Descent, Registration, Naturalisation, Incorporation of Territory) are laid down in the Citizenship Act, 1955, a law made by Parliament under Article 11. Statement 2 is incorrect.Article 9 of the Constitution is a simple, self-executing provision that bars dual citizenship. It states that no person shall be a citizen of India if he has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of any foreign state. It does not empower the government to deprive a citizen of citizenship. The power of “Deprivation” (on grounds of fraud, disloyalty, etc.) is a statutory power granted to the Central Government under Section 10 of the Citizenship Act, 1955. Statement 3 is incorrect.This statement correctly describes the provision for “Termination” of citizenship under Section 9 of the Citizenship Act, 1955. However, it misattributes the wartime exception. The exception (allowing the government to hold the registration in abeyance during a war) applies to the Renunciation of citizenship (Section 8 of the Act), not to automatic Termination under Section 9.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements related to the acquisition and termination of Indian citizenship:

• The Constitution of India, in Article 5, exhaustively lays down five distinct modes for the acquisition of citizenship.

• Article 9 of the Constitution provides that the Central Government may, by order, deprive a citizen of their citizenship on grounds of disloyalty or fraud.

• The Citizenship Act, 1955, provides for termination of citizenship if a citizen voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country, an event that is held in abeyance if declared during a war in which India is engaged.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect.The Constitution of India, in Articles 5-8, only deals with the acquisition of citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution (Jan 26, 1950). It does not lay down the five modes of acquisition. The five modes (Birth, Descent, Registration, Naturalisation, Incorporation of Territory) are laid down in the Citizenship Act, 1955, a law made by Parliament under Article 11.

• Statement 2 is incorrect.Article 9 of the Constitution is a simple, self-executing provision that bars dual citizenship. It states that no person shall be a citizen of India if he has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of any foreign state. It does not empower the government to deprive a citizen of citizenship. The power of “Deprivation” (on grounds of fraud, disloyalty, etc.) is a statutory power granted to the Central Government under Section 10 of the Citizenship Act, 1955.

• Statement 3 is incorrect.This statement correctly describes the provision for “Termination” of citizenship under Section 9 of the Citizenship Act, 1955. However, it misattributes the wartime exception. The exception (allowing the government to hold the registration in abeyance during a war) applies to the Renunciation of citizenship (Section 8 of the Act), not to automatic Termination under Section 9.

Solution: D

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements with reference to Article 1 of the Constitution: Ambedkar preferred the phrase “Union of States” over “Federation of States” to indicate that the Indian federation is not the result of an agreement among the states. The territory of India comprises only the territories of the States and the Union territories specified in the First Schedule. India has the power to acquire foreign territories, and such acquired territories become part of the ‘Union of States’ immediately upon acquisition. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is Correct: Ambedkar clarified in the Assembly that the phrase “Union of States” was chosen to emphasize two things: (a) The Federation was not the result of an agreement by the states (unlike the US), and (b) States have no right to secede. Statement 2 is Incorrect: Article 1(3) defines the “Territory of India” as comprising three categories: (a) Territories of States, (b) Union Territories, AND (c) Such other territories as may be acquired. The definition is broader than just States and UTs. Statement 3 is Incorrect: There is a distinction between “Union of India” (States only) and “Territory of India” (States + UTs + Acquired). Acquired territories become part of the Territory of India. They do not become part of the Union of States until Parliament passes a law admitting them as a State under Article 2. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is Correct: Ambedkar clarified in the Assembly that the phrase “Union of States” was chosen to emphasize two things: (a) The Federation was not the result of an agreement by the states (unlike the US), and (b) States have no right to secede. Statement 2 is Incorrect: Article 1(3) defines the “Territory of India” as comprising three categories: (a) Territories of States, (b) Union Territories, AND (c) Such other territories as may be acquired. The definition is broader than just States and UTs. Statement 3 is Incorrect: There is a distinction between “Union of India” (States only) and “Territory of India” (States + UTs + Acquired). Acquired territories become part of the Territory of India. They do not become part of the Union of States until Parliament passes a law admitting them as a State under Article 2.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements with reference to Article 1 of the Constitution:

• Ambedkar preferred the phrase “Union of States” over “Federation of States” to indicate that the Indian federation is not the result of an agreement among the states.

• The territory of India comprises only the territories of the States and the Union territories specified in the First Schedule.

• India has the power to acquire foreign territories, and such acquired territories become part of the ‘Union of States’ immediately upon acquisition.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is Correct: Ambedkar clarified in the Assembly that the phrase “Union of States” was chosen to emphasize two things: (a) The Federation was not the result of an agreement by the states (unlike the US), and (b) States have no right to secede.

• Statement 2 is Incorrect: Article 1(3) defines the “Territory of India” as comprising three categories: (a) Territories of States, (b) Union Territories, AND (c) Such other territories as may be acquired. The definition is broader than just States and UTs.

• Statement 3 is Incorrect: There is a distinction between “Union of India” (States only) and “Territory of India” (States + UTs + Acquired). Acquired territories become part of the Territory of India. They do not become part of the Union of States until Parliament passes a law admitting them as a State under Article 2.

Solution: A

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question With reference to the ‘Anti-Defection Law’ (Tenth Schedule), consider the following statements: Statement I: A nominated member of the Rajya Sabha is disqualified if he joins any political party after the expiry of six months from the date of taking his seat. Statement II: The Tenth Schedule protects a member from disqualification if he votes contrary to the direction of his political party with the prior permission of the party. Statement III: The decision of the Speaker regarding disqualification is final and cannot be questioned in any court of law. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Only Statement I and Statement II are correct. (b) Only Statement II and Statement III are correct. (c) All three statements are correct. (d) Only Statement I is correct. Correct Solution: A Statement I is Correct:A nominated member has a 6-month window to join a party. If they join after 6 months, they are disqualified. Statement II is Correct:Paragraph 2(1)(b) of the Tenth Schedule states disqualification applies if a member votes contrary to party directions (Whip) without obtaining prior permission of the party. If prior permission is obtained (or condoned within 15 days), there is no disqualification. Statement III is Incorrect:Paragraph 6 originally made the Speaker’s decision final. However, the Supreme Court in Kihoto Hollohan (1992) declared this paragraph unconstitutional regarding the exclusion of judicial review. The Speaker functions as a Tribunal, and their decision is subject to judicial review. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is Correct:A nominated member has a 6-month window to join a party. If they join after 6 months, they are disqualified. Statement II is Correct:Paragraph 2(1)(b) of the Tenth Schedule states disqualification applies if a member votes contrary to party directions (Whip) without obtaining prior permission of the party. If prior permission is obtained (or condoned within 15 days), there is no disqualification. Statement III is Incorrect:Paragraph 6 originally made the Speaker’s decision final. However, the Supreme Court in Kihoto Hollohan (1992) declared this paragraph unconstitutional regarding the exclusion of judicial review. The Speaker functions as a Tribunal, and their decision is subject to judicial review.

#### 5. Question

With reference to the ‘Anti-Defection Law’ (Tenth Schedule), consider the following statements:

Statement I: A nominated member of the Rajya Sabha is disqualified if he joins any political party after the expiry of six months from the date of taking his seat.

Statement II: The Tenth Schedule protects a member from disqualification if he votes contrary to the direction of his political party with the prior permission of the party.

Statement III: The decision of the Speaker regarding disqualification is final and cannot be questioned in any court of law.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Only Statement I and Statement II are correct.

• (b) Only Statement II and Statement III are correct.

• (c) All three statements are correct.

• (d) Only Statement I is correct.

Solution: A

• Statement I is Correct:A nominated member has a 6-month window to join a party. If they join after 6 months, they are disqualified.

• Statement II is Correct:Paragraph 2(1)(b) of the Tenth Schedule states disqualification applies if a member votes contrary to party directions (Whip) without obtaining prior permission of the party. If prior permission is obtained (or condoned within 15 days), there is no disqualification.

• Statement III is Incorrect:Paragraph 6 originally made the Speaker’s decision final. However, the Supreme Court in Kihoto Hollohan (1992) declared this paragraph unconstitutional regarding the exclusion of judicial review. The Speaker functions as a Tribunal, and their decision is subject to judicial review.

Solution: A

• Statement I is Correct:A nominated member has a 6-month window to join a party. If they join after 6 months, they are disqualified.

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