UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 20 October 2025

UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 20 October 2025 We will post 5 questions daily on static topics mentioned in the UPSC civil services preliminary examination syllabus. Each week will focus on a specific topic from the syllabus, such as History of India and Indian National Movement, Indian and World Geography, and more. We are excited to bring you our daily UPSC Static Quiz, designed to help you prepare for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination. Each day, we will post 5 questions on static topics mentioned in the UPSC syllabus. This week, we are focusing on Indian and World Geography.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements regarding Centre-State administrative relations in India: The executive power of every state shall be so exercised as to ensure compliance with the laws made by Parliament. The Union Government can give directions to a state government for the construction and maintenance of means of communication declared to be of national or military importance. The Governor of a state is appointed by the President and acts as an agent of the Central government in the state. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Article 256 of the Constitution stipulates that the executive power of every State shall be so exercised as to ensure compliance with the laws made by Parliament and any existing laws which apply in that State. The Union’s executive power extends to giving such directions to a State as may appear to the Government of India to be necessary for that purpose. Statement 2 is correct. Article 257(2) empowers the Union to give directions to a State as to the construction and maintenance of means of communication declared in the direction to be of national or military importance. Statement 3 is correct. The Governor of a state is appointed by the President (Article 155) and holds office during the pleasure of the President (Article 156). While the Governor is the constitutional head of the state, the office also serves as a vital link between the Union and the State, and in certain contexts, the Governor acts on the directions of the Union or as its representative, particularly in reporting on the constitutional machinery of the state. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Article 256 of the Constitution stipulates that the executive power of every State shall be so exercised as to ensure compliance with the laws made by Parliament and any existing laws which apply in that State. The Union’s executive power extends to giving such directions to a State as may appear to the Government of India to be necessary for that purpose. Statement 2 is correct. Article 257(2) empowers the Union to give directions to a State as to the construction and maintenance of means of communication declared in the direction to be of national or military importance. Statement 3 is correct. The Governor of a state is appointed by the President (Article 155) and holds office during the pleasure of the President (Article 156). While the Governor is the constitutional head of the state, the office also serves as a vital link between the Union and the State, and in certain contexts, the Governor acts on the directions of the Union or as its representative, particularly in reporting on the constitutional machinery of the state.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Centre-State administrative relations in India:

• The executive power of every state shall be so exercised as to ensure compliance with the laws made by Parliament.

• The Union Government can give directions to a state government for the construction and maintenance of means of communication declared to be of national or military importance.

• The Governor of a state is appointed by the President and acts as an agent of the Central government in the state.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. Article 256 of the Constitution stipulates that the executive power of every State shall be so exercised as to ensure compliance with the laws made by Parliament and any existing laws which apply in that State. The Union’s executive power extends to giving such directions to a State as may appear to the Government of India to be necessary for that purpose.

• Statement 2 is correct. Article 257(2) empowers the Union to give directions to a State as to the construction and maintenance of means of communication declared in the direction to be of national or military importance.

• Statement 3 is correct. The Governor of a state is appointed by the President (Article 155) and holds office during the pleasure of the President (Article 156). While the Governor is the constitutional head of the state, the office also serves as a vital link between the Union and the State, and in certain contexts, the Governor acts on the directions of the Union or as its representative, particularly in reporting on the constitutional machinery of the state.

Solution: C

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question The Sarkaria Commission was appointed to review the working of Centre-State relations in India. Which of the following was a key recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission? (a) Abolition of the office of the Governor. (b) Granting states the right to secede from the Union. (c) Establishment of a permanent Inter-State Council under Article 263. (d) Transferring all subjects in the Concurrent List to the State List. Correct Solution: C The Sarkaria Commission, appointed in 1983, submitted its report in 1988 on Centre-State relations. Option (a) is incorrect. The Commission made recommendations regarding the appointment and role of the Governor to ensure impartiality but did not recommend abolishing the office. Option (b) is incorrect. The Indian Union is described as an “indestructible union of destructible states,” and no state has the right to secede. The Sarkaria Commission worked within this framework. Option (c) is correct. A significant recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission was the establishment of a permanent Inter-State Council under Article 263 of the Constitution, to be called the Inter-Governmental Council, for better coordination and resolution of disputes between the Centre and States, and among States. Option (d) is incorrect. The Commission recommended that the Union should occupy only that much field of a concurrent subject on which uniformity of policy is essential and leave the rest for state action, not a wholesale transfer. Incorrect Solution: C The Sarkaria Commission, appointed in 1983, submitted its report in 1988 on Centre-State relations. Option (a) is incorrect. The Commission made recommendations regarding the appointment and role of the Governor to ensure impartiality but did not recommend abolishing the office. Option (b) is incorrect. The Indian Union is described as an “indestructible union of destructible states,” and no state has the right to secede. The Sarkaria Commission worked within this framework. Option (c) is correct. A significant recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission was the establishment of a permanent Inter-State Council under Article 263 of the Constitution, to be called the Inter-Governmental Council, for better coordination and resolution of disputes between the Centre and States, and among States. Option (d) is incorrect. The Commission recommended that the Union should occupy only that much field of a concurrent subject on which uniformity of policy is essential and leave the rest for state action, not a wholesale transfer.

#### 2. Question

The Sarkaria Commission was appointed to review the working of Centre-State relations in India. Which of the following was a key recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission?

• (a) Abolition of the office of the Governor.

• (b) Granting states the right to secede from the Union.

• (c) Establishment of a permanent Inter-State Council under Article 263.

• (d) Transferring all subjects in the Concurrent List to the State List.

Solution: C

• The Sarkaria Commission, appointed in 1983, submitted its report in 1988 on Centre-State relations.

• Option (a) is incorrect. The Commission made recommendations regarding the appointment and role of the Governor to ensure impartiality but did not recommend abolishing the office.

• Option (b) is incorrect. The Indian Union is described as an “indestructible union of destructible states,” and no state has the right to secede. The Sarkaria Commission worked within this framework.

• Option (c) is correct. A significant recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission was the establishment of a permanent Inter-State Council under Article 263 of the Constitution, to be called the Inter-Governmental Council, for better coordination and resolution of disputes between the Centre and States, and among States.

• Option (d) is incorrect. The Commission recommended that the Union should occupy only that much field of a concurrent subject on which uniformity of policy is essential and leave the rest for state action, not a wholesale transfer.

Solution: C

• The Sarkaria Commission, appointed in 1983, submitted its report in 1988 on Centre-State relations.

• Option (a) is incorrect. The Commission made recommendations regarding the appointment and role of the Governor to ensure impartiality but did not recommend abolishing the office.

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following provisions: Emergency provisions under Part XVIII of the Constitution. All India Services (IAS, IPS, IFS). Office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG). Creation of Legislative Councils in States. How many of the above contribute to the unitary bias of the Indian constitutional system? (a) Only one (b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: C Emergency provisions: During an emergency (National, State, or Financial), the Central government becomes all-powerful, and the states go into the total control of the Centre. The federal structure can be converted into a unitary one without a formal amendment of the Constitution. This is a major unitary feature. All India Services: Officers of All India Services like IAS, IPS, and IFS are recruited and trained by the Centre but serve in both Central and state administrations. They are controlled jointly by the Central and state governments, but ultimate control lies with the Central government. This gives the Centre significant influence over state administration and is considered a unitary feature. Office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG): The CAG audits the accounts of both the Central and state governments. The CAG is appointed by the President, and his reports are submitted to the President (for Union accounts) and Governor (for state accounts). This integrated audit machinery is a unitary feature as it provides central oversight over state finances. Creation of Legislative Councils in States: Article 169 empowers Parliament to create or abolish Legislative Councils in states if the legislative assembly of the concerned state passes a resolution to that effect. While Parliament’s role is significant, the initiative comes from the state. The existence of a second chamber in states is more related to the structure of state legislatures rather than a direct feature defining the unitary or federal nature of the overall Indian system in the same way as the other three options. It doesn’t inherently strengthen the Centre’s power over states in a manner comparable to emergency provisions or All India Services. Incorrect Solution: C Emergency provisions: During an emergency (National, State, or Financial), the Central government becomes all-powerful, and the states go into the total control of the Centre. The federal structure can be converted into a unitary one without a formal amendment of the Constitution. This is a major unitary feature. All India Services: Officers of All India Services like IAS, IPS, and IFS are recruited and trained by the Centre but serve in both Central and state administrations. They are controlled jointly by the Central and state governments, but ultimate control lies with the Central government. This gives the Centre significant influence over state administration and is considered a unitary feature. Office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG): The CAG audits the accounts of both the Central and state governments. The CAG is appointed by the President, and his reports are submitted to the President (for Union accounts) and Governor (for state accounts). This integrated audit machinery is a unitary feature as it provides central oversight over state finances. Creation of Legislative Councils in States: Article 169 empowers Parliament to create or abolish Legislative Councils in states if the legislative assembly of the concerned state passes a resolution to that effect. While Parliament’s role is significant, the initiative comes from the state. The existence of a second chamber in states is more related to the structure of state legislatures rather than a direct feature defining the unitary or federal nature of the overall Indian system in the same way as the other three options. It doesn’t inherently strengthen the Centre’s power over states in a manner comparable to emergency provisions or All India Services.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following provisions:

• Emergency provisions under Part XVIII of the Constitution.

• All India Services (IAS, IPS, IFS).

• Office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG).

• Creation of Legislative Councils in States.

How many of the above contribute to the unitary bias of the Indian constitutional system?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: C

• Emergency provisions: During an emergency (National, State, or Financial), the Central government becomes all-powerful, and the states go into the total control of the Centre. The federal structure can be converted into a unitary one without a formal amendment of the Constitution. This is a major unitary feature.

• All India Services: Officers of All India Services like IAS, IPS, and IFS are recruited and trained by the Centre but serve in both Central and state administrations. They are controlled jointly by the Central and state governments, but ultimate control lies with the Central government. This gives the Centre significant influence over state administration and is considered a unitary feature.

• Office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG): The CAG audits the accounts of both the Central and state governments. The CAG is appointed by the President, and his reports are submitted to the President (for Union accounts) and Governor (for state accounts). This integrated audit machinery is a unitary feature as it provides central oversight over state finances.

• Creation of Legislative Councils in States: Article 169 empowers Parliament to create or abolish Legislative Councils in states if the legislative assembly of the concerned state passes a resolution to that effect. While Parliament’s role is significant, the initiative comes from the state. The existence of a second chamber in states is more related to the structure of state legislatures rather than a direct feature defining the unitary or federal nature of the overall Indian system in the same way as the other three options. It doesn’t inherently strengthen the Centre’s power over states in a manner comparable to emergency provisions or All India Services.

Solution: C

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements. Statement-I: India is described as an ‘indestructible Union of destructible states’. Statement-II: The Indian federation is the result of an agreement among the constituent states, and these states have the right to secede from the Union. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Statement-I is correct. The Indian constitutional framework allows the Union Parliament to alter the boundaries or names of states, or even create new states out of existing ones, without the consent of the states concerned (though their views are sought). This means states in India are destructible entities within an indestructible Union. The Union government can change the political map of India. Statement-II is incorrect. The Indian federation is not the result of an agreement among the states, unlike the American federation. The states in India were constituted for administrative convenience and did not come together to form the Union. Consequently, Indian states do not have the right to secede from the Union. The phrase “Union of States” in Article 1 was preferred over “Federation of States” to emphasize this indivisibility of the Union. Thus, Statement-II does not correctly describe the nature of the Indian federation and cannot be an explanation for Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: C Statement-I is correct. The Indian constitutional framework allows the Union Parliament to alter the boundaries or names of states, or even create new states out of existing ones, without the consent of the states concerned (though their views are sought). This means states in India are destructible entities within an indestructible Union. The Union government can change the political map of India. Statement-II is incorrect. The Indian federation is not the result of an agreement among the states, unlike the American federation. The states in India were constituted for administrative convenience and did not come together to form the Union. Consequently, Indian states do not have the right to secede from the Union. The phrase “Union of States” in Article 1 was preferred over “Federation of States” to emphasize this indivisibility of the Union. Thus, Statement-II does not correctly describe the nature of the Indian federation and cannot be an explanation for Statement-I.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements.

Statement-I: India is described as an ‘indestructible Union of destructible states’.

Statement-II: The Indian federation is the result of an agreement among the constituent states, and these states have the right to secede from the Union.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

• Statement-I is correct. The Indian constitutional framework allows the Union Parliament to alter the boundaries or names of states, or even create new states out of existing ones, without the consent of the states concerned (though their views are sought). This means states in India are destructible entities within an indestructible Union. The Union government can change the political map of India.

• Statement-II is incorrect. The Indian federation is not the result of an agreement among the states, unlike the American federation. The states in India were constituted for administrative convenience and did not come together to form the Union. Consequently, Indian states do not have the right to secede from the Union. The phrase “Union of States” in Article 1 was preferred over “Federation of States” to emphasize this indivisibility of the Union.

• Thus, Statement-II does not correctly describe the nature of the Indian federation and cannot be an explanation for Statement-I.

Solution: C

• Thus, Statement-II does not correctly describe the nature of the Indian federation and cannot be an explanation for Statement-I.

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements: Statement I: The Indian Constitution is often described as ‘quasi-federal’ or a federation with a strong centralising tendency. Statement II: The Constitution of India vests the residuary powers of legislation in the Parliament. Statement III: The Governors of the States are appointed by the President and hold office during his pleasure. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct Correct Solution: A Statement I is correct. It presents a widely accepted academic view of the Indian federal system. Scholars like C. Wheare described it as “quasi-federal,” while others have noted its strong unitary bias. This is due to several features that tilt the balance of power in favour of the Centre. Statement II is correct. Article 248 of the Constitution, along with Entry 97 in the Union List, explicitly vests the residuary powers of legislation (i.e., the power to make laws on subjects not enumerated in the State or Concurrent lists) exclusively with the Parliament. This is a significant departure from the US model where residuary powers are with the states and is a major factor contributing to the Centre’s strength. Therefore, Statement II is a valid explanation for Statement I. Statement III is correct. Under Articles 155 and 156, the Governor of a state is appointed by the President and holds office during the President’s pleasure. This means the Governor is an appointee of the Central government and not an elected head of the state. This power of appointment and removal gives the Centre significant control over the state executive, making the Governor an agent of the Centre in the state. This is another powerful feature that supports the centralising tendency of the Indian federation. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is correct. It presents a widely accepted academic view of the Indian federal system. Scholars like C. Wheare described it as “quasi-federal,” while others have noted its strong unitary bias. This is due to several features that tilt the balance of power in favour of the Centre. Statement II is correct. Article 248 of the Constitution, along with Entry 97 in the Union List, explicitly vests the residuary powers of legislation (i.e., the power to make laws on subjects not enumerated in the State or Concurrent lists) exclusively with the Parliament. This is a significant departure from the US model where residuary powers are with the states and is a major factor contributing to the Centre’s strength. Therefore, Statement II is a valid explanation for Statement I. Statement III is correct. Under Articles 155 and 156, the Governor of a state is appointed by the President and holds office during the President’s pleasure. This means the Governor is an appointee of the Central government and not an elected head of the state. This power of appointment and removal gives the Centre significant control over the state executive, making the Governor an agent of the Centre in the state. This is another powerful feature that supports the centralising tendency of the Indian federation.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The Indian Constitution is often described as ‘quasi-federal’ or a federation with a strong centralising tendency.

Statement II: The Constitution of India vests the residuary powers of legislation in the Parliament.

Statement III: The Governors of the States are appointed by the President and hold office during his pleasure.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

• (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Solution: A

• Statement I is correct. It presents a widely accepted academic view of the Indian federal system. Scholars like C. Wheare described it as “quasi-federal,” while others have noted its strong unitary bias. This is due to several features that tilt the balance of power in favour of the Centre.

• Statement II is correct. Article 248 of the Constitution, along with Entry 97 in the Union List, explicitly vests the residuary powers of legislation (i.e., the power to make laws on subjects not enumerated in the State or Concurrent lists) exclusively with the Parliament. This is a significant departure from the US model where residuary powers are with the states and is a major factor contributing to the Centre’s strength. Therefore, Statement II is a valid explanation for Statement I.

• Statement III is correct. Under Articles 155 and 156, the Governor of a state is appointed by the President and holds office during the President’s pleasure. This means the Governor is an appointee of the Central government and not an elected head of the state. This power of appointment and removal gives the Centre significant control over the state executive, making the Governor an agent of the Centre in the state. This is another powerful feature that supports the centralising tendency of the Indian federation.

Solution: A

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