UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 2 July 2025

UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 2 July 2025 We will post 5 questions daily on static topics mentioned in the UPSC civil services preliminary examination syllabus. Each week will focus on a specific topic from the syllabus, such as History of India and Indian National Movement, Indian and World Geography, and more.We are excited to bring you our daily UPSC Static Quiz, designed to help you prepare for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination. Each day, we will post 5 questions on static topics mentioned in the UPSC syllabus. This week, we are focusing on Indian and World Geography.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Match List-I (Principle of Constitutionalism) with List-II (Primary Implication/Mechanism): List-I (Principle of Constitutionalism) List-II (Primary Implication/Mechanism) A. Separation of Powers 1. Courts can invalidate laws violating the Constitution. B. Judicial Review 2. Government actions must have a legal basis and not be arbitrary. C. Rule of Law 3. Division of governmental functions among legislative, executive, and judicial branches. D. Popular Sovereignty 4. Government derives its authority from the consent of the governed. Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 (b) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2 (c) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 (d) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 Correct Solution: C Separation of Powers: This principle involves the division of governmental functions among legislative, executive, and judicial branches to prevent the concentration of power in one entity and to create a system of checks and balances. So, A matches with 3. Judicial Review: This is the power of the judiciary, particularly higher courts, to examine the constitutionality of laws passed by the legislature and actions taken by the executive. Courts can invalidate laws violating the Constitution. So, B matches with 1. Rule of Law: This principle mandates that government actions must have a legal basis and not be arbitrary. It implies equality before the law and the absence of arbitrary power, meaning everyone is subject to the law. So, C matches with 2. Popular Sovereignty: This principle asserts that the ultimate source of governmental authority is the people. The government derives its authority from the consent of the governed, typically expressed through elections. So, D matches with 4. Incorrect Solution: C Separation of Powers: This principle involves the division of governmental functions among legislative, executive, and judicial branches to prevent the concentration of power in one entity and to create a system of checks and balances. So, A matches with 3. Judicial Review: This is the power of the judiciary, particularly higher courts, to examine the constitutionality of laws passed by the legislature and actions taken by the executive. Courts can invalidate laws violating the Constitution. So, B matches with 1. Rule of Law: This principle mandates that government actions must have a legal basis and not be arbitrary. It implies equality before the law and the absence of arbitrary power, meaning everyone is subject to the law. So, C matches with 2. Popular Sovereignty: This principle asserts that the ultimate source of governmental authority is the people. The government derives its authority from the consent of the governed, typically expressed through elections. So, D matches with 4.

#### 1. Question

Match List-I (Principle of Constitutionalism) with List-II (Primary Implication/Mechanism):

List-I (Principle of Constitutionalism) | List-II (Primary Implication/Mechanism)

A. Separation of Powers | 1. Courts can invalidate laws violating the Constitution.

B. Judicial Review | 2. Government actions must have a legal basis and not be arbitrary.

C. Rule of Law | 3. Division of governmental functions among legislative, executive, and judicial branches.

D. Popular Sovereignty | 4. Government derives its authority from the consent of the governed.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

• (a) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

• (b) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2

• (c) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

• (d) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

Solution: C

• Separation of Powers: This principle involves the division of governmental functions among legislative, executive, and judicial branches to prevent the concentration of power in one entity and to create a system of checks and balances. So, A matches with 3.

• Judicial Review: This is the power of the judiciary, particularly higher courts, to examine the constitutionality of laws passed by the legislature and actions taken by the executive. Courts can invalidate laws violating the Constitution. So, B matches with 1.

• Rule of Law: This principle mandates that government actions must have a legal basis and not be arbitrary. It implies equality before the law and the absence of arbitrary power, meaning everyone is subject to the law. So, C matches with 2.

• Popular Sovereignty: This principle asserts that the ultimate source of governmental authority is the people. The government derives its authority from the consent of the governed, typically expressed through elections. So, D matches with 4.

Solution: C

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question The distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States under the Indian Constitution is detailed in which Schedule? (a) Fifth Schedule (b) Sixth Schedule (c) Seventh Schedule (d) Tenth Schedule Correct Solution: C The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution outlines the division of legislative powers between the Union and the States. It is divided into three lists: List I (Union List): Subjects over which only Parliament has the exclusive power to legislate. Examples include defence, foreign affairs, atomic energy, etc. List II (State List): Subjects where only the State Legislatures have the power to legislate under normal circumstances. Examples include police, public health, and local government. List III (Concurrent List): Subjects on which both the Parliament and State Legislatures can legislate. However, in case of a conflict, the law made by Parliament prevails. By contrast: The Fifth Schedule deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes. The Sixth Schedule pertains to the administration of tribal areas in the Northeastern states like Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. The Tenth Schedule contains provisions relating to disqualification of legislators on the grounds of defection, introduced by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985. Incorrect Solution: C The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution outlines the division of legislative powers between the Union and the States. It is divided into three lists: List I (Union List): Subjects over which only Parliament has the exclusive power to legislate. Examples include defence, foreign affairs, atomic energy, etc. List II (State List): Subjects where only the State Legislatures have the power to legislate under normal circumstances. Examples include police, public health, and local government. List III (Concurrent List): Subjects on which both the Parliament and State Legislatures can legislate. However, in case of a conflict, the law made by Parliament prevails. By contrast: The Fifth Schedule deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes. The Sixth Schedule pertains to the administration of tribal areas in the Northeastern states like Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. The Tenth Schedule contains provisions relating to disqualification of legislators on the grounds of defection, introduced by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985.

#### 2. Question

The distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States under the Indian Constitution is detailed in which Schedule?

• (a) Fifth Schedule

• (b) Sixth Schedule

• (c) Seventh Schedule

• (d) Tenth Schedule

Solution: C

The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution outlines the division of legislative powers between the Union and the States. It is divided into three lists:

• List I (Union List): Subjects over which only Parliament has the exclusive power to legislate. Examples include defence, foreign affairs, atomic energy, etc.

• List II (State List): Subjects where only the State Legislatures have the power to legislate under normal circumstances. Examples include police, public health, and local government.

• List III (Concurrent List): Subjects on which both the Parliament and State Legislatures can legislate. However, in case of a conflict, the law made by Parliament prevails.

By contrast:

• The Fifth Schedule deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes.

• The Sixth Schedule pertains to the administration of tribal areas in the Northeastern states like Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.

• The Tenth Schedule contains provisions relating to disqualification of legislators on the grounds of defection, introduced by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985.

Solution: C

The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution outlines the division of legislative powers between the Union and the States. It is divided into three lists:

• List I (Union List): Subjects over which only Parliament has the exclusive power to legislate. Examples include defence, foreign affairs, atomic energy, etc.

• List II (State List): Subjects where only the State Legislatures have the power to legislate under normal circumstances. Examples include police, public health, and local government.

• List III (Concurrent List): Subjects on which both the Parliament and State Legislatures can legislate. However, in case of a conflict, the law made by Parliament prevails.

By contrast:

• The Fifth Schedule deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes.

• The Sixth Schedule pertains to the administration of tribal areas in the Northeastern states like Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.

• The Tenth Schedule contains provisions relating to disqualification of legislators on the grounds of defection, introduced by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985.

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Which of the following best describes the role of a ‘delegate’ model of representation in a representative democracy? a) Representatives use their own judgment and conscience to make decisions, even if it goes against the majority opinion of their constituents. b) Representatives act strictly according to the instructions and wishes of their constituents. c) Representatives are chosen by lottery rather than by election. d) Representatives primarily focus on serving the interests of a specific political party. Correct Solution: B In the theory of representative democracy, there are different models of how representatives should act. The ‘delegate’ model posits that elected representatives should act as a mouthpiece for their constituents. They are expected to ascertain the views of their electors and vote or act in accordance with those views, even if it conflicts with their personal judgment. Their primary role is to transmit the will of the people they represent. Incorrect Solution: B In the theory of representative democracy, there are different models of how representatives should act. The ‘delegate’ model posits that elected representatives should act as a mouthpiece for their constituents. They are expected to ascertain the views of their electors and vote or act in accordance with those views, even if it conflicts with their personal judgment. Their primary role is to transmit the will of the people they represent.

#### 3. Question

Which of the following best describes the role of a ‘delegate’ model of representation in a representative democracy?

• a) Representatives use their own judgment and conscience to make decisions, even if it goes against the majority opinion of their constituents.

• b) Representatives act strictly according to the instructions and wishes of their constituents.

• c) Representatives are chosen by lottery rather than by election.

• d) Representatives primarily focus on serving the interests of a specific political party.

Solution: B

In the theory of representative democracy, there are different models of how representatives should act. The ‘delegate’ model posits that elected representatives should act as a mouthpiece for their constituents. They are expected to ascertain the views of their electors and vote or act in accordance with those views, even if it conflicts with their personal judgment. Their primary role is to transmit the will of the people they represent.

Solution: B

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question A writ of ‘Certiorari’ can be issued by the Supreme Court or a High Court for which of the following reasons? When a subordinate court or tribunal has acted without jurisdiction or in excess of its jurisdiction. When there is an error of law apparent on the face of the record in the decision of a subordinate court or tribunal. When there has been a violation of the principles of natural justice by a subordinate court or tribunal. To compel an inferior court or a public authority to perform its statutory duty. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: B The writ of Certiorari (to be certified) is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal. It can be issued for several reasons: When a subordinate court or tribunal has acted without jurisdiction or in excess of its jurisdiction: This is a primary ground for issuing Certiorari, to quash the order passed without proper authority. When there is an error of law apparent on the face of the record: If a decision of a subordinate court or tribunal contains a clear legal error that is obvious from the record, Certiorari can be issued to quash such a decision. When there has been a violation of the principles of natural justice: If a subordinate court or tribunal has acted in violation of principles like audi alteram partem (hear the other side) or the rule against bias, its decision can be quashed by Certiorari. To compel an inferior court or a public authority to perform its statutory duty: This is the function of the writ of Mandamus, not Certiorari. Mandamus commands activity, while Certiorari is primarily for quashing orders or decisions. Incorrect Solution: B The writ of Certiorari (to be certified) is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal. It can be issued for several reasons: When a subordinate court or tribunal has acted without jurisdiction or in excess of its jurisdiction: This is a primary ground for issuing Certiorari, to quash the order passed without proper authority. When there is an error of law apparent on the face of the record: If a decision of a subordinate court or tribunal contains a clear legal error that is obvious from the record, Certiorari can be issued to quash such a decision. When there has been a violation of the principles of natural justice: If a subordinate court or tribunal has acted in violation of principles like audi alteram partem (hear the other side) or the rule against bias, its decision can be quashed by Certiorari. To compel an inferior court or a public authority to perform its statutory duty: This is the function of the writ of Mandamus, not Certiorari. Mandamus commands activity, while Certiorari is primarily for quashing orders or decisions.

#### 4. Question

A writ of ‘Certiorari’ can be issued by the Supreme Court or a High Court for which of the following reasons?

• When a subordinate court or tribunal has acted without jurisdiction or in excess of its jurisdiction.

• When there is an error of law apparent on the face of the record in the decision of a subordinate court or tribunal.

• When there has been a violation of the principles of natural justice by a subordinate court or tribunal.

• To compel an inferior court or a public authority to perform its statutory duty.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (c) 3 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: B

The writ of Certiorari (to be certified) is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal. It can be issued for several reasons:

• When a subordinate court or tribunal has acted without jurisdiction or in excess of its jurisdiction: This is a primary ground for issuing Certiorari, to quash the order passed without proper authority.

• When there is an error of law apparent on the face of the record: If a decision of a subordinate court or tribunal contains a clear legal error that is obvious from the record, Certiorari can be issued to quash such a decision.

• When there has been a violation of the principles of natural justice: If a subordinate court or tribunal has acted in violation of principles like audi alteram partem (hear the other side) or the rule against bias, its decision can be quashed by Certiorari.

• To compel an inferior court or a public authority to perform its statutory duty: This is the function of the writ of Mandamus, not Certiorari. Mandamus commands activity, while Certiorari is primarily for quashing orders or decisions.

Solution: B

The writ of Certiorari (to be certified) is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal. It can be issued for several reasons:

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements regarding the powers of a State Legislative Assembly and a State Legislative Council: A Money Bill can only be introduced in the Legislative Assembly. The Legislative Council has no power to reject or amend a Money Bill. The Legislative Assembly can override the Legislative Council by passing an ordinary bill for the second time. A resolution for the discontinuance of the National Emergency must be passed by both the Legislative Assembly and the Legislative Council. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. As per Article 198, a Money Bill shall not be introduced in a Legislative Council. It can only originate in the Legislative Assembly, which is the directly elected house representing the will of the people on financial matters. Statement 2 is correct. The Legislative Council has very limited powers with respect to a Money Bill. It can neither reject nor amend it. It must return the bill to the Assembly within 14 days with or without recommendations. The Assembly may accept or reject any or all of the recommendations. In either case, the bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses. Statement 3 is correct. For an ordinary bill, if the Legislative Assembly passes it and the Council rejects it, amends it in a way unacceptable to the Assembly, or does not pass it within three months, the Assembly can pass the bill again. If the Council again rejects it, amends it unacceptably, or does not pass it within one month, the bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses. Thus, the Assembly can override the Council, which can at most delay an ordinary bill for four months. Statement 4 is incorrect. The proclamation of a National Emergency (Article 352) is a matter for the Parliament of India. The State Legislature has no role in its approval or discontinuance. A resolution for the discontinuance of a National Emergency can be initiated if 1/10th of the members of the Lok Sabha give a notice in writing, and if passed by a simple majority in the Lok Sabha, the President must revoke the proclamation. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. As per Article 198, a Money Bill shall not be introduced in a Legislative Council. It can only originate in the Legislative Assembly, which is the directly elected house representing the will of the people on financial matters. Statement 2 is correct. The Legislative Council has very limited powers with respect to a Money Bill. It can neither reject nor amend it. It must return the bill to the Assembly within 14 days with or without recommendations. The Assembly may accept or reject any or all of the recommendations. In either case, the bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses. Statement 3 is correct. For an ordinary bill, if the Legislative Assembly passes it and the Council rejects it, amends it in a way unacceptable to the Assembly, or does not pass it within three months, the Assembly can pass the bill again. If the Council again rejects it, amends it unacceptably, or does not pass it within one month, the bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses. Thus, the Assembly can override the Council, which can at most delay an ordinary bill for four months. Statement 4 is incorrect. The proclamation of a National Emergency (Article 352) is a matter for the Parliament of India. The State Legislature has no role in its approval or discontinuance. A resolution for the discontinuance of a National Emergency can be initiated if 1/10th of the members of the Lok Sabha give a notice in writing, and if passed by a simple majority in the Lok Sabha, the President must revoke the proclamation.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the powers of a State Legislative Assembly and a State Legislative Council:

• A Money Bill can only be introduced in the Legislative Assembly.

• The Legislative Council has no power to reject or amend a Money Bill.

• The Legislative Assembly can override the Legislative Council by passing an ordinary bill for the second time.

• A resolution for the discontinuance of the National Emergency must be passed by both the Legislative Assembly and the Legislative Council.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

Statement 1 is correct. As per Article 198, a Money Bill shall not be introduced in a Legislative Council. It can only originate in the Legislative Assembly, which is the directly elected house representing the will of the people on financial matters.

Statement 2 is correct. The Legislative Council has very limited powers with respect to a Money Bill. It can neither reject nor amend it. It must return the bill to the Assembly within 14 days with or without recommendations. The Assembly may accept or reject any or all of the recommendations. In either case, the bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses.

Statement 3 is correct. For an ordinary bill, if the Legislative Assembly passes it and the Council rejects it, amends it in a way unacceptable to the Assembly, or does not pass it within three months, the Assembly can pass the bill again. If the Council again rejects it, amends it unacceptably, or does not pass it within one month, the bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses. Thus, the Assembly can override the Council, which can at most delay an ordinary bill for four months.

Statement 4 is incorrect. The proclamation of a National Emergency (Article 352) is a matter for the Parliament of India. The State Legislature has no role in its approval or discontinuance. A resolution for the discontinuance of a National Emergency can be initiated if 1/10th of the members of the Lok Sabha give a notice in writing, and if passed by a simple majority in the Lok Sabha, the President must revoke the proclamation.

Solution: C

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