UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 19 March 2025

UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 19 March 2025 We will post 5 questions daily on static topics mentioned in the UPSC civil services preliminary examination syllabus. Each week will focus on a specific topic from the syllabus, such as History of India and Indian National Movement, Indian and World Geography, and more.We are excited to bring you our daily UPSC Static Quiz, designed to help you prepare for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination. Each day, we will post 5 questions on static topics mentioned in the UPSC syllabus. This week, we are focusing on Indian and World Geography.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question According to Article 110 of the Indian Constitution, In order for a Bill to be designated as a Money Bill, it must contain provisions dealing with a specific list of subjects. These subjects include: Contingency Fund of India Financial obligations of the Government of India Consolidated Fund of India Taxation How many of the above options is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: d) Article 110 provides a strict definition of a Money Bill. In order for a Bill to be designated as a Money Bill, it must contain “only provisions dealing with all or any” of a specific list of subjects. These subjects include taxation, financial obligations of the Government of India, the Consolidated Fund (revenue received by the government through taxes and expenses incurred in the form of borrowings and loans) or Contingency Fund (money to meet unforeseen expenditure) of India, or “any matter incidental” to the matters listed in the Article. Incorrect Solution: d) Article 110 provides a strict definition of a Money Bill. In order for a Bill to be designated as a Money Bill, it must contain “only provisions dealing with all or any” of a specific list of subjects. These subjects include taxation, financial obligations of the Government of India, the Consolidated Fund (revenue received by the government through taxes and expenses incurred in the form of borrowings and loans) or Contingency Fund (money to meet unforeseen expenditure) of India, or “any matter incidental” to the matters listed in the Article.

#### 1. Question

According to Article 110 of the Indian Constitution, In order for a Bill to be designated as a Money Bill, it must contain provisions dealing with a specific list of subjects. These subjects include:

• Contingency Fund of India

• Financial obligations of the Government of India

• Consolidated Fund of India

How many of the above options is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: d)

Article 110 provides a strict definition of a Money Bill. In order for a Bill to be designated as a Money Bill, it must contain “only provisions dealing with all or any” of a specific list of subjects. These subjects include taxation, financial obligations of the Government of India, the Consolidated Fund (revenue received by the government through taxes and expenses incurred in the form of borrowings and loans) or Contingency Fund (money to meet unforeseen expenditure) of India, or “any matter incidental” to the matters listed in the Article.

Solution: d)

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements regarding Money Bills. Money Bill shall be introduced only in Lok Sabha and is transmitted to Rajya Sabha for its recommendations. If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the Council of States shall be final. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: a) Under Article 109, a Money Bill shall be introduced only in Lok Sabha and, upon passage, transmitted to Rajya Sabha for its “recommendations”. Rajya Sabha must revert within 14 days, but it is up to Lok Sabha to accept or reject any or all of its recommendations. If the Bill is not returned by Rajya Sabha within the stipulated period, it is considered passed anyway. Under Article 110(3), “If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the House of the People thereon shall be final.” Incorrect Solution: a) Under Article 109, a Money Bill shall be introduced only in Lok Sabha and, upon passage, transmitted to Rajya Sabha for its “recommendations”. Rajya Sabha must revert within 14 days, but it is up to Lok Sabha to accept or reject any or all of its recommendations. If the Bill is not returned by Rajya Sabha within the stipulated period, it is considered passed anyway. Under Article 110(3), “If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the House of the People thereon shall be final.”

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Money Bills.

• Money Bill shall be introduced only in Lok Sabha and is transmitted to Rajya Sabha for its recommendations.

• If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the Council of States shall be final.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a)

Under Article 109, a Money Bill shall be introduced only in Lok Sabha and, upon passage, transmitted to Rajya Sabha for its “recommendations”. Rajya Sabha must revert within 14 days, but it is up to Lok Sabha to accept or reject any or all of its recommendations. If the Bill is not returned by Rajya Sabha within the stipulated period, it is considered passed anyway.

Under Article 110(3), “If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the House of the People thereon shall be final.”

Solution: a)

Under Article 110(3), “If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the House of the People thereon shall be final.”

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Under Section 8(1) of the Representation of the People Act of 1951, which of the following offences can lead to disqualification of an MP. Undue influence or personation at an election Bribery Promoting enmity between two groups Defamation How many of the above options is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: c) Option 4 is incorrect. The disqualification of an MP convicted for an offence can happen in two instances. First, if the offence for which he is convicted is listed in Section 8(1) of the Representation of the People Act of 1951. This includes certain specific offences such as promoting enmity between two groups, bribery and undue influence or personation at an election. Defamation does not fall under this list. Second, if the lawmaker is convicted for any other offence but is sentenced for a period of two years or more. Section 8(3) of the RPA mandates that an MP can be disqualified if convicted and sentenced to not less than two years of imprisonment. Incorrect Solution: c) Option 4 is incorrect. The disqualification of an MP convicted for an offence can happen in two instances. First, if the offence for which he is convicted is listed in Section 8(1) of the Representation of the People Act of 1951. This includes certain specific offences such as promoting enmity between two groups, bribery and undue influence or personation at an election. Defamation does not fall under this list. Second, if the lawmaker is convicted for any other offence but is sentenced for a period of two years or more. Section 8(3) of the RPA mandates that an MP can be disqualified if convicted and sentenced to not less than two years of imprisonment.

#### 3. Question

Under Section 8(1) of the Representation of the People Act of 1951, which of the following offences can lead to disqualification of an MP.

• Undue influence or personation at an election

• Promoting enmity between two groups

• Defamation

How many of the above options is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: c)

Option 4 is incorrect.

The disqualification of an MP convicted for an offence can happen in two instances.

First, if the offence for which he is convicted is listed in Section 8(1) of the Representation of the People Act of 1951. This includes certain specific offences such as promoting enmity between two groups, bribery and undue influence or personation at an election. Defamation does not fall under this list.

Second, if the lawmaker is convicted for any other offence but is sentenced for a period of two years or more. Section 8(3) of the RPA mandates that an MP can be disqualified if convicted and sentenced to not less than two years of imprisonment.

Solution: c)

Option 4 is incorrect.

The disqualification of an MP convicted for an offence can happen in two instances.

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements. The Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002 allows the Directorate of Enforcement (ED) to take cognizance of any offence under its schedule across the country. The Directorate of Enforcement (ED) cannot take cognizance of any offence in a state unless requested by the state government, or ordered by a court or the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC). Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: a) Unlike laws governing other agencies, particularly the CBI, the PMLA allows the ED to take cognizance of any offence under its wide-ranging schedule across the country, with or without the consent of state governments. It has, therefore, been able to register money laundering cases against politicians or activists based on FIRs filed by state police forces — something the CBI is unable to do unless requested by the state government, or ordered by a court or the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC). Incorrect Solution: a) Unlike laws governing other agencies, particularly the CBI, the PMLA allows the ED to take cognizance of any offence under its wide-ranging schedule across the country, with or without the consent of state governments. It has, therefore, been able to register money laundering cases against politicians or activists based on FIRs filed by state police forces — something the CBI is unable to do unless requested by the state government, or ordered by a court or the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC).

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements.

• The Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002 allows the Directorate of Enforcement (ED) to take cognizance of any offence under its schedule across the country.

• The Directorate of Enforcement (ED) cannot take cognizance of any offence in a state unless requested by the state government, or ordered by a court or the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a)

Unlike laws governing other agencies, particularly the CBI, the PMLA allows the ED to take cognizance of any offence under its wide-ranging schedule across the country, with or without the consent of state governments.

It has, therefore, been able to register money laundering cases against politicians or activists based on FIRs filed by state police forces — something the CBI is unable to do unless requested by the state government, or ordered by a court or the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC).

Solution: a)

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question What did the Supreme Court rule in the 2023 case of Pankaj Bansal vs Union of India regarding the disclosure of ‘grounds of arrest’? a) Grounds of arrest can be disclosed after the accused is produced before a magistrate b) Grounds of arrest must be disclosed verbally within 48 hours c) Disclosing grounds of arrest in writing at the time of arrest is mandatory d) It is optional to disclose grounds of arrest Correct Solution: c) The Supreme Court’s ruling in this case established a crucial procedural safeguard for arrested individuals. By mandating the written disclosure of arrest grounds at the time of arrest, it ensures transparency in the arrest process and allows the accused to understand the basis of their detention immediately. This requirement serves multiple purposes: it protects against arbitrary arrests, enables the accused to prepare their defense promptly, and upholds the fundamental right to personal liberty. The immediacy of this disclosure is particularly significant in the context of laws like PMLA, where bail provisions are stringent, making the validity of the arrest itself a critical factor in potential legal challenges. Incorrect Solution: c) The Supreme Court’s ruling in this case established a crucial procedural safeguard for arrested individuals. By mandating the written disclosure of arrest grounds at the time of arrest, it ensures transparency in the arrest process and allows the accused to understand the basis of their detention immediately. This requirement serves multiple purposes: it protects against arbitrary arrests, enables the accused to prepare their defense promptly, and upholds the fundamental right to personal liberty. The immediacy of this disclosure is particularly significant in the context of laws like PMLA, where bail provisions are stringent, making the validity of the arrest itself a critical factor in potential legal challenges.

#### 5. Question

What did the Supreme Court rule in the 2023 case of Pankaj Bansal vs Union of India regarding the disclosure of ‘grounds of arrest’?

• a) Grounds of arrest can be disclosed after the accused is produced before a magistrate

• b) Grounds of arrest must be disclosed verbally within 48 hours

• c) Disclosing grounds of arrest in writing at the time of arrest is mandatory

• d) It is optional to disclose grounds of arrest

Solution: c)

The Supreme Court’s ruling in this case established a crucial procedural safeguard for arrested individuals. By mandating the written disclosure of arrest grounds at the time of arrest, it ensures transparency in the arrest process and allows the accused to understand the basis of their detention immediately. This requirement serves multiple purposes: it protects against arbitrary arrests, enables the accused to prepare their defense promptly, and upholds the fundamental right to personal liberty. The immediacy of this disclosure is particularly significant in the context of laws like PMLA, where bail provisions are stringent, making the validity of the arrest itself a critical factor in potential legal challenges.

Solution: c)

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