UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 18 October 2025
Kartavya Desk Staff
UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 18 October 2025 We will post 5 questions daily on static topics mentioned in the UPSC civil services preliminary examination syllabus. Each week will focus on a specific topic from the syllabus, such as History of India and Indian National Movement, Indian and World Geography, and more. We are excited to bring you our daily UPSC Static Quiz, designed to help you prepare for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination. Each day, we will post 5 questions on static topics mentioned in the UPSC syllabus. This week, we are focusing on Indian and World Geography.
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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements about Lok Sabha seating arrangements: Seats are allocated based on the individual MP’s seniority. Members of smaller parties with fewer than five MPs are placed at the Speaker’s discretion. Opposition party members always sit in the last rows of the chamber. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Only Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect because seating is allocated based on party strength, not individual seniority. Statement 3 is incorrect as opposition members are placed on the left side, not necessarily in the last rows. About Seating Arrangement in Lok Sabha: What It Is: The systematic allocation of seats for Members of Parliament (MPs) in the Lok Sabha chamber. It reflects the party’s strength and promotes organized conduct of proceedings. Law Governing: Rule 4 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha. Direction 122(1)(a) under Directions by the Speaker provides the framework for seat allocation. Who Does It: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha determines the seating arrangement. Procedure: Seats are allocated based on the proportionate strength of parties. Ruling party members sit on the right side of the Speaker; opposition parties sit on the left. Smaller parties (fewer than 5 members) and independents are placed at the Speaker’s discretion. The following formula is applied to decide allotment of seats for parties that have a strength of 5 or more members in the house. Parties submit recommendations, and the Speaker finalizes the individual placements. Incorrect Solution: A Only Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect because seating is allocated based on party strength, not individual seniority. Statement 3 is incorrect as opposition members are placed on the left side, not necessarily in the last rows. About Seating Arrangement in Lok Sabha: What It Is: The systematic allocation of seats for Members of Parliament (MPs) in the Lok Sabha chamber. It reflects the party’s strength and promotes organized conduct of proceedings. Law Governing: Rule 4 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha. Direction 122(1)(a) under Directions by the Speaker provides the framework for seat allocation. Who Does It: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha determines the seating arrangement. Procedure: Seats are allocated based on the proportionate strength of parties. Ruling party members sit on the right side of the Speaker; opposition parties sit on the left. Smaller parties (fewer than 5 members) and independents are placed at the Speaker’s discretion. The following formula is applied to decide allotment of seats for parties that have a strength of 5 or more members in the house. Parties submit recommendations, and the Speaker finalizes the individual placements.
#### 1. Question
Consider the following statements about Lok Sabha seating arrangements:
• Seats are allocated based on the individual MP’s seniority.
• Members of smaller parties with fewer than five MPs are placed at the Speaker’s discretion.
• Opposition party members always sit in the last rows of the chamber.
How many of the above statements are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Solution: A
Only Statement 2 is correct.
Statement 1 is incorrect because seating is allocated based on party strength, not individual seniority. Statement 3 is incorrect as opposition members are placed on the left side, not necessarily in the last rows.
About Seating Arrangement in Lok Sabha:
• What It Is: The systematic allocation of seats for Members of Parliament (MPs) in the Lok Sabha chamber. It reflects the party’s strength and promotes organized conduct of proceedings.
• The systematic allocation of seats for Members of Parliament (MPs) in the Lok Sabha chamber. It reflects the party’s strength and promotes organized conduct of proceedings.
• Law Governing: Rule 4 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha. Direction 122(1)(a) under Directions by the Speaker provides the framework for seat allocation.
• Rule 4 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha.
• Direction 122(1)(a) under Directions by the Speaker provides the framework for seat allocation.
• Who Does It: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha determines the seating arrangement.
• The Speaker of the Lok Sabha determines the seating arrangement.
• Procedure: Seats are allocated based on the proportionate strength of parties. Ruling party members sit on the right side of the Speaker; opposition parties sit on the left. Smaller parties (fewer than 5 members) and independents are placed at the Speaker’s discretion. The following formula is applied to decide allotment of seats for parties that have a strength of 5 or more members in the house.
• Seats are allocated based on the proportionate strength of parties.
• Ruling party members sit on the right side of the Speaker; opposition parties sit on the left.
• Smaller parties (fewer than 5 members) and independents are placed at the Speaker’s discretion.
• The following formula is applied to decide allotment of seats for parties that have a strength of 5 or more members in the house.
• Parties submit recommendations, and the Speaker finalizes the individual placements.
• Parties submit recommendations, and the Speaker finalizes the individual placements.
Solution: A
Only Statement 2 is correct.
Statement 1 is incorrect because seating is allocated based on party strength, not individual seniority. Statement 3 is incorrect as opposition members are placed on the left side, not necessarily in the last rows.
About Seating Arrangement in Lok Sabha:
• What It Is: The systematic allocation of seats for Members of Parliament (MPs) in the Lok Sabha chamber. It reflects the party’s strength and promotes organized conduct of proceedings.
• The systematic allocation of seats for Members of Parliament (MPs) in the Lok Sabha chamber. It reflects the party’s strength and promotes organized conduct of proceedings.
• Law Governing: Rule 4 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha. Direction 122(1)(a) under Directions by the Speaker provides the framework for seat allocation.
• Rule 4 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha.
• Direction 122(1)(a) under Directions by the Speaker provides the framework for seat allocation.
• Who Does It: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha determines the seating arrangement.
• The Speaker of the Lok Sabha determines the seating arrangement.
• Procedure: Seats are allocated based on the proportionate strength of parties. Ruling party members sit on the right side of the Speaker; opposition parties sit on the left. Smaller parties (fewer than 5 members) and independents are placed at the Speaker’s discretion. The following formula is applied to decide allotment of seats for parties that have a strength of 5 or more members in the house.
• Seats are allocated based on the proportionate strength of parties.
• Ruling party members sit on the right side of the Speaker; opposition parties sit on the left.
• Smaller parties (fewer than 5 members) and independents are placed at the Speaker’s discretion.
• The following formula is applied to decide allotment of seats for parties that have a strength of 5 or more members in the house.
• Parties submit recommendations, and the Speaker finalizes the individual placements.
• Parties submit recommendations, and the Speaker finalizes the individual placements.
• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements about the limitations of the U.S. President’s pardon power: It applies only to federal crimes. It shields the recipient from civil lawsuits related to the crime. It does not cover impeachment cases. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1: Correct. Presidential pardons apply exclusively to federal crimes, not state crimes. Statement 2: Incorrect. A pardon does not protect the recipient from civil lawsuits related to the crime. Statement 3: Correct. The Constitution explicitly excludes impeachment from the President’s pardon power. About US President’s Pardon Procedure: Constitutional Basis: Article II, Section 2, Clause 1 of the U.S. Constitution grants the President power to pardon federal offenses, except impeachment. Scope: Applies to federal crimes only. Does not erase the criminal record but relieves penalties and restores specific rights. Discretionary Nature: The President exercises clemency independently, without needing Congressional approval. Conditions: Acceptance of a pardon implies an admission of guilt (Burdick vs. U.S., 1915). Does not shield against civil lawsuits or related investigations. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1: Correct. Presidential pardons apply exclusively to federal crimes, not state crimes. Statement 2: Incorrect. A pardon does not protect the recipient from civil lawsuits related to the crime. Statement 3: Correct. The Constitution explicitly excludes impeachment from the President’s pardon power. About US President’s Pardon Procedure: Constitutional Basis: Article II, Section 2, Clause 1 of the U.S. Constitution grants the President power to pardon federal offenses, except impeachment. Scope: Applies to federal crimes only. Does not erase the criminal record but relieves penalties and restores specific rights. Discretionary Nature: The President exercises clemency independently, without needing Congressional approval. Conditions: Acceptance of a pardon implies an admission of guilt (Burdick vs. U.S., 1915). Does not shield against civil lawsuits or related investigations.
#### 2. Question
Consider the following statements about the limitations of the U.S. President’s pardon power:
• It applies only to federal crimes.
• It shields the recipient from civil lawsuits related to the crime.
• It does not cover impeachment cases.
How many of the above statements are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Solution: B
• Statement 1: Correct. Presidential pardons apply exclusively to federal crimes, not state crimes.
• Statement 2: Incorrect. A pardon does not protect the recipient from civil lawsuits related to the crime.
• Statement 3: Correct. The Constitution explicitly excludes impeachment from the President’s pardon power.
About US President’s Pardon Procedure:
• Constitutional Basis: Article II, Section 2, Clause 1 of the U.S. Constitution grants the President power to pardon federal offenses, except impeachment.
• Scope: Applies to federal crimes only. Does not erase the criminal record but relieves penalties and restores specific rights.
• Applies to federal crimes only.
• Does not erase the criminal record but relieves penalties and restores specific rights.
• Discretionary Nature: The President exercises clemency independently, without needing Congressional approval.
• Conditions: Acceptance of a pardon implies an admission of guilt (Burdick vs. U.S., 1915). Does not shield against civil lawsuits or related investigations.
• Acceptance of a pardon implies an admission of guilt (Burdick vs. U.S., 1915).
• Does not shield against civil lawsuits or related investigations.
Solution: B
• Statement 1: Correct. Presidential pardons apply exclusively to federal crimes, not state crimes.
• Statement 2: Incorrect. A pardon does not protect the recipient from civil lawsuits related to the crime.
• Statement 3: Correct. The Constitution explicitly excludes impeachment from the President’s pardon power.
About US President’s Pardon Procedure:
• Constitutional Basis: Article II, Section 2, Clause 1 of the U.S. Constitution grants the President power to pardon federal offenses, except impeachment.
• Scope: Applies to federal crimes only. Does not erase the criminal record but relieves penalties and restores specific rights.
• Applies to federal crimes only.
• Does not erase the criminal record but relieves penalties and restores specific rights.
• Discretionary Nature: The President exercises clemency independently, without needing Congressional approval.
• Conditions: Acceptance of a pardon implies an admission of guilt (Burdick vs. U.S., 1915). Does not shield against civil lawsuits or related investigations.
• Acceptance of a pardon implies an admission of guilt (Burdick vs. U.S., 1915).
• Does not shield against civil lawsuits or related investigations.
• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements about the role of the Chief Justice of India in case scheduling: The Chief Justice of India has exclusive authority over the allocation of cases to benches. The Chief Justice must consult the Supreme Court Registry before finalizing the schedule. The master of the roster principle allows the Chief Justice to determine which bench hears a particular case. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct: The Chief Justice has exclusive authority over allocating cases to benches as the master of the roster. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Chief Justice is not required to consult the Registry while finalizing the schedule; the Registry performs an administrative role under the CJI’s directions. Statement 3 is correct: The master of the roster principle enables the Chief Justice to decide which bench hears a particular case. About Scheduling of Cases in the Supreme Court: Who is in Charge? Chief Justice of India (CJI):Acts as the master of the roster, deciding the allocation and scheduling of cases. Supreme Court Registry:Administers filing, scrutiny, listing, and scheduling of cases. Law Governing Case Scheduling: Governed by Supreme Court Rules, 2013, outlining procedural aspects like filing, listing, and hearing. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct: The Chief Justice has exclusive authority over allocating cases to benches as the master of the roster. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Chief Justice is not required to consult the Registry while finalizing the schedule; the Registry performs an administrative role under the CJI’s directions. Statement 3 is correct: The master of the roster principle enables the Chief Justice to decide which bench hears a particular case. About Scheduling of Cases in the Supreme Court: Who is in Charge? Chief Justice of India (CJI):Acts as the master of the roster, deciding the allocation and scheduling of cases. Supreme Court Registry:Administers filing, scrutiny, listing, and scheduling of cases. Law Governing Case Scheduling: Governed by Supreme Court Rules, 2013, outlining procedural aspects like filing, listing, and hearing.
#### 3. Question
Consider the following statements about the role of the Chief Justice of India in case scheduling:
• The Chief Justice of India has exclusive authority over the allocation of cases to benches.
• The Chief Justice must consult the Supreme Court Registry before finalizing the schedule.
• The master of the roster principle allows the Chief Justice to determine which bench hears a particular case.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• c) All three
Solution: A
Statement 1 is correct: The Chief Justice has exclusive authority over allocating cases to benches as the master of the roster.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Chief Justice is not required to consult the Registry while finalizing the schedule; the Registry performs an administrative role under the CJI’s directions.
Statement 3 is correct: The master of the roster principle enables the Chief Justice to decide which bench hears a particular case.
About Scheduling of Cases in the Supreme Court:
Who is in Charge?
• Chief Justice of India (CJI):Acts as the master of the roster, deciding the allocation and scheduling of cases.
• Supreme Court Registry:Administers filing, scrutiny, listing, and scheduling of cases.
Law Governing Case Scheduling:
• Governed by Supreme Court Rules, 2013, outlining procedural aspects like filing, listing, and hearing.
Solution: A
Statement 1 is correct: The Chief Justice has exclusive authority over allocating cases to benches as the master of the roster.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Chief Justice is not required to consult the Registry while finalizing the schedule; the Registry performs an administrative role under the CJI’s directions.
Statement 3 is correct: The master of the roster principle enables the Chief Justice to decide which bench hears a particular case.
About Scheduling of Cases in the Supreme Court:
Who is in Charge?
• Chief Justice of India (CJI):Acts as the master of the roster, deciding the allocation and scheduling of cases.
• Supreme Court Registry:Administers filing, scrutiny, listing, and scheduling of cases.
Law Governing Case Scheduling:
• Governed by Supreme Court Rules, 2013, outlining procedural aspects like filing, listing, and hearing.
• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements about the miscellaneous and non-miscellaneous days in the Supreme Court: Non-miscellaneous days are exclusively for final hearings of cases. Miscellaneous days are used for admission and issuing notices for fresh matters. Both miscellaneous and non-miscellaneous days are governed by the Supreme Court Rules, 2013. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect: Non-miscellaneous days are primarily used for after-notice matters and regular hearings but are not exclusively for final hearings. Statement 2 is correct: Miscellaneous days, typically Mondays and Fridays, are allocated for admission hearings and issuing notices for fresh cases. Statement 3 is correct: The procedural framework for both types of days is outlined in the Supreme Court Rules, 2013. Procedure for Case Scheduling: Filing Process:Cases are filed through the court’s e-portal or physical counter by Advocates-on-Record (AoR). Scrutiny:Cases are verified for defects by the Registry and allotted a diary number. Listing:After verification, cases are listed for hearing based on their type: Miscellaneous Days (Mondays and Fridays):Fresh matters for issuing notices. Non-Miscellaneous Days (Tuesdays to Thursdays):After-notice or regular hearing matters. Admission:Cases requiring full hearings are admitted after preliminary consideration. Hearing and Judgment:Admitted cases are scheduled for detailed hearings, leading to verdicts. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect: Non-miscellaneous days are primarily used for after-notice matters and regular hearings but are not exclusively for final hearings. Statement 2 is correct: Miscellaneous days, typically Mondays and Fridays, are allocated for admission hearings and issuing notices for fresh cases. Statement 3 is correct: The procedural framework for both types of days is outlined in the Supreme Court Rules, 2013. Procedure for Case Scheduling: Filing Process:Cases are filed through the court’s e-portal or physical counter by Advocates-on-Record (AoR). Scrutiny:Cases are verified for defects by the Registry and allotted a diary number. Listing:After verification, cases are listed for hearing based on their type: Miscellaneous Days (Mondays and Fridays):Fresh matters for issuing notices. Non-Miscellaneous Days (Tuesdays to Thursdays):After-notice or regular hearing matters. Admission:Cases requiring full hearings are admitted after preliminary consideration. Hearing and Judgment:Admitted cases are scheduled for detailed hearings, leading to verdicts.
#### 4. Question
Consider the following statements about the miscellaneous and non-miscellaneous days in the Supreme Court:
• Non-miscellaneous days are exclusively for final hearings of cases.
• Miscellaneous days are used for admission and issuing notices for fresh matters.
• Both miscellaneous and non-miscellaneous days are governed by the Supreme Court Rules, 2013.
Which of the above statements are correct?
• (a) 1 and 2 only
• (b) 1 and 3 only
• (c) 2 and 3 only
• (d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: C
Statement 1 is incorrect: Non-miscellaneous days are primarily used for after-notice matters and regular hearings but are not exclusively for final hearings.
Statement 2 is correct: Miscellaneous days, typically Mondays and Fridays, are allocated for admission hearings and issuing notices for fresh cases.
Statement 3 is correct: The procedural framework for both types of days is outlined in the Supreme Court Rules, 2013.
Procedure for Case Scheduling:
• Filing Process:Cases are filed through the court’s e-portal or physical counter by Advocates-on-Record (AoR).
• Scrutiny:Cases are verified for defects by the Registry and allotted a diary number.
• Listing:After verification, cases are listed for hearing based on their type:
• Miscellaneous Days (Mondays and Fridays):Fresh matters for issuing notices.
• Non-Miscellaneous Days (Tuesdays to Thursdays):After-notice or regular hearing matters.
• Admission:Cases requiring full hearings are admitted after preliminary consideration.
• Hearing and Judgment:Admitted cases are scheduled for detailed hearings, leading to verdicts.
Solution: C
Statement 1 is incorrect: Non-miscellaneous days are primarily used for after-notice matters and regular hearings but are not exclusively for final hearings.
Statement 2 is correct: Miscellaneous days, typically Mondays and Fridays, are allocated for admission hearings and issuing notices for fresh cases.
Statement 3 is correct: The procedural framework for both types of days is outlined in the Supreme Court Rules, 2013.
Procedure for Case Scheduling:
• Filing Process:Cases are filed through the court’s e-portal or physical counter by Advocates-on-Record (AoR).
• Scrutiny:Cases are verified for defects by the Registry and allotted a diary number.
• Listing:After verification, cases are listed for hearing based on their type:
• Miscellaneous Days (Mondays and Fridays):Fresh matters for issuing notices.
• Non-Miscellaneous Days (Tuesdays to Thursdays):After-notice or regular hearing matters.
• Admission:Cases requiring full hearings are admitted after preliminary consideration.
• Hearing and Judgment:Admitted cases are scheduled for detailed hearings, leading to verdicts.
• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements about the removal of the Deputy Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha: It is governed by Article 67(b) of the Constitution. It requires a joint session of Parliament for approval. The motion must be submitted with at least 7 days’ notice. A no-trust motion must secure a simple majority in the Rajya Sabha to succeed. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 90, not Article 67(b), governs the removal of the Deputy Chairperson. Statement 2 is incorrect: A joint session is not required for the removal of the Deputy Chairperson. Statement 3 is incorrect: A 14-day notice, not 7 days, is required to initiate the motion. Statement 4 is correct: A simple majority in the Rajya Sabha is sufficient for the motion to succeed. What is a No-Trust Motion? A procedural tool to express a lack of confidence in the presiding officerof a House. Aimed at holding leaders accountable and upholding parliamentary integrity. Constitutional Article: Article 67(b):Governs the removal of the Vice-President and Rajya Sabha Chairperson. Article 90:Pertains to the removal of the Deputy Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha. Rules and Procedure: Notice Requirement:Must be submitted with at least 14 days’ notice. Majority Vote:Requires a majority of votes in the Rajya Sabha to pass. Concurrence of Lok Sabha:The motion must also be approved by the Lok Sabha for removal. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 90, not Article 67(b), governs the removal of the Deputy Chairperson. Statement 2 is incorrect: A joint session is not required for the removal of the Deputy Chairperson. Statement 3 is incorrect: A 14-day notice, not 7 days, is required to initiate the motion. Statement 4 is correct: A simple majority in the Rajya Sabha is sufficient for the motion to succeed. What is a No-Trust Motion? A procedural tool to express a lack of confidence in the presiding officerof a House. Aimed at holding leaders accountable and upholding parliamentary integrity. Constitutional Article: Article 67(b):Governs the removal of the Vice-President and Rajya Sabha Chairperson. Article 90:Pertains to the removal of the Deputy Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha. Rules and Procedure: Notice Requirement:Must be submitted with at least 14 days’ notice. Majority Vote:Requires a majority of votes in the Rajya Sabha to pass. Concurrence of Lok Sabha:The motion must also be approved by the Lok Sabha for removal.
#### 5. Question
Consider the following statements about the removal of the Deputy Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha:
• It is governed by Article 67(b) of the Constitution.
• It requires a joint session of Parliament for approval.
• The motion must be submitted with at least 7 days’ notice.
• A no-trust motion must secure a simple majority in the Rajya Sabha to succeed.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) Only three
• d) All four
Solution: C
Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 90, not Article 67(b), governs the removal of the Deputy Chairperson.
Statement 2 is incorrect: A joint session is not required for the removal of the Deputy Chairperson.
Statement 3 is incorrect: A 14-day notice, not 7 days, is required to initiate the motion.
Statement 4 is correct: A simple majority in the Rajya Sabha is sufficient for the motion to succeed.
What is a No-Trust Motion?
• A procedural tool to express a lack of confidence in the presiding officerof a House.
• Aimed at holding leaders accountable and upholding parliamentary integrity.
Constitutional Article:
• Article 67(b):Governs the removal of the Vice-President and Rajya Sabha Chairperson.
• Article 90:Pertains to the removal of the Deputy Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.
Rules and Procedure:
• Notice Requirement:Must be submitted with at least 14 days’ notice.
• Majority Vote:Requires a majority of votes in the Rajya Sabha to pass.
• Concurrence of Lok Sabha:The motion must also be approved by the Lok Sabha for removal.
Solution: C
Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 90, not Article 67(b), governs the removal of the Deputy Chairperson.
Statement 2 is incorrect: A joint session is not required for the removal of the Deputy Chairperson.
Statement 3 is incorrect: A 14-day notice, not 7 days, is required to initiate the motion.
Statement 4 is correct: A simple majority in the Rajya Sabha is sufficient for the motion to succeed.
What is a No-Trust Motion?
• A procedural tool to express a lack of confidence in the presiding officerof a House.
• Aimed at holding leaders accountable and upholding parliamentary integrity.
Constitutional Article:
• Article 67(b):Governs the removal of the Vice-President and Rajya Sabha Chairperson.
• Article 90:Pertains to the removal of the Deputy Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.
Rules and Procedure:
• Notice Requirement:Must be submitted with at least 14 days’ notice.
• Majority Vote:Requires a majority of votes in the Rajya Sabha to pass.
• Concurrence of Lok Sabha:The motion must also be approved by the Lok Sabha for removal.
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