UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 18 June 2025

UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 18 June 2025 We will post 5 questions daily on static topics mentioned in the UPSC civil services preliminary examination syllabus. Each week will focus on a specific topic from the syllabus, such as History of India and Indian National Movement, Indian and World Geography, and more.We are excited to bring you our daily UPSC Static Quiz, designed to help you prepare for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination. Each day, we will post 5 questions on static topics mentioned in the UPSC syllabus. This week, we are focusing on Indian and World Geography.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following: Regular, free, and fair elections Protection of fundamental rights Concentration of all powers in the executive branch for efficient decision-making Judicial review of legislative actions How many of the above are fundamental to the practice of constitutionalism in a democratic setup? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: c) Constitutionalism in a democratic setup is characterized by several key elements: Regular, free, and fair elections are essential for ensuring popular sovereignty and government accountability, which are core tenets of constitutionalism. Protection of fundamental rights is a primary objective of constitutionalism, as it limits state power to prevent infringement upon individual liberties. Concentration of all powers in the executive branch is antithetical to constitutionalism. Constitutionalism promotes the separation of powers and checks and balances to prevent any single branch from becoming too powerful and arbitrary. Thus, this statement is incorrect. Judicial review is a crucial mechanism by which the judiciary ensures that legislative (and executive) actions conform to the Constitution, thereby upholding constitutional supremacy and limiting governmental power. Therefore, statements 1, 2, and 4 are fundamental to the practice of constitutionalism in a democratic setup. Incorrect Solution: c) Constitutionalism in a democratic setup is characterized by several key elements: Regular, free, and fair elections are essential for ensuring popular sovereignty and government accountability, which are core tenets of constitutionalism. Protection of fundamental rights is a primary objective of constitutionalism, as it limits state power to prevent infringement upon individual liberties. Concentration of all powers in the executive branch is antithetical to constitutionalism. Constitutionalism promotes the separation of powers and checks and balances to prevent any single branch from becoming too powerful and arbitrary. Thus, this statement is incorrect. Judicial review is a crucial mechanism by which the judiciary ensures that legislative (and executive) actions conform to the Constitution, thereby upholding constitutional supremacy and limiting governmental power. Therefore, statements 1, 2, and 4 are fundamental to the practice of constitutionalism in a democratic setup.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following:

• Regular, free, and fair elections

• Protection of fundamental rights

• Concentration of all powers in the executive branch for efficient decision-making

• Judicial review of legislative actions

How many of the above are fundamental to the practice of constitutionalism in a democratic setup?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: c)

Constitutionalism in a democratic setup is characterized by several key elements:

• Regular, free, and fair elections are essential for ensuring popular sovereignty and government accountability, which are core tenets of constitutionalism.

• Protection of fundamental rights is a primary objective of constitutionalism, as it limits state power to prevent infringement upon individual liberties.

• Concentration of all powers in the executive branch is antithetical to constitutionalism. Constitutionalism promotes the separation of powers and checks and balances to prevent any single branch from becoming too powerful and arbitrary. Thus, this statement is incorrect.

• Judicial review is a crucial mechanism by which the judiciary ensures that legislative (and executive) actions conform to the Constitution, thereby upholding constitutional supremacy and limiting governmental power.

Therefore, statements 1, 2, and 4 are fundamental to the practice of constitutionalism in a democratic setup.

Solution: c)

Constitutionalism in a democratic setup is characterized by several key elements:

• Regular, free, and fair elections are essential for ensuring popular sovereignty and government accountability, which are core tenets of constitutionalism.

• Protection of fundamental rights is a primary objective of constitutionalism, as it limits state power to prevent infringement upon individual liberties.

Therefore, statements 1, 2, and 4 are fundamental to the practice of constitutionalism in a democratic setup.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question The Objectives Resolution, moved by Jawaharlal Nehru in the Constituent Assembly: Declared India as an Independent Sovereign Republic. Guaranteed fundamental rights to all citizens of India. Outlined the basic philosophy and guiding principles for framing the Constitution. Was unanimously adopted by the Constituent Assembly without any debate. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: c) The Objectives Resolution was a historic resolution moved by Jawaharlal Nehru on December 13, 1946, in the Constituent Assembly. Statement 1 is correct. It proclaimed India as an “Independent Sovereign Republic” and drew the outline of the future Indian state. Statement 2 is correct. Equality of status, of opportunity, and before the law; freedom of thought, expression, belief, faith, worship, vocation, association and action, subject to law and public morality. These formed the basis for Fundamental Rights. Statement 3 is correct. The Resolution enshrined the aspirations and values behind the Constitution-making and provided the fundamental philosophical framework that guided the Assembly’s deliberations. It was this resolution that later shaped the Preamble of the Constitution. Statement 4 is incorrect. While the Objectives Resolution was adopted (on January 22, 1947), it was after considerable debate and discussion, not unanimously without any debate. Members deliberated on its contents and implications before its adoption. Thus, statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. Incorrect Solution: c) The Objectives Resolution was a historic resolution moved by Jawaharlal Nehru on December 13, 1946, in the Constituent Assembly. Statement 1 is correct. It proclaimed India as an “Independent Sovereign Republic” and drew the outline of the future Indian state. Statement 2 is correct. Equality of status, of opportunity, and before the law; freedom of thought, expression, belief, faith, worship, vocation, association and action, subject to law and public morality. These formed the basis for Fundamental Rights. Statement 3 is correct. The Resolution enshrined the aspirations and values behind the Constitution-making and provided the fundamental philosophical framework that guided the Assembly’s deliberations. It was this resolution that later shaped the Preamble of the Constitution. Statement 4 is incorrect. While the Objectives Resolution was adopted (on January 22, 1947), it was after considerable debate and discussion, not unanimously without any debate. Members deliberated on its contents and implications before its adoption. Thus, statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

#### 2. Question

The Objectives Resolution, moved by Jawaharlal Nehru in the Constituent Assembly:

• Declared India as an Independent Sovereign Republic.

• Guaranteed fundamental rights to all citizens of India.

• Outlined the basic philosophy and guiding principles for framing the Constitution.

• Was unanimously adopted by the Constituent Assembly without any debate.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: c)

• The Objectives Resolution was a historic resolution moved by Jawaharlal Nehru on December 13, 1946, in the Constituent Assembly.

• Statement 1 is correct. It proclaimed India as an “Independent Sovereign Republic” and drew the outline of the future Indian state.

• Statement 2 is correct. Equality of status, of opportunity, and before the law; freedom of thought, expression, belief, faith, worship, vocation, association and action, subject to law and public morality. These formed the basis for Fundamental Rights.

• Statement 3 is correct. The Resolution enshrined the aspirations and values behind the Constitution-making and provided the fundamental philosophical framework that guided the Assembly’s deliberations. It was this resolution that later shaped the Preamble of the Constitution.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. While the Objectives Resolution was adopted (on January 22, 1947), it was after considerable debate and discussion, not unanimously without any debate. Members deliberated on its contents and implications before its adoption.

• Thus, statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

Solution: c)

• The Objectives Resolution was a historic resolution moved by Jawaharlal Nehru on December 13, 1946, in the Constituent Assembly.

• Statement 1 is correct. It proclaimed India as an “Independent Sovereign Republic” and drew the outline of the future Indian state.

• Thus, statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements. Statement-I: Article 14 of the Indian Constitution guarantees ‘equality before the law’ and ‘equal protection of the laws’ to all persons within the territory of India. Statement-II: The concept of ‘equality before the law’ is of British origin and implies the absence of any special privileges in favour of any individual, while ‘equal protection of the laws’ is of American origin and implies equality of treatment in equal circumstances. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: a) Statement-I is correct. Article 14 of the Constitution of India explicitly states that “The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India”. This right is available to all persons, whether citizens or foreigners. Statement-II is also correct. The concept of ‘equality before the law’ is an element of A.V. Dicey’s Rule of Law from British jurisprudence. It signifies that no one is above the law and that all are equally subject to the ordinary law of the land administered by ordinary law courts. It is a negative concept implying the absence of special privileges. ‘Equal protection of the laws,’ derived from the American Constitution (14th Amendment), is a more positive concept, implying that those similarly circumstanced should be treated alike, both in privileges conferred and liabilities imposed. It permits reasonable classification. Statement-II provides a precise jurisprudential breakdown of the two distinct phrases used in Statement-I, thereby correctly explaining the constituent elements and origins of the guarantee mentioned in Article 14. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement-I is correct. Article 14 of the Constitution of India explicitly states that “The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India”. This right is available to all persons, whether citizens or foreigners. Statement-II is also correct. The concept of ‘equality before the law’ is an element of A.V. Dicey’s Rule of Law from British jurisprudence. It signifies that no one is above the law and that all are equally subject to the ordinary law of the land administered by ordinary law courts. It is a negative concept implying the absence of special privileges. ‘Equal protection of the laws,’ derived from the American Constitution (14th Amendment), is a more positive concept, implying that those similarly circumstanced should be treated alike, both in privileges conferred and liabilities imposed. It permits reasonable classification. Statement-II provides a precise jurisprudential breakdown of the two distinct phrases used in Statement-I, thereby correctly explaining the constituent elements and origins of the guarantee mentioned in Article 14.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements.

Statement-I: Article 14 of the Indian Constitution guarantees ‘equality before the law’ and ‘equal protection of the laws’ to all persons within the territory of India.

Statement-II: The concept of ‘equality before the law’ is of British origin and implies the absence of any special privileges in favour of any individual, while ‘equal protection of the laws’ is of American origin and implies equality of treatment in equal circumstances.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: a)

• Statement-I is correct. Article 14 of the Constitution of India explicitly states that “The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India”. This right is available to all persons, whether citizens or foreigners.

• Statement-II is also correct. The concept of ‘equality before the law’ is an element of A.V. Dicey’s Rule of Law from British jurisprudence. It signifies that no one is above the law and that all are equally subject to the ordinary law of the land administered by ordinary law courts. It is a negative concept implying the absence of special privileges.

• ‘Equal protection of the laws,’ derived from the American Constitution (14th Amendment), is a more positive concept, implying that those similarly circumstanced should be treated alike, both in privileges conferred and liabilities imposed. It permits reasonable classification.

• Statement-II provides a precise jurisprudential breakdown of the two distinct phrases used in Statement-I, thereby correctly explaining the constituent elements and origins of the guarantee mentioned in Article 14.

Solution: a)

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Match List-I (Type of Majority in Indian Parliament) with List-II (Example of Use) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List-I (Type of Majority) List-II (Example of Use) A. Simple Majority 1. Amendment of most provisions of the Constitution. B. Absolute Majority 2. Removal of the Vice-President in Rajya Sabha. C. Effective Majority 3. Passage of an ordinary bill. D. Special Majority 4. Used in conjunction with other majorities, e.g., for government formation stability. Select the correct answer Code: (a) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1 (b) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2 (c) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 (d) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 Correct Solution: a) Simple Majority: This refers to a majority of more than 50% of the members present and voting. It is used for the passage of an ordinary bill. So, A matches with 3. Absolute Majority: This refers to a majority of more than 50% of the total membership of the House. While not independently used for passing most motions, it is a component of certain special majorities and is implicitly required for demonstrating government stability (e.g., during government formation or a confidence motion). So, B matches with 4. Effective Majority: This refers to a majority of more than 50% of the then effective strength of the House (Total Strength – Vacancies). It is used for the removal of the Vice-President in the Rajya Sabha (Article 67(b)). So, C matches with 2. Special Majority (Art. 368 – Type 2): This requires a majority of the total membership of the House AND a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting. It is used for the amendment of most provisions of the Constitution. So, D matches with 1. Incorrect Solution: a) Simple Majority: This refers to a majority of more than 50% of the members present and voting. It is used for the passage of an ordinary bill. So, A matches with 3. Absolute Majority: This refers to a majority of more than 50% of the total membership of the House. While not independently used for passing most motions, it is a component of certain special majorities and is implicitly required for demonstrating government stability (e.g., during government formation or a confidence motion). So, B matches with 4. Effective Majority: This refers to a majority of more than 50% of the then effective strength of the House (Total Strength – Vacancies). It is used for the removal of the Vice-President in the Rajya Sabha (Article 67(b)). So, C matches with 2. Special Majority (Art. 368 – Type 2): This requires a majority of the total membership of the House AND a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting. It is used for the amendment of most provisions of the Constitution. So, D matches with 1.

#### 4. Question

Match List-I (Type of Majority in Indian Parliament) with List-II (Example of Use) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I (Type of Majority) | List-II (Example of Use)

A. Simple Majority | 1. Amendment of most provisions of the Constitution.

B. Absolute Majority | 2. Removal of the Vice-President in Rajya Sabha.

C. Effective Majority | 3. Passage of an ordinary bill.

D. Special Majority | 4. Used in conjunction with other majorities, e.g., for government formation stability.

Select the correct answer Code:

• (a) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

• (b) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

• (c) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

• (d) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

Solution: a)

• Simple Majority: This refers to a majority of more than 50% of the members present and voting. It is used for the passage of an ordinary bill. So, A matches with 3.

• Absolute Majority: This refers to a majority of more than 50% of the total membership of the House. While not independently used for passing most motions, it is a component of certain special majorities and is implicitly required for demonstrating government stability (e.g., during government formation or a confidence motion). So, B matches with 4.

• Effective Majority: This refers to a majority of more than 50% of the then effective strength of the House (Total Strength – Vacancies). It is used for the removal of the Vice-President in the Rajya Sabha (Article 67(b)). So, C matches with 2.

• Special Majority (Art. 368 – Type 2): This requires a majority of the total membership of the House AND a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting. It is used for the amendment of most provisions of the Constitution. So, D matches with 1.

Solution: a)

• Simple Majority: This refers to a majority of more than 50% of the members present and voting. It is used for the passage of an ordinary bill. So, A matches with 3.

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements regarding the functioning of representative democracy: It relies on the principle of universal adult franchise for the election of representatives. Regular, free, and fair elections are essential for its sustenance. Elected representatives are solely accountable to their political parties, not to the electorate. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct. Modern representative democracies, including India, are typically based on the principle of universal adult franchise, where all adult citizens, subject to reasonable restrictions (like unsoundness of mind, certain criminal convictions), have the right to vote and elect their representatives. Statement 2 is correct. The legitimacy and effectiveness of representative democracy depend heavily on the conduct of regular, free, and fair elections. These elections provide citizens with the opportunity to choose their government and hold their representatives accountable. Statement 3 is incorrect. While representatives are often members of political parties and are accountable to their party leadership to some extent, in a democratic system, their primary accountability is to the electorate who voted them into office. They are expected to represent the interests of their constituents and the nation. The electorate can hold them accountable in subsequent elections. The idea of accountability to the people is a cornerstone of representative democracy. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct. Modern representative democracies, including India, are typically based on the principle of universal adult franchise, where all adult citizens, subject to reasonable restrictions (like unsoundness of mind, certain criminal convictions), have the right to vote and elect their representatives. Statement 2 is correct. The legitimacy and effectiveness of representative democracy depend heavily on the conduct of regular, free, and fair elections. These elections provide citizens with the opportunity to choose their government and hold their representatives accountable. Statement 3 is incorrect. While representatives are often members of political parties and are accountable to their party leadership to some extent, in a democratic system, their primary accountability is to the electorate who voted them into office. They are expected to represent the interests of their constituents and the nation. The electorate can hold them accountable in subsequent elections. The idea of accountability to the people is a cornerstone of representative democracy.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the functioning of representative democracy:

• It relies on the principle of universal adult franchise for the election of representatives.

• Regular, free, and fair elections are essential for its sustenance.

• Elected representatives are solely accountable to their political parties, not to the electorate.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is correct. Modern representative democracies, including India, are typically based on the principle of universal adult franchise, where all adult citizens, subject to reasonable restrictions (like unsoundness of mind, certain criminal convictions), have the right to vote and elect their representatives.

Statement 2 is correct. The legitimacy and effectiveness of representative democracy depend heavily on the conduct of regular, free, and fair elections. These elections provide citizens with the opportunity to choose their government and hold their representatives accountable.

Statement 3 is incorrect. While representatives are often members of political parties and are accountable to their party leadership to some extent, in a democratic system, their primary accountability is to the electorate who voted them into office. They are expected to represent the interests of their constituents and the nation. The electorate can hold them accountable in subsequent elections. The idea of accountability to the people is a cornerstone of representative democracy.

Solution: b)

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