UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 16 October 2025

UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 16 2025 We will post 5 questions daily on static topics mentioned in the UPSC civil services preliminary examination syllabus. Each week will focus on a specific topic from the syllabus, such as History of India and Indian National Movement, Indian and World Geography, and more. We are excited to bring you our daily UPSC Static Quiz, designed to help you prepare for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination. Each day, we will post 5 questions on static topics mentioned in the UPSC syllabus. This week, we are focusing on Indian and World Geography.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements: The total number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a state shall not exceed fifteen per cent of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly. A member of either House of the state legislature who is disqualified on the ground of defection shall also be disqualified to be appointed as a minister. The Governor administers the oaths of office and secrecy to the Chief Minister. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. The 91st Amendment Act, 2003, inserted Article 164(1A) into the Constitution, which explicitly limits the size of the state Council of Ministers to 15% of the Assembly’s strength. This was done to curb the practice of having jumbo cabinets for political appeasement. Statement 2 is also correct. The same 91st Amendment Act inserted Article 164(1B), which states that a member disqualified on the ground of defection (under the Tenth Schedule) shall also be disqualified from being appointed as a minister. This was a measure to strengthen the anti-defection law. Statement 3 is correct. As per Article 164(3), before a Minister enters upon his office, the Governor shall administer to him the oaths of office and of secrecy according to the forms set out for the purpose in the Third Schedule. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. The 91st Amendment Act, 2003, inserted Article 164(1A) into the Constitution, which explicitly limits the size of the state Council of Ministers to 15% of the Assembly’s strength. This was done to curb the practice of having jumbo cabinets for political appeasement. Statement 2 is also correct. The same 91st Amendment Act inserted Article 164(1B), which states that a member disqualified on the ground of defection (under the Tenth Schedule) shall also be disqualified from being appointed as a minister. This was a measure to strengthen the anti-defection law. Statement 3 is correct. As per Article 164(3), before a Minister enters upon his office, the Governor shall administer to him the oaths of office and of secrecy according to the forms set out for the purpose in the Third Schedule.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The total number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a state shall not exceed fifteen per cent of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly.

• A member of either House of the state legislature who is disqualified on the ground of defection shall also be disqualified to be appointed as a minister.

• The Governor administers the oaths of office and secrecy to the Chief Minister.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

Statement 1 is correct. The 91st Amendment Act, 2003, inserted Article 164(1A) into the Constitution, which explicitly limits the size of the state Council of Ministers to 15% of the Assembly’s strength. This was done to curb the practice of having jumbo cabinets for political appeasement.

Statement 2 is also correct. The same 91st Amendment Act inserted Article 164(1B), which states that a member disqualified on the ground of defection (under the Tenth Schedule) shall also be disqualified from being appointed as a minister. This was a measure to strengthen the anti-defection law.

Statement 3 is correct. As per Article 164(3), before a Minister enters upon his office, the Governor shall administer to him the oaths of office and of secrecy according to the forms set out for the purpose in the Third Schedule.

Solution: C

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Which of the following best describes the constitutional position of the Chief Minister in relation to the Governor? (a) The Chief Minister is the chief executive authority of the state, and the Governor is bound to act on his advice in all matters. (b) The Chief Minister is the head of the government, and the Governor is the head of the state, with the former being the principal channel of communication between the Council of Ministers and the latter. (c) The Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor and is individually responsible to him for the administration of the state. (d) The Chief Minister’s advice is binding on the Governor only in legislative matters but not in executive matters. Correct Solution: B Option (b) provides the most accurate and comprehensive description. The Chief Minister is the head of the government (the real executive), while the Governor is the head of the state (the nominal executive). A key constitutional duty of the Chief Minister, enshrined in Article 167, is to act as the principal channel of communication between the Council of Ministers and the Governor. This includes communicating all decisions of the council relating to administration and proposals for legislation to the Governor. Option (a) is incorrect because the Governor is not bound by the Chief Minister’s advice in matters where he can exercise his discretion under the Constitution, as per Article 163(1). Option (c) is incorrect because while the Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor, he is not individually responsible to him; the Council of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, is collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly of the State as per Article 164(2). Option (d) is incorrect as it creates an artificial distinction; the Governor is generally bound by the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers in both executive and legislative matters, except for his discretionary powers. Incorrect Solution: B Option (b) provides the most accurate and comprehensive description. The Chief Minister is the head of the government (the real executive), while the Governor is the head of the state (the nominal executive). A key constitutional duty of the Chief Minister, enshrined in Article 167, is to act as the principal channel of communication between the Council of Ministers and the Governor. This includes communicating all decisions of the council relating to administration and proposals for legislation to the Governor. Option (a) is incorrect because the Governor is not bound by the Chief Minister’s advice in matters where he can exercise his discretion under the Constitution, as per Article 163(1). Option (c) is incorrect because while the Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor, he is not individually responsible to him; the Council of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, is collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly of the State as per Article 164(2). Option (d) is incorrect as it creates an artificial distinction; the Governor is generally bound by the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers in both executive and legislative matters, except for his discretionary powers.

#### 2. Question

Which of the following best describes the constitutional position of the Chief Minister in relation to the Governor?

• (a) The Chief Minister is the chief executive authority of the state, and the Governor is bound to act on his advice in all matters.

• (b) The Chief Minister is the head of the government, and the Governor is the head of the state, with the former being the principal channel of communication between the Council of Ministers and the latter.

• (c) The Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor and is individually responsible to him for the administration of the state.

• (d) The Chief Minister’s advice is binding on the Governor only in legislative matters but not in executive matters.

Solution: B

Option (b) provides the most accurate and comprehensive description. The Chief Minister is the head of the government (the real executive), while the Governor is the head of the state (the nominal executive). A key constitutional duty of the Chief Minister, enshrined in

Article 167, is to act as the principal channel of communication between the Council of Ministers and the Governor. This includes communicating all decisions of the council relating to administration and proposals for legislation to the Governor.

Option (a) is incorrect because the Governor is not bound by the Chief Minister’s advice in matters where he can exercise his discretion under the Constitution, as per Article 163(1).

Option (c) is incorrect because while the Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor, he is not individually responsible to him; the Council of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, is

collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly of the State as per Article 164(2).

Option (d) is incorrect as it creates an artificial distinction; the Governor is generally bound by the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers in both executive and legislative matters, except for his discretionary powers.

Solution: B

Option (a) is incorrect because the Governor is not bound by the Chief Minister’s advice in matters where he can exercise his discretion under the Constitution, as per Article 163(1).

Option (c) is incorrect because while the Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor, he is not individually responsible to him; the Council of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, is

collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly of the State as per Article 164(2).

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Constitution of India does not define the terms ‘Civil Contempt’ or ‘Criminal Contempt’. Statement-II: The power to legislate on the subject of ‘Contempt of Court’ is vested exclusively with the State Legislatures under the State List of the Seventh Schedule. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C While Article 129 and Article 215 empower the Supreme Court and High Courts, respectively, as ‘courts of record’ with the power to punish for their contempt, the Constitution itself does not provide a definition of what constitutes contempt. These definitions are found in statutory law. So, Statement-I is correct. Statement-II is incorrect. The power to legislate on ‘Contempt of court, but not including contempt of the Supreme Court’ is listed as Entry 14 in the Concurrent List (List III) of the Seventh Schedule. The power to legislate on the constitution, organisation, jurisdiction, and powers of the Supreme Court (including contempt of such court) is under Entry 77 of the Union List (List I). Therefore, the power is not exclusive to State Legislatures; it is a concurrent power, with the Parliament also having the primary power concerning the Supreme Court. The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 is a central law. Incorrect Solution: C While Article 129 and Article 215 empower the Supreme Court and High Courts, respectively, as ‘courts of record’ with the power to punish for their contempt, the Constitution itself does not provide a definition of what constitutes contempt. These definitions are found in statutory law. So, Statement-I is correct. Statement-II is incorrect. The power to legislate on ‘Contempt of court, but not including contempt of the Supreme Court’ is listed as Entry 14 in the Concurrent List (List III) of the Seventh Schedule. The power to legislate on the constitution, organisation, jurisdiction, and powers of the Supreme Court (including contempt of such court) is under Entry 77 of the Union List (List I). Therefore, the power is not exclusive to State Legislatures; it is a concurrent power, with the Parliament also having the primary power concerning the Supreme Court. The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 is a central law.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Constitution of India does not define the terms ‘Civil Contempt’ or ‘Criminal Contempt’.

Statement-II: The power to legislate on the subject of ‘Contempt of Court’ is vested exclusively with the State Legislatures under the State List of the Seventh Schedule.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

While Article 129 and Article 215 empower the Supreme Court and High Courts, respectively, as ‘courts of record’ with the power to punish for their contempt, the Constitution itself does not provide a definition of what constitutes contempt. These definitions are found in statutory law. So, Statement-I is correct.

Statement-II is incorrect. The power to legislate on ‘Contempt of court, but not including contempt of the Supreme Court’ is listed as Entry 14 in the Concurrent List (List III) of the Seventh Schedule. The power to legislate on the constitution, organisation, jurisdiction, and powers of the Supreme Court (including contempt of such court) is under Entry 77 of the Union List (List I). Therefore, the power is not exclusive to State Legislatures; it is a concurrent power, with the Parliament also having the primary power concerning the Supreme Court. The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 is a central law.

Solution: C

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Constitution of India provides for a federal system where the territorial integrity of the states is not guaranteed by the Constitution. Statement-II: Article 3 of the Constitution empowers the Parliament to form a new state by separation of territory from any state or by uniting two or more states, and it can do so without the concurrence of the concerned state legislatures. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct. It accurately describes a key feature of the Indian federation. Unlike in a classic federation like the USA, where the boundaries of states cannot be altered without their consent, in India, the states’ territorial integrity is not guaranteed. The Parliament can unilaterally change the political map of India. This is why India is described as an “indestructible Union of destructible states”. Statement-II is correct. It provides the precise constitutional basis for the principle mentioned in Statement-I. Article 3 grants Parliament the power to form new states, increase or diminish the area of any state, alter the boundaries, or alter the name of any state. The procedure requires the President to refer the bill to the state legislature for its views, but as established in legal precedent and constitutional practice, Parliament is not bound by these views. The lack of a requirement for state concurrence is the mechanism that makes the states “destructible.” Statement-II provides the direct constitutional mechanism and procedure that leads to the outcome described in Statement-I. Therefore, Statement-II is the correct and direct explanation for Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct. It accurately describes a key feature of the Indian federation. Unlike in a classic federation like the USA, where the boundaries of states cannot be altered without their consent, in India, the states’ territorial integrity is not guaranteed. The Parliament can unilaterally change the political map of India. This is why India is described as an “indestructible Union of destructible states”. Statement-II is correct. It provides the precise constitutional basis for the principle mentioned in Statement-I. Article 3 grants Parliament the power to form new states, increase or diminish the area of any state, alter the boundaries, or alter the name of any state. The procedure requires the President to refer the bill to the state legislature for its views, but as established in legal precedent and constitutional practice, Parliament is not bound by these views. The lack of a requirement for state concurrence is the mechanism that makes the states “destructible.” Statement-II provides the direct constitutional mechanism and procedure that leads to the outcome described in Statement-I. Therefore, Statement-II is the correct and direct explanation for Statement-I.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Constitution of India provides for a federal system where the territorial integrity of the states is not guaranteed by the Constitution.

Statement-II: Article 3 of the Constitution empowers the Parliament to form a new state by separation of territory from any state or by uniting two or more states, and it can do so without the concurrence of the concerned state legislatures.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. It accurately describes a key feature of the Indian federation. Unlike in a classic federation like the USA, where the boundaries of states cannot be altered without their consent, in India, the states’ territorial integrity is not guaranteed. The Parliament can unilaterally change the political map of India. This is why India is described as an “indestructible Union of destructible states”.

• Statement-II is correct. It provides the precise constitutional basis for the principle mentioned in Statement-I. Article 3 grants Parliament the power to form new states, increase or diminish the area of any state, alter the boundaries, or alter the name of any state. The procedure requires the President to refer the bill to the state legislature for its views, but as established in legal precedent and constitutional practice, Parliament is not bound by these views. The lack of a requirement for state concurrence is the mechanism that makes the states “destructible.”

• Statement-II provides the direct constitutional mechanism and procedure that leads to the outcome described in Statement-I. Therefore, Statement-II is the correct and direct explanation for Statement-I.

Solution: A

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Which Article of the Constitution of India provides for the Finance Commission, a body responsible for recommending the distribution of financial resources between the Union and the States? (a) Article 263 (b) Article 275 (c) Article 280 (d) Article 324 Correct Solution: C Article 280 of the Constitution of India provides for the establishment of a Finance Commission as a quasi-judicial body. It is constituted by the President of India every fifth year or at such earlier time as he considers necessary. Its primary role is to make recommendations to the President regarding: The distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States. The principles that should govern the grants-in-aid to the states by the Union out of the Consolidated Fund of India. Measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats and Municipalities in the state on the basis of the recommendations made by the State Finance Commission. Any other matter referred to it by the President in the interests of sound finance. Article 263 deals with the Inter-State Council. Article 275 deals with grants from the Union to certain States (grants-in-aid). Article 324 deals with the Election Commission. Incorrect Solution: C Article 280 of the Constitution of India provides for the establishment of a Finance Commission as a quasi-judicial body. It is constituted by the President of India every fifth year or at such earlier time as he considers necessary. Its primary role is to make recommendations to the President regarding: The distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States. The principles that should govern the grants-in-aid to the states by the Union out of the Consolidated Fund of India. Measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats and Municipalities in the state on the basis of the recommendations made by the State Finance Commission. Any other matter referred to it by the President in the interests of sound finance. Article 263 deals with the Inter-State Council. Article 275 deals with grants from the Union to certain States (grants-in-aid). Article 324 deals with the Election Commission.

#### 5. Question

Which Article of the Constitution of India provides for the Finance Commission, a body responsible for recommending the distribution of financial resources between the Union and the States?

• (a) Article 263

• (b) Article 275

• (c) Article 280

• (d) Article 324

Solution: C

Article 280 of the Constitution of India provides for the establishment of a Finance Commission as a quasi-judicial body. It is constituted by the President of India every fifth year or at such earlier time as he considers necessary. Its primary role is to make recommendations to the President regarding:

• The distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States.

• The principles that should govern the grants-in-aid to the states by the Union out of the Consolidated Fund of India.

• Measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats and Municipalities in the state on the basis of the recommendations made by the State Finance Commission.

• Any other matter referred to it by the President in the interests of sound finance.

Article 263 deals with the Inter-State Council. Article 275 deals with grants from the Union to certain States (grants-in-aid). Article 324 deals with the Election Commission.

Solution: C

• The distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States.

• The principles that should govern the grants-in-aid to the states by the Union out of the Consolidated Fund of India.

• Any other matter referred to it by the President in the interests of sound finance.

Article 263 deals with the Inter-State Council. Article 275 deals with grants from the Union to certain States (grants-in-aid). Article 324 deals with the Election Commission.

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