UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 16 July 2025

UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 16 July 2025 We will post 5 questions daily on static topics mentioned in the UPSC civil services preliminary examination syllabus. Each week will focus on a specific topic from the syllabus, such as History of India and Indian National Movement, Indian and World Geography, and more.We are excited to bring you our daily UPSC Static Quiz, designed to help you prepare for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination. Each day, we will post 5 questions on static topics mentioned in the UPSC syllabus. This week, we are focusing on Indian and World Geography.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Which of the following were among the key debates and considerations within the Indian Constituent Assembly? The nature of federalism and the extent of powers for the Centre versus the States. The inclusion and scope of Fundamental Rights versus the Directive Principles of State Policy. The adoption of a Uniform Civil Code. The choice between a Parliamentary and a Presidential form of government. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: D The Indian Constituent Assembly engaged in extensive debates on various foundational aspects of the Constitution. The nature of federalism and Centre-State powers was a major point of discussion. Members debated the balance between a strong Centre needed for national unity and security, and adequate autonomy for States to cater to regional diversity and needs. Dr. Ambedkar characterized the draft as “federal” despite “Union” being used in Article 1. The inclusion and scope of Fundamental Rights versus Directive Principles of State Policy was another significant area of debate. The justiciability of FRs versus the non-justiciable but fundamental nature of DPSPs, and their interrelationship, were thoroughly deliberated. The adoption of a Uniform Civil Code (UCC) was debated, with some members, particularly Muslim representatives, expressing strong opposition, while others like K.M. Munshi and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar supported the state’s power to enact it. The choice between a Parliamentary and a Presidential form of government was also considered. The Assembly ultimately opted for the parliamentary system, influenced by familiarity with the British model and the perceived suitability for ensuring responsible government in a diverse country. Incorrect Solution: D The Indian Constituent Assembly engaged in extensive debates on various foundational aspects of the Constitution. The nature of federalism and Centre-State powers was a major point of discussion. Members debated the balance between a strong Centre needed for national unity and security, and adequate autonomy for States to cater to regional diversity and needs. Dr. Ambedkar characterized the draft as “federal” despite “Union” being used in Article 1. The inclusion and scope of Fundamental Rights versus Directive Principles of State Policy was another significant area of debate. The justiciability of FRs versus the non-justiciable but fundamental nature of DPSPs, and their interrelationship, were thoroughly deliberated. The adoption of a Uniform Civil Code (UCC) was debated, with some members, particularly Muslim representatives, expressing strong opposition, while others like K.M. Munshi and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar supported the state’s power to enact it. The choice between a Parliamentary and a Presidential form of government was also considered. The Assembly ultimately opted for the parliamentary system, influenced by familiarity with the British model and the perceived suitability for ensuring responsible government in a diverse country.

#### 1. Question

Which of the following were among the key debates and considerations within the Indian Constituent Assembly?

• The nature of federalism and the extent of powers for the Centre versus the States.

• The inclusion and scope of Fundamental Rights versus the Directive Principles of State Policy.

• The adoption of a Uniform Civil Code.

• The choice between a Parliamentary and a Presidential form of government.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (b) 1, 2 and 4 only

• (c) 3 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: D

The Indian Constituent Assembly engaged in extensive debates on various foundational aspects of the Constitution.

• The nature of federalism and Centre-State powers was a major point of discussion. Members debated the balance between a strong Centre needed for national unity and security, and adequate autonomy for States to cater to regional diversity and needs. Dr. Ambedkar characterized the draft as “federal” despite “Union” being used in Article 1.

• The inclusion and scope of Fundamental Rights versus Directive Principles of State Policy was another significant area of debate. The justiciability of FRs versus the non-justiciable but fundamental nature of DPSPs, and their interrelationship, were thoroughly deliberated.

• The adoption of a Uniform Civil Code (UCC) was debated, with some members, particularly Muslim representatives, expressing strong opposition, while others like K.M. Munshi and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar supported the state’s power to enact it.

• The choice between a Parliamentary and a Presidential form of government was also considered. The Assembly ultimately opted for the parliamentary system, influenced by familiarity with the British model and the perceived suitability for ensuring responsible government in a diverse country.

Solution: D

The Indian Constituent Assembly engaged in extensive debates on various foundational aspects of the Constitution.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question The rationale behind the Indian Constituent Assembly’s decision to adopt a Parliamentary form of government, despite some arguments for a Presidential system, was primarily based on: The familiarity of Indian political leaders with the British parliamentary system. The perceived greater stability offered by a fixed executive tenure in a Presidential system. The emphasis on ensuring direct accountability of the executive to the legislature. The desire to have a strong, directly elected individual as the head of government. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only Correct Solution: A The Constituent Assembly opted for the Parliamentary system for several reasons: Statement 1 is correct. Indian leaders had gained considerable experience with the working of the parliamentary system during British rule, particularly under the Government of India Acts. Statement 2 is incorrect. While Presidential systems offer a fixed executive tenure which can imply stability, the framers of the Indian Constitution prioritized responsibility over stability in this specific context. They were wary of potential executive autocracy and preferred a system where the executive was continuously accountable. Statement 3 is correct. A key advantage of the parliamentary system is the direct and continuous accountability of the executive (Council of Ministers) to the legislature (Parliament). The executive remains in power only as long as it enjoys the confidence of the Lok Sabha.23 This was seen as crucial for a nascent democracy. Statement 4 is incorrect. While a Presidential system has a strong, directly elected head of government, the Indian framers were more concerned with preventing executive overreach and ensuring collective responsibility. The parliamentary system, with the Prime Minister as the head of government but accountable to Parliament, was preferred. Incorrect Solution: A The Constituent Assembly opted for the Parliamentary system for several reasons: Statement 1 is correct. Indian leaders had gained considerable experience with the working of the parliamentary system during British rule, particularly under the Government of India Acts. Statement 2 is incorrect. While Presidential systems offer a fixed executive tenure which can imply stability, the framers of the Indian Constitution prioritized responsibility over stability in this specific context. They were wary of potential executive autocracy and preferred a system where the executive was continuously accountable. Statement 3 is correct. A key advantage of the parliamentary system is the direct and continuous accountability of the executive (Council of Ministers) to the legislature (Parliament). The executive remains in power only as long as it enjoys the confidence of the Lok Sabha.23 This was seen as crucial for a nascent democracy. Statement 4 is incorrect. While a Presidential system has a strong, directly elected head of government, the Indian framers were more concerned with preventing executive overreach and ensuring collective responsibility. The parliamentary system, with the Prime Minister as the head of government but accountable to Parliament, was preferred.

#### 2. Question

The rationale behind the Indian Constituent Assembly’s decision to adopt a Parliamentary form of government, despite some arguments for a Presidential system, was primarily based on:

• The familiarity of Indian political leaders with the British parliamentary system.

• The perceived greater stability offered by a fixed executive tenure in a Presidential system.

• The emphasis on ensuring direct accountability of the executive to the legislature.

• The desire to have a strong, directly elected individual as the head of government.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 and 4 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Solution: A

• The Constituent Assembly opted for the Parliamentary system for several reasons:

• Statement 1 is correct. Indian leaders had gained considerable experience with the working of the parliamentary system during British rule, particularly under the Government of India Acts.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While Presidential systems offer a fixed executive tenure which can imply stability, the framers of the Indian Constitution prioritized responsibility over stability in this specific context. They were wary of potential executive autocracy and preferred a system where the executive was continuously accountable.

• Statement 3 is correct. A key advantage of the parliamentary system is the direct and continuous accountability of the executive (Council of Ministers) to the legislature (Parliament). The executive remains in power only as long as it enjoys the confidence of the Lok Sabha.23 This was seen as crucial for a nascent democracy.

Statement 4 is incorrect. While a Presidential system has a strong, directly elected head of government, the Indian framers were more concerned with preventing executive overreach and ensuring collective responsibility. The parliamentary system, with the Prime Minister as the head of government but accountable to Parliament, was preferred.

Solution: A

• The Constituent Assembly opted for the Parliamentary system for several reasons:

• Statement 1 is correct. Indian leaders had gained considerable experience with the working of the parliamentary system during British rule, particularly under the Government of India Acts.

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements regarding the influence of the Government of India Act, 1935 on the Constitution of India: The scheme of a three-fold division of legislative powers (Federal, Provincial, Concurrent Lists) was directly adopted. The office of the Governor and the provision for emergency powers were largely drawn from this Act. The Act introduced universal adult suffrage, which was retained by the Constitution. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The Government of India Act, 1935, served as a major blueprint for the Constitution of India. Statement 1 is correct. The Act provided for a three-fold division of legislative powers between the Centre and the Provinces through Federal, Provincial, and Concurrent Lists. This scheme was substantially adopted in the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution. Statement 2 is correct. The office of the Governor (though with modified roles and appointment procedures) and the framework for emergency provisions in the Indian Constitution find their antecedents in the Government of India Act, 1935. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Government of India Act, 1935, expanded the franchise, but it was still limited to about 10-14% of the population based on property, tax, or education qualifications. Universal adult suffrage was a novel feature introduced by the Constitution of independent India, not retained from the 1935 Act. Incorrect Solution: B The Government of India Act, 1935, served as a major blueprint for the Constitution of India. Statement 1 is correct. The Act provided for a three-fold division of legislative powers between the Centre and the Provinces through Federal, Provincial, and Concurrent Lists. This scheme was substantially adopted in the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution. Statement 2 is correct. The office of the Governor (though with modified roles and appointment procedures) and the framework for emergency provisions in the Indian Constitution find their antecedents in the Government of India Act, 1935. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Government of India Act, 1935, expanded the franchise, but it was still limited to about 10-14% of the population based on property, tax, or education qualifications. Universal adult suffrage was a novel feature introduced by the Constitution of independent India, not retained from the 1935 Act.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the influence of the Government of India Act, 1935 on the Constitution of India:

• The scheme of a three-fold division of legislative powers (Federal, Provincial, Concurrent Lists) was directly adopted.

• The office of the Governor and the provision for emergency powers were largely drawn from this Act.

• The Act introduced universal adult suffrage, which was retained by the Constitution.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• The Government of India Act, 1935, served as a major blueprint for the Constitution of India.

• Statement 1 is correct. The Act provided for a three-fold division of legislative powers between the Centre and the Provinces through Federal, Provincial, and Concurrent Lists. This scheme was substantially adopted in the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution.

• Statement 2 is correct. The office of the Governor (though with modified roles and appointment procedures) and the framework for emergency provisions in the Indian Constitution find their antecedents in the Government of India Act, 1935.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The Government of India Act, 1935, expanded the franchise, but it was still limited to about 10-14% of the population based on property, tax, or education qualifications. Universal adult suffrage was a novel feature introduced by the Constitution of independent India, not retained from the 1935 Act.

Solution: B

• The Government of India Act, 1935, served as a major blueprint for the Constitution of India.

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question With reference to Article 13 of the Indian Constitution, consider the following: Ordinances issued by the President or Governors. Bye-laws made by municipal bodies. Customs or usages having the force of law. Which of the above are included in the definition of ‘law’ under Article 13(3)(a) for the purpose of testing consistency with Fundamental Rights? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1, and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only Correct Solution: B Article 13(3)(a) of the Constitution provides an inclusive definition of ‘law’ for the purposes of Article 13. It states that “law” includes any Ordinance, order, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law. Ordinances issued by the President or Governors are explicitly covered as they are temporary laws. Bye-laws made by municipal bodies are also explicitly covered. Customs or usages having the force of law are explicitly included, signifying that even non-legislative sources of law, if they have legal binding, must conform to Fundamental Rights. Incorrect Solution: B Article 13(3)(a) of the Constitution provides an inclusive definition of ‘law’ for the purposes of Article 13. It states that “law” includes any Ordinance, order, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law. Ordinances issued by the President or Governors are explicitly covered as they are temporary laws. Bye-laws made by municipal bodies are also explicitly covered. Customs or usages having the force of law are explicitly included, signifying that even non-legislative sources of law, if they have legal binding, must conform to Fundamental Rights.

#### 4. Question

With reference to Article 13 of the Indian Constitution, consider the following:

• Ordinances issued by the President or Governors.

• Bye-laws made by municipal bodies.

• Customs or usages having the force of law.

Which of the above are included in the definition of ‘law’ under Article 13(3)(a) for the purpose of testing consistency with Fundamental Rights?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1, 2 and 3

• (c) 1, and 3 only

• (d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: B

Article 13(3)(a) of the Constitution provides an inclusive definition of ‘law’ for the purposes of Article 13. It states that “law” includes any Ordinance, order, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law.

• Ordinances issued by the President or Governors are explicitly covered as they are temporary laws.

• Bye-laws made by municipal bodies are also explicitly covered.

• Customs or usages having the force of law are explicitly included, signifying that even non-legislative sources of law, if they have legal binding, must conform to Fundamental Rights.

Solution: B

• Ordinances issued by the President or Governors are explicitly covered as they are temporary laws.

• Bye-laws made by municipal bodies are also explicitly covered.

• Customs or usages having the force of law are explicitly included, signifying that even non-legislative sources of law, if they have legal binding, must conform to Fundamental Rights.

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements. Statement-I: The concept of ‘Equality Before Law’ under Article 14 of the Indian Constitution is a negative concept that implies the absence of any special privileges in favour of any individual. Statement-II: The concept of ‘Equal Protection of Laws’ under Article 14 of the Indian Constitution permits reasonable classification by the State for differential treatment. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: B Statement-I is correct. ‘Equality Before Law’, a concept of British origin, is a negative concept. It signifies the absence of any special privileges for any person, the equal subjection of all individuals to the ordinary law of the land administered by ordinary law courts, and that no person is above the law. It aims to prevent arbitrary action by the state. Statement-II is correct. ‘Equal Protection of Laws’, derived from the American Constitution, is a positive concept. It means that among equals, the law should be equal and equally administered, that like should be treated alike without discrimination. It implies equality of treatment in equal circumstances. This concept permits reasonable classification of persons, objects, and transactions by the law for the purpose of differential treatment, provided the classification is not arbitrary, artificial, or evasive and is based on an intelligible differentia having a rational nexus with the object sought to be achieved. While both statements are correct descriptions of their respective concepts within Article 14, Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: B Statement-I is correct. ‘Equality Before Law’, a concept of British origin, is a negative concept. It signifies the absence of any special privileges for any person, the equal subjection of all individuals to the ordinary law of the land administered by ordinary law courts, and that no person is above the law. It aims to prevent arbitrary action by the state. Statement-II is correct. ‘Equal Protection of Laws’, derived from the American Constitution, is a positive concept. It means that among equals, the law should be equal and equally administered, that like should be treated alike without discrimination. It implies equality of treatment in equal circumstances. This concept permits reasonable classification of persons, objects, and transactions by the law for the purpose of differential treatment, provided the classification is not arbitrary, artificial, or evasive and is based on an intelligible differentia having a rational nexus with the object sought to be achieved. While both statements are correct descriptions of their respective concepts within Article 14, Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements.

Statement-I: The concept of ‘Equality Before Law’ under Article 14 of the Indian Constitution is a negative concept that implies the absence of any special privileges in favour of any individual.

Statement-II: The concept of ‘Equal Protection of Laws’ under Article 14 of the Indian Constitution permits reasonable classification by the State for differential treatment.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: B

Statement-I is correct. ‘Equality Before Law’, a concept of British origin, is a negative concept. It signifies the absence of any special privileges for any person, the equal subjection of all individuals to the ordinary law of the land administered by ordinary law courts, and that no person is above the law. It aims to prevent arbitrary action by the state.

Statement-II is correct. ‘Equal Protection of Laws’, derived from the American Constitution, is a positive concept. It means that among equals, the law should be equal and equally administered, that like should be treated alike without discrimination. It implies equality of treatment in equal circumstances. This concept permits reasonable classification of persons, objects, and transactions by the law for the purpose of differential treatment, provided the classification is not arbitrary, artificial, or evasive and is based on an intelligible differentia having a rational nexus with the object sought to be achieved.

While both statements are correct descriptions of their respective concepts within Article 14, Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Solution: B

While both statements are correct descriptions of their respective concepts within Article 14, Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

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