UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 13 November 2025

UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 13 November 2025 We will post 5 questions daily on static topics mentioned in the UPSC civil services preliminary examination syllabus. Each week will focus on a specific topic from the syllabus, such as History of India and Indian National Movement, Indian and World Geography, and more. We are excited to bring you our daily UPSC Static Quiz, designed to help you prepare for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination. Each day, we will post 5 questions on static topics mentioned in the UPSC syllabus. This week, we are focusing on Indian and World Geography.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question With reference to Article 22 of the Constitution of India (Protection against arrest and detention), consider the following statements: A person arrested under a preventive detention law must be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours of arrest. Parliament has exclusive power to make laws with respect to preventive detention for reasons connected with defence and foreign affairs. The Constitution prescribes a maximum period of three months for preventive detention of a person without obtaining the opinion of an Advisory Board. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Article 22 grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained. Statement 1 is incorrect. The right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours of arrest (excluding journey time) is a safeguard under Article 22(2) for ordinary arrests, not for preventive detention. Persons detained under preventive detention law do not have this specific right. Statement 2 is correct. The legislative power with respect to preventive detention is divided between Parliament and state legislatures under the Seventh Schedule. Parliament has exclusive power to make laws for preventive detention for reasons connected with Defence, Foreign Affairs, or the security of India (Entry 9, List I). Both Parliament and state legislatures can legislate on preventive detention for reasons connected with the security of a State, maintenance of public order, or maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community (Entry 3, List III). Statement 3 is correct. Article 22(4) provides that no law providing for preventive detention shall authorize the detention of a person for a longer period than three months unless an Advisory Board (consisting of persons who are, or have been, or are qualified to be appointed as, Judges of a High Court) has reported before the expiration of the said period of three months that there is in its opinion sufficient cause for such detention. Incorrect Solution: B Article 22 grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained. Statement 1 is incorrect. The right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours of arrest (excluding journey time) is a safeguard under Article 22(2) for ordinary arrests, not for preventive detention. Persons detained under preventive detention law do not have this specific right. Statement 2 is correct. The legislative power with respect to preventive detention is divided between Parliament and state legislatures under the Seventh Schedule. Parliament has exclusive power to make laws for preventive detention for reasons connected with Defence, Foreign Affairs, or the security of India (Entry 9, List I). Both Parliament and state legislatures can legislate on preventive detention for reasons connected with the security of a State, maintenance of public order, or maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community (Entry 3, List III). Statement 3 is correct. Article 22(4) provides that no law providing for preventive detention shall authorize the detention of a person for a longer period than three months unless an Advisory Board (consisting of persons who are, or have been, or are qualified to be appointed as, Judges of a High Court) has reported before the expiration of the said period of three months that there is in its opinion sufficient cause for such detention.

#### 1. Question

With reference to Article 22 of the Constitution of India (Protection against arrest and detention), consider the following statements:

• A person arrested under a preventive detention law must be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours of arrest.

• Parliament has exclusive power to make laws with respect to preventive detention for reasons connected with defence and foreign affairs.

• The Constitution prescribes a maximum period of three months for preventive detention of a person without obtaining the opinion of an Advisory Board.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

Article 22 grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours of arrest (excluding journey time) is a safeguard under Article 22(2) for ordinary arrests, not for preventive detention. Persons detained under preventive detention law do not have this specific right.

Statement 2 is correct. The legislative power with respect to preventive detention is divided between Parliament and state legislatures under the Seventh Schedule. Parliament has exclusive power to make laws for preventive detention for reasons connected with Defence, Foreign Affairs, or the security of India (Entry 9, List I). Both Parliament and state legislatures can legislate on preventive detention for reasons connected with the security of a State, maintenance of public order, or maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community (Entry 3, List III).

Statement 3 is correct. Article 22(4) provides that no law providing for preventive detention shall authorize the detention of a person for a longer period than three months unless an Advisory Board (consisting of persons who are, or have been, or are qualified to be appointed as, Judges of a High Court) has reported before the expiration of the said period of three months that there is in its opinion sufficient cause for such detention.

Solution: B

Article 22 grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The salaries and allowances of the judges of the Supreme Court are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India. Statement-II: The financial provisions related to the judiciary are designed to keep them outside the purview of the annual budget appropriations by the Parliament to ensure their independence. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Article 146(3) states that the administrative expenses of the Supreme Court, including all salaries, allowances, and pensions payable to its staff, shall be charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India. Similarly, Article 112(3) lists the salaries and allowances of the judges of the Supreme Court as expenditure charged on the CFI. So, Statement-I is correct. Statement-II explains the rationale behind such provisions. Expenditure ‘charged’ upon the Consolidated Fund is non-votable by the Parliament, meaning it is not subject to the annual vote on the budget. This insulates the judiciary’s finances from political pressures and legislative control, which is a critical safeguard for its independence. So, Statement-II is correct. Statement-II perfectly explains the constitutional philosophy behind the provision mentioned in Statement-I. Therefore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: A Article 146(3) states that the administrative expenses of the Supreme Court, including all salaries, allowances, and pensions payable to its staff, shall be charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India. Similarly, Article 112(3) lists the salaries and allowances of the judges of the Supreme Court as expenditure charged on the CFI. So, Statement-I is correct. Statement-II explains the rationale behind such provisions. Expenditure ‘charged’ upon the Consolidated Fund is non-votable by the Parliament, meaning it is not subject to the annual vote on the budget. This insulates the judiciary’s finances from political pressures and legislative control, which is a critical safeguard for its independence. So, Statement-II is correct. Statement-II perfectly explains the constitutional philosophy behind the provision mentioned in Statement-I. Therefore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The salaries and allowances of the judges of the Supreme Court are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India.

Statement-II: The financial provisions related to the judiciary are designed to keep them outside the purview of the annual budget appropriations by the Parliament to ensure their independence.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

Article 146(3) states that the administrative expenses of the Supreme Court, including all salaries, allowances, and pensions payable to its staff, shall be charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India. Similarly, Article 112(3) lists the salaries and allowances of the judges of the Supreme Court as expenditure charged on the CFI. So, Statement-I is correct.

Statement-II explains the rationale behind such provisions. Expenditure ‘charged’ upon the Consolidated Fund is non-votable by the Parliament, meaning it is not subject to the annual vote on the budget. This insulates the judiciary’s finances from political pressures and legislative control, which is a critical safeguard for its independence. So, Statement-II is correct.

Statement-II perfectly explains the constitutional philosophy behind the provision mentioned in Statement-I. Therefore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Solution: A

Statement-II perfectly explains the constitutional philosophy behind the provision mentioned in Statement-I. Therefore, Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI): The CBI acts as the National Central Bureau of Interpol for India. The tenure of the Director of CBI is fixed at five years by the CVC Act, 2003. The superintendence of the CVC over the CBI extends to all cases investigated by the CBI, including those related to terrorism and organised crime. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The CBI is the designated nodal agency for police cooperation in India for the International Criminal Police Organization (Interpol). In this capacity, it coordinates requests for investigation and assistance from other member countries and Indian law enforcement agencies. Statement 2 is incorrect. The CVC Act, 2003, provided for a security of tenure of two years for the Director of the CBI. Subsequent amendments, such as the Delhi Special Police Establishment (Amendment) Act, 2021, have allowed for the extension of this tenure up to a maximum of five years, but through year-on-year extensions, not a fixed five-year term from the outset. The original fixed tenure was two years, not five. Statement 3 is incorrect. The superintendence of the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) over the CBI is limited. It extends only to the investigation of offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988. For all other matters, including cases of special crimes like terrorism, organised crime, or conventional crimes under the IPC, the CBI functions under the administrative control of the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT), Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The CBI is the designated nodal agency for police cooperation in India for the International Criminal Police Organization (Interpol). In this capacity, it coordinates requests for investigation and assistance from other member countries and Indian law enforcement agencies. Statement 2 is incorrect. The CVC Act, 2003, provided for a security of tenure of two years for the Director of the CBI. Subsequent amendments, such as the Delhi Special Police Establishment (Amendment) Act, 2021, have allowed for the extension of this tenure up to a maximum of five years, but through year-on-year extensions, not a fixed five-year term from the outset. The original fixed tenure was two years, not five. Statement 3 is incorrect. The superintendence of the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) over the CBI is limited. It extends only to the investigation of offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988. For all other matters, including cases of special crimes like terrorism, organised crime, or conventional crimes under the IPC, the CBI functions under the administrative control of the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT), Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI):

• The CBI acts as the National Central Bureau of Interpol for India.

• The tenure of the Director of CBI is fixed at five years by the CVC Act, 2003.

• The superintendence of the CVC over the CBI extends to all cases investigated by the CBI, including those related to terrorism and organised crime.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

Statement 1 is correct. The CBI is the designated nodal agency for police cooperation in India for the International Criminal Police Organization (Interpol). In this capacity, it coordinates requests for investigation and assistance from other member countries and Indian law enforcement agencies.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The CVC Act, 2003, provided for a security of tenure of two years for the Director of the CBI. Subsequent amendments, such as the Delhi Special Police Establishment (Amendment) Act, 2021, have allowed for the extension of this tenure up to a maximum of five years, but through year-on-year extensions, not a fixed five-year term from the outset. The original fixed tenure was two years, not five.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The superintendence of the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) over the CBI is limited. It extends only to the investigation of offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988. For all other matters, including cases of special crimes like terrorism, organised crime, or conventional crimes under the IPC, the CBI functions under the administrative control of the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT), Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.

Solution: A

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question With reference to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC), consider the following statements: The 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2018, granted constitutional status to the NCBC by inserting Article 338B into the Constitution. The NCBC has all the powers of a civil court while investigating any matter or inquiring into any complaint. The advice tendered by the NCBC on the inclusion or exclusion of a community in the Central List of Socially and Educationally Backward Classes is binding on the President. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2018, was a landmark step that conferred constitutional status on the National Commission for Backward Classes, bringing it on par with the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (Article 338) and the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (Article 338A). It did so by inserting a new Article 338B into the Constitution. Statement 2 is correct. Article 338B(8) of the Constitution explicitly vests the NCBC with the powers of a civil court while trying a suit. These powers include summoning persons, requiring the discovery and production of documents, receiving evidence on affidavits, and issuing commissions for the examination of witnesses and documents. Statement 3 is incorrect. The role of the NCBC is primarily investigatory and recommendatory. While the Constitution mandates consultation with the NCBC on all major policy matters affecting the Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBCs), its advice is not binding on the President or the government. The power to include or exclude a community from the Central List of SEBCs rests with the Parliament, although the process requires consultation with the NCBC. The President specifies the list, which can then be modified only by an Act of Parliament. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2018, was a landmark step that conferred constitutional status on the National Commission for Backward Classes, bringing it on par with the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (Article 338) and the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (Article 338A). It did so by inserting a new Article 338B into the Constitution. Statement 2 is correct. Article 338B(8) of the Constitution explicitly vests the NCBC with the powers of a civil court while trying a suit. These powers include summoning persons, requiring the discovery and production of documents, receiving evidence on affidavits, and issuing commissions for the examination of witnesses and documents. Statement 3 is incorrect. The role of the NCBC is primarily investigatory and recommendatory. While the Constitution mandates consultation with the NCBC on all major policy matters affecting the Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBCs), its advice is not binding on the President or the government. The power to include or exclude a community from the Central List of SEBCs rests with the Parliament, although the process requires consultation with the NCBC. The President specifies the list, which can then be modified only by an Act of Parliament.

#### 4. Question

With reference to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC), consider the following statements:

• The 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2018, granted constitutional status to the NCBC by inserting Article 338B into the Constitution.

• The NCBC has all the powers of a civil court while investigating any matter or inquiring into any complaint.

• The advice tendered by the NCBC on the inclusion or exclusion of a community in the Central List of Socially and Educationally Backward Classes is binding on the President.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2018, was a landmark step that conferred constitutional status on the National Commission for Backward Classes, bringing it on par with the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (Article 338) and the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (Article 338A). It did so by inserting a new Article 338B into the Constitution.

• Statement 2 is correct. Article 338B(8) of the Constitution explicitly vests the NCBC with the powers of a civil court while trying a suit. These powers include summoning persons, requiring the discovery and production of documents, receiving evidence on affidavits, and issuing commissions for the examination of witnesses and documents.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The role of the NCBC is primarily investigatory and recommendatory. While the Constitution mandates consultation with the NCBC on all major policy matters affecting the Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBCs), its advice is not binding on the President or the government. The power to include or exclude a community from the Central List of SEBCs rests with the Parliament, although the process requires consultation with the NCBC. The President specifies the list, which can then be modified only by an Act of Parliament.

Solution: B

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements: The Constitution of India uses the term ‘Budget’ in Article 112. The Finance Commission recommends the principles that should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India. All revenues received by the Government of India are credited to the Public Account of India. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The term ‘Budget’ is not mentioned anywhere in the Constitution of India. Article 112 of the Constitution refers to it as the ‘Annual Financial Statement’. Statement 2 is correct. According to Article 280(3) of the Constitution, it is the duty of the Finance Commission to make recommendations to the President regarding the principles that should govern the grants-in-aid to the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India. These grants are provided under Article 275. Statement 3 is incorrect. According to Article 266 of the Constitution, all revenues received by the Government of India, all loans raised by it, and all money received by it in repayment of loans form one consolidated fund called the Consolidated Fund of India. The Public Account of India is a separate fund under the same article, where money held by the government in trust, such as provident fund deposits, is kept. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The term ‘Budget’ is not mentioned anywhere in the Constitution of India. Article 112 of the Constitution refers to it as the ‘Annual Financial Statement’. Statement 2 is correct. According to Article 280(3) of the Constitution, it is the duty of the Finance Commission to make recommendations to the President regarding the principles that should govern the grants-in-aid to the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India. These grants are provided under Article 275. Statement 3 is incorrect. According to Article 266 of the Constitution, all revenues received by the Government of India, all loans raised by it, and all money received by it in repayment of loans form one consolidated fund called the Consolidated Fund of India. The Public Account of India is a separate fund under the same article, where money held by the government in trust, such as provident fund deposits, is kept.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The Constitution of India uses the term ‘Budget’ in Article 112.

• The Finance Commission recommends the principles that should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India.

• All revenues received by the Government of India are credited to the Public Account of India.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The term ‘Budget’ is not mentioned anywhere in the Constitution of India. Article 112 of the Constitution refers to it as the ‘Annual Financial Statement’.

• Statement 2 is correct. According to Article 280(3) of the Constitution, it is the duty of the Finance Commission to make recommendations to the President regarding the principles that should govern the grants-in-aid to the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India. These grants are provided under Article 275.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. According to Article 266 of the Constitution, all revenues received by the Government of India, all loans raised by it, and all money received by it in repayment of loans form one consolidated fund called the Consolidated Fund of India. The Public Account of India is a separate fund under the same article, where money held by the government in trust, such as provident fund deposits, is kept.

Solution: B

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