UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 13 March 2025
Kartavya Desk Staff
UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 13 March 2025 We will post 5 questions daily on static topics mentioned in the UPSC civil services preliminary examination syllabus. Each week will focus on a specific topic from the syllabus, such as History of India and Indian National Movement, Indian and World Geography, and more.We are excited to bring you our daily UPSC Static Quiz, designed to help you prepare for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination. Each day, we will post 5 questions on static topics mentioned in the UPSC syllabus. This week, we are focusing on Indian and World Geography.
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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements about the U.S. President’s pardon procedure: A pardon erases the recipient’s criminal record. Presidential clemency requires majority approval in Congress. Acceptance of a pardon is considered an admission of guilt. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1: Incorrect. A pardon relieves penalties but does not erase the criminal record. Statement 2: Incorrect. The President exercises clemency independently, without needing Congressional approval. Statement 3: Correct. The U.S. Supreme Court ruling in Burdick vs. U.S. (1915) clarified that accepting a pardon implies an admission of guilt. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1: Incorrect. A pardon relieves penalties but does not erase the criminal record. Statement 2: Incorrect. The President exercises clemency independently, without needing Congressional approval. Statement 3: Correct. The U.S. Supreme Court ruling in Burdick vs. U.S. (1915) clarified that accepting a pardon implies an admission of guilt.
#### 1. Question
Consider the following statements about the U.S. President’s pardon procedure:
• A pardon erases the recipient’s criminal record.
• Presidential clemency requires majority approval in Congress.
• Acceptance of a pardon is considered an admission of guilt.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• (c) All three
Solution: A
Statement 1: Incorrect. A pardon relieves penalties but does not erase the criminal record.
Statement 2: Incorrect. The President exercises clemency independently, without needing Congressional approval.
Statement 3: Correct. The U.S. Supreme Court ruling in Burdick vs. U.S. (1915) clarified that accepting a pardon implies an admission of guilt.
Solution: A
Statement 1: Incorrect. A pardon relieves penalties but does not erase the criminal record.
Statement 2: Incorrect. The President exercises clemency independently, without needing Congressional approval.
Statement 3: Correct. The U.S. Supreme Court ruling in Burdick vs. U.S. (1915) clarified that accepting a pardon implies an admission of guilt.
• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements about the role of the Chief Justice of India in case scheduling: The Chief Justice of India has exclusive authority over the allocation of cases to benches. The Chief Justice must consult the Supreme Court Registry before finalizing the schedule. The master of the roster principle allows the Chief Justice to determine which bench hears a particular case. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is correct: The Chief Justice has exclusive authority over allocating cases to benches as the master of the roster. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Chief Justice is not required to consult the Registry while finalizing the schedule; the Registry performs an administrative role under the CJI’s directions. Statement 3 is correct: The master of the roster principle enables the Chief Justice to decide which bench hears a particular case. About Scheduling of Cases in the Supreme Court: Who is in Charge? Chief Justice of India (CJI):Acts as the master of the roster, deciding the allocation and scheduling of cases. Supreme Court Registry:Administers filing, scrutiny, listing, and scheduling of cases. Law Governing Case Scheduling: Governed by Supreme Court Rules, 2013, outlining procedural aspects like filing, listing, and hearing. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is correct: The Chief Justice has exclusive authority over allocating cases to benches as the master of the roster. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Chief Justice is not required to consult the Registry while finalizing the schedule; the Registry performs an administrative role under the CJI’s directions. Statement 3 is correct: The master of the roster principle enables the Chief Justice to decide which bench hears a particular case. About Scheduling of Cases in the Supreme Court: Who is in Charge? Chief Justice of India (CJI):Acts as the master of the roster, deciding the allocation and scheduling of cases. Supreme Court Registry:Administers filing, scrutiny, listing, and scheduling of cases. Law Governing Case Scheduling: Governed by Supreme Court Rules, 2013, outlining procedural aspects like filing, listing, and hearing.
#### 2. Question
Consider the following statements about the role of the Chief Justice of India in case scheduling:
• The Chief Justice of India has exclusive authority over the allocation of cases to benches.
• The Chief Justice must consult the Supreme Court Registry before finalizing the schedule.
• The master of the roster principle allows the Chief Justice to determine which bench hears a particular case.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) All three
Solution: a)
Statement 1 is correct: The Chief Justice has exclusive authority over allocating cases to benches as the master of the roster.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Chief Justice is not required to consult the Registry while finalizing the schedule; the Registry performs an administrative role under the CJI’s directions.
Statement 3 is correct: The master of the roster principle enables the Chief Justice to decide which bench hears a particular case.
About Scheduling of Cases in the Supreme Court:
Who is in Charge?
• Chief Justice of India (CJI):Acts as the master of the roster, deciding the allocation and scheduling of cases.
• Supreme Court Registry:Administers filing, scrutiny, listing, and scheduling of cases.
Law Governing Case Scheduling:
• Governed by Supreme Court Rules, 2013, outlining procedural aspects like filing, listing, and hearing.
Solution: a)
Statement 1 is correct: The Chief Justice has exclusive authority over allocating cases to benches as the master of the roster.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Chief Justice is not required to consult the Registry while finalizing the schedule; the Registry performs an administrative role under the CJI’s directions.
Statement 3 is correct: The master of the roster principle enables the Chief Justice to decide which bench hears a particular case.
About Scheduling of Cases in the Supreme Court:
Who is in Charge?
• Chief Justice of India (CJI):Acts as the master of the roster, deciding the allocation and scheduling of cases.
• Supreme Court Registry:Administers filing, scrutiny, listing, and scheduling of cases.
Law Governing Case Scheduling:
• Governed by Supreme Court Rules, 2013, outlining procedural aspects like filing, listing, and hearing.
• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements about the miscellaneous and non-miscellaneous days in the Supreme Court: Non-miscellaneous days are exclusively for final hearings of cases. Miscellaneous days are used for admission and issuing notices for fresh matters. Both miscellaneous and non-miscellaneous days are governed by the Supreme Court Rules, 2013. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: c) Statement 1 is incorrect: Non-miscellaneous days are primarily used for after-notice matters and regular hearings but are not exclusively for final hearings. Statement 2 is correct: Miscellaneous days, typically Mondays and Fridays, are allocated for admission hearings and issuing notices for fresh cases. Statement 3 is correct: The procedural framework for both types of days is outlined in the Supreme Court Rules, 2013. Procedure for Case Scheduling: Filing Process:Cases are filed through the court’s e-portal or physical counter by Advocates-on-Record (AoR). Scrutiny:Cases are verified for defects by the Registry and allotted a diary number. Listing:After verification, cases are listed for hearing based on their type: Miscellaneous Days (Mondays and Fridays):Fresh matters for issuing notices. Non-Miscellaneous Days (Tuesdays to Thursdays):After-notice or regular hearing matters. Admission:Cases requiring full hearings are admitted after preliminary consideration. Hearing and Judgment:Admitted cases are scheduled for detailed hearings, leading to verdicts. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement 1 is incorrect: Non-miscellaneous days are primarily used for after-notice matters and regular hearings but are not exclusively for final hearings. Statement 2 is correct: Miscellaneous days, typically Mondays and Fridays, are allocated for admission hearings and issuing notices for fresh cases. Statement 3 is correct: The procedural framework for both types of days is outlined in the Supreme Court Rules, 2013. Procedure for Case Scheduling: Filing Process:Cases are filed through the court’s e-portal or physical counter by Advocates-on-Record (AoR). Scrutiny:Cases are verified for defects by the Registry and allotted a diary number. Listing:After verification, cases are listed for hearing based on their type: Miscellaneous Days (Mondays and Fridays):Fresh matters for issuing notices. Non-Miscellaneous Days (Tuesdays to Thursdays):After-notice or regular hearing matters. Admission:Cases requiring full hearings are admitted after preliminary consideration. Hearing and Judgment:Admitted cases are scheduled for detailed hearings, leading to verdicts.
#### 3. Question
Consider the following statements about the miscellaneous and non-miscellaneous days in the Supreme Court:
• Non-miscellaneous days are exclusively for final hearings of cases.
• Miscellaneous days are used for admission and issuing notices for fresh matters.
• Both miscellaneous and non-miscellaneous days are governed by the Supreme Court Rules, 2013.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
• b) 1 and 3 only
• c) 2 and 3 only
• d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: c)
Statement 1 is incorrect: Non-miscellaneous days are primarily used for after-notice matters and regular hearings but are not exclusively for final hearings.
Statement 2 is correct: Miscellaneous days, typically Mondays and Fridays, are allocated for admission hearings and issuing notices for fresh cases.
Statement 3 is correct: The procedural framework for both types of days is outlined in the Supreme Court Rules, 2013.
Procedure for Case Scheduling:
• Filing Process:Cases are filed through the court’s e-portal or physical counter by Advocates-on-Record (AoR).
• Scrutiny:Cases are verified for defects by the Registry and allotted a diary number.
• Listing:After verification, cases are listed for hearing based on their type:
• Miscellaneous Days (Mondays and Fridays):Fresh matters for issuing notices.
• Non-Miscellaneous Days (Tuesdays to Thursdays):After-notice or regular hearing matters.
• Admission:Cases requiring full hearings are admitted after preliminary consideration.
• Hearing and Judgment:Admitted cases are scheduled for detailed hearings, leading to verdicts.
Solution: c)
Statement 1 is incorrect: Non-miscellaneous days are primarily used for after-notice matters and regular hearings but are not exclusively for final hearings.
Statement 2 is correct: Miscellaneous days, typically Mondays and Fridays, are allocated for admission hearings and issuing notices for fresh cases.
Statement 3 is correct: The procedural framework for both types of days is outlined in the Supreme Court Rules, 2013.
Procedure for Case Scheduling:
• Filing Process:Cases are filed through the court’s e-portal or physical counter by Advocates-on-Record (AoR).
• Scrutiny:Cases are verified for defects by the Registry and allotted a diary number.
• Listing:After verification, cases are listed for hearing based on their type:
• Miscellaneous Days (Mondays and Fridays):Fresh matters for issuing notices.
• Non-Miscellaneous Days (Tuesdays to Thursdays):After-notice or regular hearing matters.
• Admission:Cases requiring full hearings are admitted after preliminary consideration.
• Hearing and Judgment:Admitted cases are scheduled for detailed hearings, leading to verdicts.
• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements about the removal of the Deputy Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha: It is governed by Article 67(b) of the Constitution. It requires a joint session of Parliament for approval. The motion must be submitted with at least 7 days’ notice. A no-trust motion must secure a simple majority in the Rajya Sabha to succeed. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 90, not Article 67(b), governs the removal of the Deputy Chairperson. Statement 2 is incorrect: A joint session is not required for the removal of the Deputy Chairperson. Statement 3 is incorrect: A 14-day notice, not 7 days, is required to initiate the motion. Statement 4 is correct: A simple majority in the Rajya Sabha is sufficient for the motion to succeed. What is a No-Trust Motion? A procedural tool to express a lack of confidence in the presiding officerof a House. Aimed at holding leaders accountable and upholding parliamentary integrity. Constitutional Article: Article 67(b):Governs the removal of the Vice-President and Rajya Sabha Chairperson. Article 90:Pertains to the removal of the Deputy Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha. Rules and Procedure: Notice Requirement:Must be submitted with at least 14 days’ notice. Majority Vote:Requires a majority of votes in the Rajya Sabha to pass. Concurrence of Lok Sabha:The motion must also be approved by the Lok Sabha for removal. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 90, not Article 67(b), governs the removal of the Deputy Chairperson. Statement 2 is incorrect: A joint session is not required for the removal of the Deputy Chairperson. Statement 3 is incorrect: A 14-day notice, not 7 days, is required to initiate the motion. Statement 4 is correct: A simple majority in the Rajya Sabha is sufficient for the motion to succeed. What is a No-Trust Motion? A procedural tool to express a lack of confidence in the presiding officerof a House. Aimed at holding leaders accountable and upholding parliamentary integrity. Constitutional Article: Article 67(b):Governs the removal of the Vice-President and Rajya Sabha Chairperson. Article 90:Pertains to the removal of the Deputy Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha. Rules and Procedure: Notice Requirement:Must be submitted with at least 14 days’ notice. Majority Vote:Requires a majority of votes in the Rajya Sabha to pass. Concurrence of Lok Sabha:The motion must also be approved by the Lok Sabha for removal.
#### 4. Question
Consider the following statements about the removal of the Deputy Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha:
• It is governed by Article 67(b) of the Constitution.
• It requires a joint session of Parliament for approval.
• The motion must be submitted with at least 7 days’ notice.
• A no-trust motion must secure a simple majority in the Rajya Sabha to succeed.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
• a) Only one
• b) Only two
• c) Only three
• d) All four
Solution: a)
Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 90, not Article 67(b), governs the removal of the Deputy Chairperson.
Statement 2 is incorrect: A joint session is not required for the removal of the Deputy Chairperson.
Statement 3 is incorrect: A 14-day notice, not 7 days, is required to initiate the motion.
Statement 4 is correct: A simple majority in the Rajya Sabha is sufficient for the motion to succeed.
What is a No-Trust Motion?
• A procedural tool to express a lack of confidence in the presiding officerof a House.
• Aimed at holding leaders accountable and upholding parliamentary integrity.
Constitutional Article:
• Article 67(b):Governs the removal of the Vice-President and Rajya Sabha Chairperson.
• Article 90:Pertains to the removal of the Deputy Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.
Rules and Procedure:
• Notice Requirement:Must be submitted with at least 14 days’ notice.
• Majority Vote:Requires a majority of votes in the Rajya Sabha to pass.
• Concurrence of Lok Sabha:The motion must also be approved by the Lok Sabha for removal.
Solution: a)
Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 90, not Article 67(b), governs the removal of the Deputy Chairperson.
Statement 2 is incorrect: A joint session is not required for the removal of the Deputy Chairperson.
Statement 3 is incorrect: A 14-day notice, not 7 days, is required to initiate the motion.
Statement 4 is correct: A simple majority in the Rajya Sabha is sufficient for the motion to succeed.
What is a No-Trust Motion?
• A procedural tool to express a lack of confidence in the presiding officerof a House.
• Aimed at holding leaders accountable and upholding parliamentary integrity.
Constitutional Article:
• Article 67(b):Governs the removal of the Vice-President and Rajya Sabha Chairperson.
• Article 90:Pertains to the removal of the Deputy Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.
Rules and Procedure:
• Notice Requirement:Must be submitted with at least 14 days’ notice.
• Majority Vote:Requires a majority of votes in the Rajya Sabha to pass.
• Concurrence of Lok Sabha:The motion must also be approved by the Lok Sabha for removal.
• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements about laws addressing house disruptions in India: Article 105 protects Members of Parliament from legal proceedings for any speech or behavior inside the House. The Code of Conduct for Members mandates ethical behavior but does not have statutory backing. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: a) Laws Addressing House Disruptions in India Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business:Grant presiding officers’ authority to maintain decorum. Article 105 (Privileges):Protects MPs’ freedom of speech but not unruly behaviour. Code of Conduct for Members:Emphasizes ethical and disciplined behaviour. Rule 374(A) of Lok Sabha:Allows for automatic suspension of members engaging in grave misconduct. Incorrect Solution: a) Laws Addressing House Disruptions in India Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business:Grant presiding officers’ authority to maintain decorum. Article 105 (Privileges):Protects MPs’ freedom of speech but not unruly behaviour. Code of Conduct for Members:Emphasizes ethical and disciplined behaviour. Rule 374(A) of Lok Sabha:Allows for automatic suspension of members engaging in grave misconduct.
#### 5. Question
Consider the following statements about laws addressing house disruptions in India:
• Article 105 protects Members of Parliament from legal proceedings for any speech or behavior inside the House.
• The Code of Conduct for Members mandates ethical behavior but does not have statutory backing.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
• c) Both 1 and 2
• d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
Laws Addressing House Disruptions in India
• Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business:Grant presiding officers’ authority to maintain decorum.
• Article 105 (Privileges):Protects MPs’ freedom of speech but not unruly behaviour.
• Code of Conduct for Members:Emphasizes ethical and disciplined behaviour.
• Rule 374(A) of Lok Sabha:Allows for automatic suspension of members engaging in grave misconduct.
Solution: a)
Laws Addressing House Disruptions in India
• Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business:Grant presiding officers’ authority to maintain decorum.
• Article 105 (Privileges):Protects MPs’ freedom of speech but not unruly behaviour.
• Code of Conduct for Members:Emphasizes ethical and disciplined behaviour.
• Rule 374(A) of Lok Sabha:Allows for automatic suspension of members engaging in grave misconduct.
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