UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 12 March 2026

UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 12 March 2026 We will post 5 questions daily on static topics mentioned in the UPSC civil services preliminary examination syllabus. Each week will focus on a specific topic from the syllabus, such as History of India and Indian National Movement, Indian and World Geography, and more. We are excited to bring you our daily UPSC Static Quiz, designed to help you prepare for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination. Each day, we will post 5 questions on static topics mentioned in the UPSC syllabus. This week, we are focusing on Indian and World Geography.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Match List-I with List-II and the lists: List-I (Constitutional Provision) List-II (Subject Matter) A. Article 261 1. Freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse B. Article 262 2. Adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-state rivers C. Article 263 3. Public acts, records and judicial proceedings D. Article 301 4. Provisions with respect to an Inter-State Council Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1 (b) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3 (c) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1 (d) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3 Correct Solution: A Article 261 deals with ‘Public acts, records and judicial proceedings’. It contains the “Full Faith and Credit” clause, which mandates that due recognition be given throughout the territory of India to the public acts, records, and judicial proceedings of the Union and of every State. This corresponds to List-II, item 3. Article 262 empowers Parliament to provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution or control of the waters of any inter-state river or river valley. It also allows Parliament to bar the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and other courts in respect of such disputes. This corresponds to List-II, item 2. Article 263 empowers the President to establish an Inter-State Council if it appears that the public interest would be served by its establishment. The council is charged with the duty of inquiring into and advising upon disputes, investigating subjects of common interest, and making recommendations. This corresponds to List-II, item 4. Article 301 declares that “subject to the other provisions of this Part, trade, commerce and intercourse throughout the territory of India shall be free.” This lays down the general principle of freedom of inter-state and intra-state trade. This corresponds to List-II, item 1. Incorrect Solution: A Article 261 deals with ‘Public acts, records and judicial proceedings’. It contains the “Full Faith and Credit” clause, which mandates that due recognition be given throughout the territory of India to the public acts, records, and judicial proceedings of the Union and of every State. This corresponds to List-II, item 3. Article 262 empowers Parliament to provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution or control of the waters of any inter-state river or river valley. It also allows Parliament to bar the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and other courts in respect of such disputes. This corresponds to List-II, item 2. Article 263 empowers the President to establish an Inter-State Council if it appears that the public interest would be served by its establishment. The council is charged with the duty of inquiring into and advising upon disputes, investigating subjects of common interest, and making recommendations. This corresponds to List-II, item 4. Article 301 declares that “subject to the other provisions of this Part, trade, commerce and intercourse throughout the territory of India shall be free.” This lays down the general principle of freedom of inter-state and intra-state trade. This corresponds to List-II, item 1.

#### 1. Question

Match List-I with List-II and the lists:

List-I (Constitutional Provision) | List-II (Subject Matter)

A. Article 261 | 1. Freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse

B. Article 262 | 2. Adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-state rivers

C. Article 263 | 3. Public acts, records and judicial proceedings

D. Article 301 | 4. Provisions with respect to an Inter-State Council

Select the correct answer using the code given below

• (a) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

• (b) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3

• (c) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

• (d) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

Solution: A

• Article 261 deals with ‘Public acts, records and judicial proceedings’. It contains the “Full Faith and Credit” clause, which mandates that due recognition be given throughout the territory of India to the public acts, records, and judicial proceedings of the Union and of every State. This corresponds to List-II, item 3.

• Article 262 empowers Parliament to provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution or control of the waters of any inter-state river or river valley. It also allows Parliament to bar the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and other courts in respect of such disputes. This corresponds to List-II, item 2.

• Article 263 empowers the President to establish an Inter-State Council if it appears that the public interest would be served by its establishment. The council is charged with the duty of inquiring into and advising upon disputes, investigating subjects of common interest, and making recommendations. This corresponds to List-II, item 4.

• Article 301 declares that “subject to the other provisions of this Part, trade, commerce and intercourse throughout the territory of India shall be free.” This lays down the general principle of freedom of inter-state and intra-state trade. This corresponds to List-II, item 1.

Solution: A

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Discretionary Powers’ of the Governor: The Constitution of India explicitly defines the discretionary powers of the Governor under Article 163. The decision of the Governor in his discretion shall be final, and the validity of anything done by him shall not be called in question on the ground that he ought or ought not to have acted in his discretion. The Supreme Court in the Nabam Rebiacase held that the Governor’s power to summon the House under Article 174 is a discretionary power. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is Incorrect:While Article 163(1) mentions that the Governor acts on aid and advice “except in so far as he is by or under this Constitution required to exercise his functions… in his discretion,” the Constitution does not explicitly define or list all discretionary powers (except specific ones like 371-A). The scope of “discretion” is a matter of interpretation. Statement 2 is Correct:Article 163(2) explicitly states: “If any question arises whether any matter is… one with respect to which the Governor is… required to act in his discretion, the decision of the Governor in his discretion shall be final, and the validity of anything done… shall not be called in question…” This gives the Governor constitutional immunity in this regard, though subject to judicial review for mala fide. Statement 3 is Incorrect:This is the critical Nabam Rebia (2016) ruling. The SC held that the Governor’s power to summon, prorogue, or dissolve the House under Article 174 is NOT discretionary. It must be exercised on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers. The Governor cannot summon the House on his own to test the majority unless the government has clearly lost its majority. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is Incorrect:While Article 163(1) mentions that the Governor acts on aid and advice “except in so far as he is by or under this Constitution required to exercise his functions… in his discretion,” the Constitution does not explicitly define or list all discretionary powers (except specific ones like 371-A). The scope of “discretion” is a matter of interpretation. Statement 2 is Correct:Article 163(2) explicitly states: “If any question arises whether any matter is… one with respect to which the Governor is… required to act in his discretion, the decision of the Governor in his discretion shall be final, and the validity of anything done… shall not be called in question…” This gives the Governor constitutional immunity in this regard, though subject to judicial review for mala fide. Statement 3 is Incorrect:This is the critical Nabam Rebia (2016) ruling. The SC held that the Governor’s power to summon, prorogue, or dissolve the House under Article 174 is NOT discretionary. It must be exercised on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers. The Governor cannot summon the House on his own to test the majority unless the government has clearly lost its majority.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Discretionary Powers’ of the Governor:

• The Constitution of India explicitly defines the discretionary powers of the Governor under Article 163.

• The decision of the Governor in his discretion shall be final, and the validity of anything done by him shall not be called in question on the ground that he ought or ought not to have acted in his discretion.

• The Supreme Court in the Nabam Rebiacase held that the Governor’s power to summon the House under Article 174 is a discretionary power.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is Incorrect:While Article 163(1) mentions that the Governor acts on aid and advice “except in so far as he is by or under this Constitution required to exercise his functions… in his discretion,” the Constitution does not explicitly define or list all discretionary powers (except specific ones like 371-A). The scope of “discretion” is a matter of interpretation.

• Statement 2 is Correct:Article 163(2) explicitly states: “If any question arises whether any matter is… one with respect to which the Governor is… required to act in his discretion, the decision of the Governor in his discretion shall be final, and the validity of anything done… shall not be called in question…” This gives the Governor constitutional immunity in this regard, though subject to judicial review for mala fide.

• Statement 3 is Incorrect:This is the critical Nabam Rebia (2016) ruling. The SC held that the Governor’s power to summon, prorogue, or dissolve the House under Article 174 is NOT discretionary. It must be exercised on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers. The Governor cannot summon the House on his own to test the majority unless the government has clearly lost its majority.

Solution: A

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Preamble’ of the Constitution: The Preamble is not a part of the Constitution. The Preamble is non-justiciable, meaning its provisions are not enforceable in courts of law. The Preamble can be amended by Parliament under Article 368. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is Incorrect:In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court rejected the earlier opinion (in Berubari Union) and held that the Preamble IS an integral part of the Constitution. Statement 2 is Correct:The Preamble is non-justiciable. You cannot file a case merely on the grounds that a government action violates the “spirit” of the Preamble (e.g., ‘Socialist’) unless a specific substantive article is violated. Statement 3 is Correct:As a part of the Constitution, the Preamble can be amended under Article 368, provided the amendment does not destroy the Basic Structure. It has been amended once (42nd Amendment, 1976). Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is Incorrect:In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court rejected the earlier opinion (in Berubari Union) and held that the Preamble IS an integral part of the Constitution. Statement 2 is Correct:The Preamble is non-justiciable. You cannot file a case merely on the grounds that a government action violates the “spirit” of the Preamble (e.g., ‘Socialist’) unless a specific substantive article is violated. Statement 3 is Correct:As a part of the Constitution, the Preamble can be amended under Article 368, provided the amendment does not destroy the Basic Structure. It has been amended once (42nd Amendment, 1976).

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Preamble’ of the Constitution:

• The Preamble is not a part of the Constitution.

• The Preamble is non-justiciable, meaning its provisions are not enforceable in courts of law.

• The Preamble can be amended by Parliament under Article 368.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is Incorrect:In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court rejected the earlier opinion (in Berubari Union) and held that the Preamble IS an integral part of the Constitution.

• Statement 2 is Correct:The Preamble is non-justiciable. You cannot file a case merely on the grounds that a government action violates the “spirit” of the Preamble (e.g., ‘Socialist’) unless a specific substantive article is violated.

• Statement 3 is Correct:As a part of the Constitution, the Preamble can be amended under Article 368, provided the amendment does not destroy the Basic Structure. It has been amended once (42nd Amendment, 1976).

Solution: B

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Match the following ‘Writs’ with their specific conditions of issue: Writ Condition (A) Mandamus (1) Issued against a person holding a public office to which he is not entitled. (B) Quo-Warranto (2) Issued to a lower court to transfer a case to a higher court or to quash an order. (C) Certiorari (3) Issued to a public official asking him to perform his official duties. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) A-3, B-1, C-2 (b) A-1, B-2, C-3 (c) A-3, B-2, C-1 (d) A-2, B-1, C-3 Correct Solution: A Mandamus literally means “we command.” It is issued by a higher court directing a public authority, government body, or public official to perform a duty that the law requires them to perform but which they have failed or refused to do. It cannot be issued against a private individual or to enforce purely private obligations. Quo-Warranto means “by what authority.” This writ is issued when a person occupies a public office without legal authority. The court asks the individual to show the legal basis for holding that office. If the person cannot justify it, the court may remove them from that position. Certiorari is issued by a higher court to review the order of a lower court or tribunal when it has acted without jurisdiction, exceeded jurisdiction, or violated principles of natural justice. The higher court may quash the impugned order and sometimes transfer the case for proper adjudication. Incorrect Solution: A Mandamus literally means “we command.” It is issued by a higher court directing a public authority, government body, or public official to perform a duty that the law requires them to perform but which they have failed or refused to do. It cannot be issued against a private individual or to enforce purely private obligations. Quo-Warranto means “by what authority.” This writ is issued when a person occupies a public office without legal authority. The court asks the individual to show the legal basis for holding that office. If the person cannot justify it, the court may remove them from that position. Certiorari is issued by a higher court to review the order of a lower court or tribunal when it has acted without jurisdiction, exceeded jurisdiction, or violated principles of natural justice. The higher court may quash the impugned order and sometimes transfer the case for proper adjudication.

#### 4. Question

Match the following ‘Writs’ with their specific conditions of issue:

Writ | Condition

(A) Mandamus | (1) Issued against a person holding a public office to which he is not entitled.

(B) Quo-Warranto | (2) Issued to a lower court to transfer a case to a higher court or to quash an order.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) A-3, B-1, C-2

• (b) A-1, B-2, C-3

• (c) A-3, B-2, C-1

• (d) A-2, B-1, C-3

Solution: A

• Mandamus literally means “we command.” It is issued by a higher court directing a public authority, government body, or public official to perform a duty that the law requires them to perform but which they have failed or refused to do. It cannot be issued against a private individual or to enforce purely private obligations.

• Quo-Warranto means “by what authority.” This writ is issued when a person occupies a public office without legal authority. The court asks the individual to show the legal basis for holding that office. If the person cannot justify it, the court may remove them from that position.

• Certiorari is issued by a higher court to review the order of a lower court or tribunal when it has acted without jurisdiction, exceeded jurisdiction, or violated principles of natural justice. The higher court may quash the impugned order and sometimes transfer the case for proper adjudication.

Solution: A

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question With reference to the ‘Republic’ character of India, consider the following statements: In a Republic, the Head of the State is always elected directly by the people for a fixed period. The term ‘Republic’ in the Preamble implies that political sovereignty is vested in the people rather than in a single individual like a King. The absence of any privileged class in a public office is a necessary condition for a state to be called a Republic. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect: While a Republic must have an elected Head of State (unlike a Monarchy), the election need not be direct. In India, the President is elected indirectly by an electoral college comprising elected members of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies (Article 54). The US President is also effectively elected indirectly (Electoral College). The key is the elective nature, not the method of election. Statement 2 is correct: The term ‘Republic’ signifies that the source of all authority is the people (“We the People”). Political sovereignty resides in the citizenry, distinguishing it from a monarchy where sovereignty might reside in the Crown. Statement 3 is correct: An essential feature of a Republic is that all public offices, from the highest (President) to the lowest, are open to every citizen without discrimination. There is no hereditary ruling class or privileged aristocracy. This ensures the principle of equality, which is intrinsic to the republican ethos. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect: While a Republic must have an elected Head of State (unlike a Monarchy), the election need not be direct. In India, the President is elected indirectly by an electoral college comprising elected members of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies (Article 54). The US President is also effectively elected indirectly (Electoral College). The key is the elective nature, not the method of election. Statement 2 is correct: The term ‘Republic’ signifies that the source of all authority is the people (“We the People”). Political sovereignty resides in the citizenry, distinguishing it from a monarchy where sovereignty might reside in the Crown. Statement 3 is correct: An essential feature of a Republic is that all public offices, from the highest (President) to the lowest, are open to every citizen without discrimination. There is no hereditary ruling class or privileged aristocracy. This ensures the principle of equality, which is intrinsic to the republican ethos.

#### 5. Question

With reference to the ‘Republic’ character of India, consider the following statements:

• In a Republic, the Head of the State is always elected directly by the people for a fixed period.

• The term ‘Republic’ in the Preamble implies that political sovereignty is vested in the people rather than in a single individual like a King.

• The absence of any privileged class in a public office is a necessary condition for a state to be called a Republic.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect: While a Republic must have an elected Head of State (unlike a Monarchy), the election need not be direct. In India, the President is elected indirectly by an electoral college comprising elected members of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies (Article 54). The US President is also effectively elected indirectly (Electoral College). The key is the elective nature, not the method of election.

• Statement 2 is correct: The term ‘Republic’ signifies that the source of all authority is the people (“We the People”). Political sovereignty resides in the citizenry, distinguishing it from a monarchy where sovereignty might reside in the Crown.

• Statement 3 is correct: An essential feature of a Republic is that all public offices, from the highest (President) to the lowest, are open to every citizen without discrimination. There is no hereditary ruling class or privileged aristocracy. This ensures the principle of equality, which is intrinsic to the republican ethos.

Solution: B

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