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UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 12 March 2025

Kartavya Desk Staff

UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 12 March 2025 We will post 5 questions daily on static topics mentioned in the UPSC civil services preliminary examination syllabus. Each week will focus on a specific topic from the syllabus, such as History of India and Indian National Movement, Indian and World Geography, and more.We are excited to bring you our daily UPSC Static Quiz, designed to help you prepare for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination. Each day, we will post 5 questions on static topics mentioned in the UPSC syllabus. This week, we are focusing on Indian and World Geography.

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Participating in daily quizzes helps reinforce your knowledge and identify areas that need improvement. Regular practice will enhance your recall abilities and boost your confidence for the examination. By covering various topics throughout the week, you ensure a comprehensive revision of the syllabus.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements about the principles and conventions related to the appointment of the Chief Justice of India: The Chief Justice of India can be appointed for a second term, subject to Presidential discretion. The principle of seniority is a constitutional mandate for appointing the Chief Justice. The principle of seniority has evolved as a convention and is guided by the Memorandum of Procedure (MoP). How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect because there is no provision for reappointment or a second term for the Chief Justice of India. Once a CJI retires at the age of 65, they are no longer eligible for reappointment. Statement 2 is incorrect because the principle of seniority is not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution. It has developed as a convention, and while it is a key consideration, the President technically has the power to appoint any qualified judge. Statement 3 is correct because the seniority principle has evolved as a convention and is articulated through the Memorandum of Procedure (MoP), which guides the selection process of the CJI. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect because there is no provision for reappointment or a second term for the Chief Justice of India. Once a CJI retires at the age of 65, they are no longer eligible for reappointment. Statement 2 is incorrect because the principle of seniority is not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution. It has developed as a convention, and while it is a key consideration, the President technically has the power to appoint any qualified judge. Statement 3 is correct because the seniority principle has evolved as a convention and is articulated through the Memorandum of Procedure (MoP), which guides the selection process of the CJI.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements about the principles and conventions related to the appointment of the Chief Justice of India:

• The Chief Justice of India can be appointed for a second term, subject to Presidential discretion.

• The principle of seniority is a constitutional mandate for appointing the Chief Justice.

• The principle of seniority has evolved as a convention and is guided by the Memorandum of Procedure (MoP).

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect because there is no provision for reappointment or a second term for the Chief Justice of India. Once a CJI retires at the age of 65, they are no longer eligible for reappointment.

• Statement 2 is incorrect because the principle of seniority is not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution. It has developed as a convention, and while it is a key consideration, the President technically has the power to appoint any qualified judge.

Statement 3 is correct because the seniority principle has evolved as a convention and is articulated through the Memorandum of Procedure (MoP), which guides the selection process of the CJI.

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect because there is no provision for reappointment or a second term for the Chief Justice of India. Once a CJI retires at the age of 65, they are no longer eligible for reappointment.

• Statement 2 is incorrect because the principle of seniority is not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution. It has developed as a convention, and while it is a key consideration, the President technically has the power to appoint any qualified judge.

Statement 3 is correct because the seniority principle has evolved as a convention and is articulated through the Memorandum of Procedure (MoP), which guides the selection process of the CJI.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question With respect to the Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) feature in EVMs, consider the following statements: VVPAT provides a printed slip with the name of the candidate the voter has selected. The printed slip can be retained by the voter for future reference. VVPAT is used as an audit mechanism to verify the electronic vote. VVPAT was introduced to increase transparency and reduce doubts about EVM accuracy. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 1, 3, and 4 only c) 1, 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: b) VVPAT provides a printed slip with the candidate’s name, visible to the voter for a few seconds before it drops into a sealed compartment. It serves as an audit trail to cross-check the accuracy of the electronic vote, enhancing transparency. Statement 2 is incorrect because the voter cannot retain the slip; it is stored for auditing purposes by election officials. Incorrect Solution: b) VVPAT provides a printed slip with the candidate’s name, visible to the voter for a few seconds before it drops into a sealed compartment. It serves as an audit trail to cross-check the accuracy of the electronic vote, enhancing transparency. Statement 2 is incorrect because the voter cannot retain the slip; it is stored for auditing purposes by election officials.

#### 2. Question

With respect to the Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) feature in EVMs, consider the following statements:

• VVPAT provides a printed slip with the name of the candidate the voter has selected.

• The printed slip can be retained by the voter for future reference.

• VVPAT is used as an audit mechanism to verify the electronic vote.

• VVPAT was introduced to increase transparency and reduce doubts about EVM accuracy.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 1, 3, and 4 only

• c) 1, 2 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: b)

VVPAT provides a printed slip with the candidate’s name, visible to the voter for a few seconds before it drops into a sealed compartment. It serves as an audit trail to cross-check the accuracy of the electronic vote, enhancing transparency.

Statement 2 is incorrect because the voter cannot retain the slip; it is stored for auditing purposes by election officials.

Solution: b)

VVPAT provides a printed slip with the candidate’s name, visible to the voter for a few seconds before it drops into a sealed compartment. It serves as an audit trail to cross-check the accuracy of the electronic vote, enhancing transparency.

Statement 2 is incorrect because the voter cannot retain the slip; it is stored for auditing purposes by election officials.

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Regarding the security and functionality of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs), consider the following statements: EVMs use encrypted memory to securely store vote data. They rely on the internet for vote counting and transmission. Backup power ensures that EVMs function in areas with no electricity supply. EVMs are tamper-proof, and the recorded data cannot be altered. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: c) EVMs store vote data in encrypted memory, providing security and making it tamper-resistant. The backup power feature ensures EVM functionality even in areas lacking electricity. However, statement 2 is incorrect, as EVMs are standalone devices and do not connect to the internet, which prevents unauthorized access and remote tampering. Incorrect Solution: c) EVMs store vote data in encrypted memory, providing security and making it tamper-resistant. The backup power feature ensures EVM functionality even in areas lacking electricity. However, statement 2 is incorrect, as EVMs are standalone devices and do not connect to the internet, which prevents unauthorized access and remote tampering.

#### 3. Question

Regarding the security and functionality of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs), consider the following statements:

• EVMs use encrypted memory to securely store vote data.

• They rely on the internet for vote counting and transmission.

• Backup power ensures that EVMs function in areas with no electricity supply.

• EVMs are tamper-proof, and the recorded data cannot be altered.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: c)

EVMs store vote data in encrypted memory, providing security and making it tamper-resistant. The backup power feature ensures EVM functionality even in areas lacking electricity.

However, statement 2 is incorrect, as EVMs are standalone devices and do not connect to the internet, which prevents unauthorized access and remote tampering.

Solution: c)

EVMs store vote data in encrypted memory, providing security and making it tamper-resistant. The backup power feature ensures EVM functionality even in areas lacking electricity.

However, statement 2 is incorrect, as EVMs are standalone devices and do not connect to the internet, which prevents unauthorized access and remote tampering.

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question What did the Supreme Court recently rule regarding the interpretation of “material resources of the community” under Article 39(b) of the Indian Constitution? a) The Directive Principles of State Policy mandate that all resources, public or private, be used for state welfare. b) Only publicly owned resources can be considered material resources of the community. c) Not all private properties can be classified as material resources of the community. d) All private property is automatically classified as material resources of the community. Correct Solution: c) In its recent decision, the Supreme Court clarified that not all private properties fall under the classification of “material resources of the community” as per Article 39(b). This judgment restricts the scope of state control over privately owned assets, implying that only certain resources can be regarded as benefiting the common good. Incorrect Solution: c) In its recent decision, the Supreme Court clarified that not all private properties fall under the classification of “material resources of the community” as per Article 39(b). This judgment restricts the scope of state control over privately owned assets, implying that only certain resources can be regarded as benefiting the common good.

#### 4. Question

What did the Supreme Court recently rule regarding the interpretation of “material resources of the community” under Article 39(b) of the Indian Constitution?

• a) The Directive Principles of State Policy mandate that all resources, public or private, be used for state welfare.

• b) Only publicly owned resources can be considered material resources of the community.

• c) Not all private properties can be classified as material resources of the community.

• d) All private property is automatically classified as material resources of the community.

Solution: c)

In its recent decision, the Supreme Court clarified that not all private properties fall under the classification of “material resources of the community” as per Article 39(b). This judgment restricts the scope of state control over privately owned assets, implying that only certain resources can be regarded as benefiting the common good.

Solution: c)

In its recent decision, the Supreme Court clarified that not all private properties fall under the classification of “material resources of the community” as per Article 39(b). This judgment restricts the scope of state control over privately owned assets, implying that only certain resources can be regarded as benefiting the common good.

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements regarding constitutional provisions for minority institutions in India: Article 28 allows religious instruction in all educational institutions, including those funded by the state. Article 30(1) grants minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. Minority institutions are exempt from all forms of government regulation to preserve autonomy. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: a) Only Statement 2 is correct. Article 30(1) of the Indian Constitution indeed grants minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice, safeguarding their cultural and educational rights. Statement 1 is incorrect because Article 28 restricts religious instruction in state-funded institutions but permits it in minority institutions not maintained by the state. Statement 3 is also incorrect; minority institutions do enjoy a degree of autonomy, but they are still subject to national standards for quality and other regulatory frameworks to ensure compliance with the country’s educational standards. Incorrect Solution: a) Only Statement 2 is correct. Article 30(1) of the Indian Constitution indeed grants minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice, safeguarding their cultural and educational rights. Statement 1 is incorrect because Article 28 restricts religious instruction in state-funded institutions but permits it in minority institutions not maintained by the state. Statement 3 is also incorrect; minority institutions do enjoy a degree of autonomy, but they are still subject to national standards for quality and other regulatory frameworks to ensure compliance with the country’s educational standards.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding constitutional provisions for minority institutions in India:

• Article 28 allows religious instruction in all educational institutions, including those funded by the state.

• Article 30(1) grants minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.

• Minority institutions are exempt from all forms of government regulation to preserve autonomy.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: a)

Only Statement 2 is correct.

Article 30(1) of the Indian Constitution indeed grants minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice, safeguarding their cultural and educational rights.

Statement 1 is incorrect because Article 28 restricts religious instruction in state-funded institutions but permits it in minority institutions not maintained by the state.

Statement 3 is also incorrect; minority institutions do enjoy a degree of autonomy, but they are still subject to national standards for quality and other regulatory frameworks to ensure compliance with the country’s educational standards.

Solution: a)

Only Statement 2 is correct.

Article 30(1) of the Indian Constitution indeed grants minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice, safeguarding their cultural and educational rights.

Statement 1 is incorrect because Article 28 restricts religious instruction in state-funded institutions but permits it in minority institutions not maintained by the state.

Statement 3 is also incorrect; minority institutions do enjoy a degree of autonomy, but they are still subject to national standards for quality and other regulatory frameworks to ensure compliance with the country’s educational standards.

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