UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 10 September 2025

UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 10 September 2025 We will post 5 questions daily on static topics mentioned in the UPSC civil services preliminary examination syllabus. Each week will focus on a specific topic from the syllabus, such as History of India and Indian National Movement, Indian and World Geography, and more.We are excited to bring you our daily UPSC Static Quiz, designed to help you prepare for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination. Each day, we will post 5 questions on static topics mentioned in the UPSC syllabus. This week, we are focusing on Indian and World Geography.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question The philosophical underpinnings of the Indian Constitution, as reflected in the Constituent Assembly debates, drew heavily from: Western liberal democratic traditions emphasizing individual rights and representative government. Gandhian ideals focusing on decentralized village republics and moral values in politics. Socialist principles advocating for state intervention to reduce socio-economic inequalities. Ancient Indian political thought and traditions of governance. How many of the above sources significantly influenced the philosophical foundations? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: D The philosophical foundations of the Indian Constitution are a rich tapestry woven from multiple influences, extensively discussed in the Constituent Assembly. Western liberal democratic traditions were a major influence, evident in the adoption of parliamentary democracy, fundamental rights (inspired by the US Bill of Rights), rule of law, and an independent judiciary. Gandhian ideals, though not adopted in their entirety (e.g., the strong centralized state vs. village republics), significantly influenced provisions like Directive Principles related to Panchayati Raj (Article 40), promotion of cottage industries, and upliftment of weaker sections. The emphasis on truth and non-violence also permeated the spirit of the freedom struggle that shaped the constitution-makers. Socialist principles also found expression, particularly in the Directive Principles aiming to secure social and economic justice, equitable distribution of resources, and prevention of concentration of wealth. The term ‘Socialist’ was later added to the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment. Ancient Indian political thought and traditions, such as concepts of ‘Dharma’ (righteousness/duty), consensus-based decision-making (though not directly translated into structures), and ideals of a just ruler, provided a cultural and ethical backdrop. While not always explicitly cited for specific articles, the ethos of tolerance, pluralism, and justice has roots in Indian traditions. Incorrect Solution: D The philosophical foundations of the Indian Constitution are a rich tapestry woven from multiple influences, extensively discussed in the Constituent Assembly. Western liberal democratic traditions were a major influence, evident in the adoption of parliamentary democracy, fundamental rights (inspired by the US Bill of Rights), rule of law, and an independent judiciary. Gandhian ideals, though not adopted in their entirety (e.g., the strong centralized state vs. village republics), significantly influenced provisions like Directive Principles related to Panchayati Raj (Article 40), promotion of cottage industries, and upliftment of weaker sections. The emphasis on truth and non-violence also permeated the spirit of the freedom struggle that shaped the constitution-makers. Socialist principles also found expression, particularly in the Directive Principles aiming to secure social and economic justice, equitable distribution of resources, and prevention of concentration of wealth. The term ‘Socialist’ was later added to the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment. Ancient Indian political thought and traditions, such as concepts of ‘Dharma’ (righteousness/duty), consensus-based decision-making (though not directly translated into structures), and ideals of a just ruler, provided a cultural and ethical backdrop. While not always explicitly cited for specific articles, the ethos of tolerance, pluralism, and justice has roots in Indian traditions.

#### 1. Question

The philosophical underpinnings of the Indian Constitution, as reflected in the Constituent Assembly debates, drew heavily from:

• Western liberal democratic traditions emphasizing individual rights and representative government.

• Gandhian ideals focusing on decentralized village republics and moral values in politics.

• Socialist principles advocating for state intervention to reduce socio-economic inequalities.

• Ancient Indian political thought and traditions of governance.

How many of the above sources significantly influenced the philosophical foundations?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: D

The philosophical foundations of the Indian Constitution are a rich tapestry woven from multiple influences, extensively discussed in the Constituent Assembly.

• Western liberal democratic traditions were a major influence, evident in the adoption of parliamentary democracy, fundamental rights (inspired by the US Bill of Rights), rule of law, and an independent judiciary.

• Gandhian ideals, though not adopted in their entirety (e.g., the strong centralized state vs. village republics), significantly influenced provisions like Directive Principles related to Panchayati Raj (Article 40), promotion of cottage industries, and upliftment of weaker sections. The emphasis on truth and non-violence also permeated the spirit of the freedom struggle that shaped the constitution-makers.

• Socialist principles also found expression, particularly in the Directive Principles aiming to secure social and economic justice, equitable distribution of resources, and prevention of concentration of wealth. The term ‘Socialist’ was later added to the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment.

• Ancient Indian political thought and traditions, such as concepts of ‘Dharma’ (righteousness/duty), consensus-based decision-making (though not directly translated into structures), and ideals of a just ruler, provided a cultural and ethical backdrop. While not always explicitly cited for specific articles, the ethos of tolerance, pluralism, and justice has roots in Indian traditions.

Solution: D

The philosophical foundations of the Indian Constitution are a rich tapestry woven from multiple influences, extensively discussed in the Constituent Assembly.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Which of the following statements accurately reflects the scope of Article 29(2) of the Indian Constitution? (a) It prohibits denial of admission into any educational institution on grounds only of religion, race, caste, or language. (b) It prohibits denial of admission into any educational institution maintained by the State or receiving aid out of State funds on grounds only of religion, race, caste, or language. (c) It grants minorities the right to reserve seats for their community members in educational institutions established and administered by them. (d) It mandates that all educational institutions must provide instruction in the mother tongue of linguistic minorities. Correct Solution: B Article 29(2) of the Indian Constitution states: “No citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State or receiving aid out of State funds on grounds only of religion, race, caste, language or any of them“. Option (a) is too broad as it refers to “any educational institution” without the qualification of being state-maintained or state-aided. Article 29(2) applies specifically to institutions maintained by the State or receiving aid from State funds. Option (b) accurately reflects the provision by including the crucial qualifier that the educational institution must be “maintained by the State or receiving aid out of State funds.” Option (c) relates more to the rights under Article 30, which allows minorities to establish and administer educational institutions. While they can give preference to their community members, Article 29(2) acts as a check if such an institution also receives state aid. Option (d) is not directly mandated by Article 29(2). While Article 30 allows minorities to impart education in their own language in institutions they establish, and Article 350A directs states to provide primary education in the mother tongue for linguistic minorities, Article 29(2) is primarily about non-discrimination in admissions in state and state-aided institutions. Incorrect Solution: B Article 29(2) of the Indian Constitution states: “No citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State or receiving aid out of State funds on grounds only of religion, race, caste, language or any of them“. Option (a) is too broad as it refers to “any educational institution” without the qualification of being state-maintained or state-aided. Article 29(2) applies specifically to institutions maintained by the State or receiving aid from State funds. Option (b) accurately reflects the provision by including the crucial qualifier that the educational institution must be “maintained by the State or receiving aid out of State funds.” Option (c) relates more to the rights under Article 30, which allows minorities to establish and administer educational institutions. While they can give preference to their community members, Article 29(2) acts as a check if such an institution also receives state aid. Option (d) is not directly mandated by Article 29(2). While Article 30 allows minorities to impart education in their own language in institutions they establish, and Article 350A directs states to provide primary education in the mother tongue for linguistic minorities, Article 29(2) is primarily about non-discrimination in admissions in state and state-aided institutions.

#### 2. Question

Which of the following statements accurately reflects the scope of Article 29(2) of the Indian Constitution?

• (a) It prohibits denial of admission into any educational institution on grounds only of religion, race, caste, or language.

• (b) It prohibits denial of admission into any educational institution maintained by the State or receiving aid out of State funds on grounds only of religion, race, caste, or language.

• (c) It grants minorities the right to reserve seats for their community members in educational institutions established and administered by them.

• (d) It mandates that all educational institutions must provide instruction in the mother tongue of linguistic minorities.

Solution: B

Article 29(2) of the Indian Constitution states: “No citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State or receiving aid out of State funds on grounds only of religion, race, caste, language or any of them“.

• Option (a) is too broad as it refers to “any educational institution” without the qualification of being state-maintained or state-aided. Article 29(2) applies specifically to institutions maintained by the State or receiving aid from State funds.

• Option (b) accurately reflects the provision by including the crucial qualifier that the educational institution must be “maintained by the State or receiving aid out of State funds.”

• Option (c) relates more to the rights under Article 30, which allows minorities to establish and administer educational institutions. While they can give preference to their community members, Article 29(2) acts as a check if such an institution also receives state aid.

• Option (d) is not directly mandated by Article 29(2). While Article 30 allows minorities to impart education in their own language in institutions they establish, and Article 350A directs states to provide primary education in the mother tongue for linguistic minorities, Article 29(2) is primarily about non-discrimination in admissions in state and state-aided institutions.

Solution: B

• Option (b) accurately reflects the provision by including the crucial qualifier that the educational institution must be “maintained by the State or receiving aid out of State funds.”

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question With reference to the ordinance-making power of the Governor, consider the following statements: It is a discretionary power of the Governor. An ordinance issued by the Governor ceases to operate if a resolution disapproving it is passed by the Legislative Assembly and agreed to by the Legislative Council (in a bicameral legislature). The Governor can promulgate an ordinance only when both Houses of the State Legislature are not in session. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The ordinance-making power of the Governor is not a discretionary power. The Governor can promulgate an ordinance only on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister. The Supreme Court in D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar held that this power is to be used to meet extraordinary situations and not as a substitute for the law-making power of the legislature. It is a legislative power exercised by the executive, parallel to the legislature’s power, and subject to the same constitutional limitations. Statement 2 is correct. An ordinance must be laid before the State Legislature when it reassembles. It ceases to operate at the expiration of six weeks from the reassembly of the legislature, or if before the expiration of that period, a resolution disapproving it is passed by the Legislative Assembly and agreed to by the Legislative Council (if any). The primacy of the Legislative Assembly is clear here; its disapproval is key. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Governor can promulgate an ordinance when the Legislative Assembly is not in session or when either of the two Houses (in a bicameral legislature) is not in session. It is not necessary for both Houses to be out of session. The logic is that a law cannot be passed by only one House; therefore, if even one House is not in session, the legislative process is stalled, and the condition for promulgating an ordinance is met. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The ordinance-making power of the Governor is not a discretionary power. The Governor can promulgate an ordinance only on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister. The Supreme Court in D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar held that this power is to be used to meet extraordinary situations and not as a substitute for the law-making power of the legislature. It is a legislative power exercised by the executive, parallel to the legislature’s power, and subject to the same constitutional limitations. Statement 2 is correct. An ordinance must be laid before the State Legislature when it reassembles. It ceases to operate at the expiration of six weeks from the reassembly of the legislature, or if before the expiration of that period, a resolution disapproving it is passed by the Legislative Assembly and agreed to by the Legislative Council (if any). The primacy of the Legislative Assembly is clear here; its disapproval is key. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Governor can promulgate an ordinance when the Legislative Assembly is not in session or when either of the two Houses (in a bicameral legislature) is not in session. It is not necessary for both Houses to be out of session. The logic is that a law cannot be passed by only one House; therefore, if even one House is not in session, the legislative process is stalled, and the condition for promulgating an ordinance is met.

#### 3. Question

With reference to the ordinance-making power of the Governor, consider the following statements:

• It is a discretionary power of the Governor.

• An ordinance issued by the Governor ceases to operate if a resolution disapproving it is passed by the Legislative Assembly and agreed to by the Legislative Council (in a bicameral legislature).

• The Governor can promulgate an ordinance only when both Houses of the State Legislature are not in session.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

Statement 1 is incorrect. The ordinance-making power of the Governor is not a discretionary power. The Governor can promulgate an ordinance only on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister. The Supreme Court in D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar held that this power is to be used to meet extraordinary situations and not as a substitute for the law-making power of the legislature. It is a legislative power exercised by the executive, parallel to the legislature’s power, and subject to the same constitutional limitations.

Statement 2 is correct. An ordinance must be laid before the State Legislature when it reassembles. It ceases to operate at the expiration of six weeks from the reassembly of the legislature, or if before the expiration of that period, a resolution disapproving it is passed by the Legislative Assembly and agreed to by the Legislative Council (if any). The primacy of the Legislative Assembly is clear here; its disapproval is key.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Governor can promulgate an ordinance when the Legislative Assembly is not in session or when either of the two Houses (in a bicameral legislature) is not in session. It is not necessary for both Houses to be out of session. The logic is that a law cannot be passed by only one House; therefore, if even one House is not in session, the legislative process is stalled, and the condition for promulgating an ordinance is met.

Solution: A

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Which one of the following phrases best captures the essence of Indian federalism as envisioned by the Constitution and interpreted by the judiciary? (a) A classic federation with indestructible states and a weak centre. (b) A unitary system with devolved powers to administrative units. (c) A cooperative federation with a strong unitary bias in specific circumstances. (d) A confederation of states with the right to self-determination. Correct Solution: C Option (a) is incorrect. This describes the American model more closely. In India, states are destructible, and the Centre is strong. Option (b) is incorrect. This describes a purely unitary system, like the UK. India has a constitutional division of powers, which is a federal feature, not mere devolution. Option (c) is the most accurate description. The term ‘Cooperative Federalism’ has been used by the Supreme Court (e.g., in State of Rajasthan vs Union of India) to describe the relationship where the Centre and states are partners in the task of national development. However, this cooperation exists alongside a strong unitary bias, evident in features like the office of the Governor, All-India Services, emergency provisions, and the Parliament’s power to alter state boundaries. This blend of federal structure and unitary spirit is the hallmark of the Indian system. Option (d) is incorrect. A confederation is a loose alliance of sovereign states, and its units typically retain the right to secede. India is a Union, and states have no such right. Therefore, ‘cooperative federation with a strong unitary bias’ is the most nuanced and correct description. Incorrect Solution: C Option (a) is incorrect. This describes the American model more closely. In India, states are destructible, and the Centre is strong. Option (b) is incorrect. This describes a purely unitary system, like the UK. India has a constitutional division of powers, which is a federal feature, not mere devolution. Option (c) is the most accurate description. The term ‘Cooperative Federalism’ has been used by the Supreme Court (e.g., in State of Rajasthan vs Union of India) to describe the relationship where the Centre and states are partners in the task of national development. However, this cooperation exists alongside a strong unitary bias, evident in features like the office of the Governor, All-India Services, emergency provisions, and the Parliament’s power to alter state boundaries. This blend of federal structure and unitary spirit is the hallmark of the Indian system. Option (d) is incorrect. A confederation is a loose alliance of sovereign states, and its units typically retain the right to secede. India is a Union, and states have no such right. Therefore, ‘cooperative federation with a strong unitary bias’ is the most nuanced and correct description.

#### 4. Question

Which one of the following phrases best captures the essence of Indian federalism as envisioned by the Constitution and interpreted by the judiciary?

• (a) A classic federation with indestructible states and a weak centre.

• (b) A unitary system with devolved powers to administrative units.

• (c) A cooperative federation with a strong unitary bias in specific circumstances.

• (d) A confederation of states with the right to self-determination.

Solution: C

• Option (a) is incorrect. This describes the American model more closely. In India, states are destructible, and the Centre is strong.

• Option (b) is incorrect. This describes a purely unitary system, like the UK. India has a constitutional division of powers, which is a federal feature, not mere devolution.

• Option (c) is the most accurate description. The term ‘Cooperative Federalism’ has been used by the Supreme Court (e.g., in State of Rajasthan vs Union of India) to describe the relationship where the Centre and states are partners in the task of national development. However, this cooperation exists alongside a strong unitary bias, evident in features like the office of the Governor, All-India Services, emergency provisions, and the Parliament’s power to alter state boundaries. This blend of federal structure and unitary spirit is the hallmark of the Indian system.

• Option (d) is incorrect. A confederation is a loose alliance of sovereign states, and its units typically retain the right to secede. India is a Union, and states have no such right. Therefore, ‘cooperative federation with a strong unitary bias’ is the most nuanced and correct description.

Solution: C

• Option (a) is incorrect. This describes the American model more closely. In India, states are destructible, and the Centre is strong.

• Option (b) is incorrect. This describes a purely unitary system, like the UK. India has a constitutional division of powers, which is a federal feature, not mere devolution.

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question With reference to the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), consider the following statements: The CAG is debarred from any further office, either under the Government of India or of any state, after he ceases to hold his office. The administrative expenses of the office of the CAG, including all salaries, allowances and pensions, are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Article 148(4) of the Constitution explicitly states that the Comptroller and Auditor General shall not be eligible for further office either under the Government of India or under the Government of any State after he has ceased to hold his office. This provision is a crucial safeguard to ensure the independence of the CAG, preventing any potential for conflict of interest or the lure of future employment influencing his audit functions. He can conduct his duties without fear or favour. Statement 2 is correct. Article 148(6) of the Constitution provides that the administrative expenses of the office of the CAG, including all salaries, allowances, and pensions payable to or in respect of persons serving in that office, shall be charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India. This means that these expenses are not subject to the vote of Parliament. This provision further strengthens the independence of the CAG by insulating the office from any potential financial pressures from the executive or the legislature. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. Article 148(4) of the Constitution explicitly states that the Comptroller and Auditor General shall not be eligible for further office either under the Government of India or under the Government of any State after he has ceased to hold his office. This provision is a crucial safeguard to ensure the independence of the CAG, preventing any potential for conflict of interest or the lure of future employment influencing his audit functions. He can conduct his duties without fear or favour. Statement 2 is correct. Article 148(6) of the Constitution provides that the administrative expenses of the office of the CAG, including all salaries, allowances, and pensions payable to or in respect of persons serving in that office, shall be charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India. This means that these expenses are not subject to the vote of Parliament. This provision further strengthens the independence of the CAG by insulating the office from any potential financial pressures from the executive or the legislature.

#### 5. Question

With reference to the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), consider the following statements:

• The CAG is debarred from any further office, either under the Government of India or of any state, after he ceases to hold his office.

• The administrative expenses of the office of the CAG, including all salaries, allowances and pensions, are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. Article 148(4) of the Constitution explicitly states that the Comptroller and Auditor General shall not be eligible for further office either under the Government of India or under the Government of any State after he has ceased to hold his office. This provision is a crucial safeguard to ensure the independence of the CAG, preventing any potential for conflict of interest or the lure of future employment influencing his audit functions. He can conduct his duties without fear or favour.

• Statement 2 is correct. Article 148(6) of the Constitution provides that the administrative expenses of the office of the CAG, including all salaries, allowances, and pensions payable to or in respect of persons serving in that office, shall be charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India. This means that these expenses are not subject to the vote of Parliament. This provision further strengthens the independence of the CAG by insulating the office from any potential financial pressures from the executive or the legislature.

Solution: C

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