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UPSC Static Quiz –Polity : 10 January 2025

Kartavya Desk Staff

UPSC Static Quiz –Polity : 10 January 2025 We will post 5 questions daily on static topics mentioned in the UPSC civil services preliminary examination syllabus. Each week will focus on a specific topic from the syllabus, such as History of India and Indian National Movement, Indian and World Geography, and more.We are excited to bring you our daily UPSC Static Quiz, designed to help you prepare for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination. Each day, we will post 5 questions on static topics mentioned in the UPSC syllabus. This week, we are focusing on Indian and World Geography.

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Participating in daily quizzes helps reinforce your knowledge and identify areas that need improvement. Regular practice will enhance your recall abilities and boost your confidence for the examination. By covering various topics throughout the week, you ensure a comprehensive revision of the syllabus.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements. Article 361 of the Constitution provides only a limited and conditional immunity for the Governors. Governors are not liable for their misbehaviour unconnected with their official duty. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: b) Article 361 of the Constitution provides only a limited and conditional immunity for the Governors. It says that Governors shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of their office or for any act done or purported to be done by them in their official capacity. This does not mean that Governors are not liable for their misbehaviour unconnected with their official duty. Questions relating to disparaging comments by public functionaries came up for consideration before the Supreme Court in Kaushal Kishor v. State of Uttar Pradesh (2023). The Court said that the freedom of expression of public functionaries could not be curtailed other than by way of the “reasonable restrictions”, as permitted by Article 19(2) of the Constitution. Incorrect Solution: b) Article 361 of the Constitution provides only a limited and conditional immunity for the Governors. It says that Governors shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of their office or for any act done or purported to be done by them in their official capacity. This does not mean that Governors are not liable for their misbehaviour unconnected with their official duty. Questions relating to disparaging comments by public functionaries came up for consideration before the Supreme Court in Kaushal Kishor v. State of Uttar Pradesh (2023). The Court said that the freedom of expression of public functionaries could not be curtailed other than by way of the “reasonable restrictions”, as permitted by Article 19(2) of the Constitution.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements.

• Article 361 of the Constitution provides only a limited and conditional immunity for the Governors.

• Governors are not liable for their misbehaviour unconnected with their official duty.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b)

Article 361 of the Constitution provides only a limited and conditional immunity for the Governors. It says that Governors shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of their office or for any act done or purported to be done by them in their official capacity. This does not mean that Governors are not liable for their misbehaviour unconnected with their official duty.

Questions relating to disparaging comments by public functionaries came up for consideration before the Supreme Court in Kaushal Kishor v. State of Uttar Pradesh (2023). The Court said that the freedom of expression of public functionaries could not be curtailed other than by way of the “reasonable restrictions”, as permitted by Article 19(2) of the Constitution.

Solution: b)

Article 361 of the Constitution provides only a limited and conditional immunity for the Governors. It says that Governors shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of their office or for any act done or purported to be done by them in their official capacity. This does not mean that Governors are not liable for their misbehaviour unconnected with their official duty.

Questions relating to disparaging comments by public functionaries came up for consideration before the Supreme Court in Kaushal Kishor v. State of Uttar Pradesh (2023). The Court said that the freedom of expression of public functionaries could not be curtailed other than by way of the “reasonable restrictions”, as permitted by Article 19(2) of the Constitution.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question The Election Commission registers political parties for the purpose of elections and grants them recognition as national or state parties on the basis of their Poll performance Financial backing Cadre strength Number of elections contested How many of the above options are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: a) Only option 1 is correct. A registered party is recognised as a national party only if it fulfils any one of the three conditions listed below: A party should win 2% of seats in the Lok sabha from at least three different states.[8] At a general election to Lok Sabha or Legislative Assembly, the party polls 6% of votes in any four or more states and in addition it wins four Lok Sabha seats. A party gets recognition as a state party in four states. A party gets at least 8% of total valid votes polled in 4 or more states (with or without any seats) Incorrect Solution: a) Only option 1 is correct. A registered party is recognised as a national party only if it fulfils any one of the three conditions listed below: A party should win 2% of seats in the Lok sabha from at least three different states.[8] At a general election to Lok Sabha or Legislative Assembly, the party polls 6% of votes in any four or more states and in addition it wins four Lok Sabha seats. A party gets recognition as a state party in four states. A party gets at least 8% of total valid votes polled in 4 or more states (with or without any seats)

#### 2. Question

The Election Commission registers political parties for the purpose of elections and grants them recognition as national or state parties on the basis of their

• Poll performance

• Financial backing

• Cadre strength

• Number of elections contested

How many of the above options are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: a)

Only option 1 is correct.

A registered party is recognised as a national party only if it fulfils any one of the three conditions listed below:

• A party should win 2% of seats in the Lok sabha from at least three different states.[8]

• At a general election to Lok Sabha or Legislative Assembly, the party polls 6% of votes in any four or more states and in addition it wins four Lok Sabha seats.

• A party gets recognition as a state party in four states.

• A party gets at least 8% of total valid votes polled in 4 or more states (with or without any seats)

Solution: a)

Only option 1 is correct.

A registered party is recognised as a national party only if it fulfils any one of the three conditions listed below:

• A party should win 2% of seats in the Lok sabha from at least three different states.[8]

• At a general election to Lok Sabha or Legislative Assembly, the party polls 6% of votes in any four or more states and in addition it wins four Lok Sabha seats.

• A party gets recognition as a state party in four states.

• A party gets at least 8% of total valid votes polled in 4 or more states (with or without any seats)

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements regarding. Sikkim is not part of the North-Eastern Council. Pre-Independence, all the present-day North-eastern states were part of colonial Assam. Sikkim became an independent country in 1947, before being annexed by India in 1975. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 3 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: a) Northeast India officially comprises eights states — Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, and Tripura — which are a part of the North-Eastern Council, a statutory advisory body that plays a role in development planning, and region-level policy making. Pre-Independence, five of these eight present-day states (Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Mizoram) were a part of colonial Assam. Manipur and Tripura were princely states, with resident British political officers answering to the governor of Assam. Sikkim, the most unique of the eight, was juridically independent but under British paramountcy. It became an independent country in 1947, before being annexed by India in 1975. In 2001 Sikkim was made a member of the North Eastern Council, and thus officially a part of the Northeast. Incorrect Solution: a) Northeast India officially comprises eights states — Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, and Tripura — which are a part of the North-Eastern Council, a statutory advisory body that plays a role in development planning, and region-level policy making. Pre-Independence, five of these eight present-day states (Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Mizoram) were a part of colonial Assam. Manipur and Tripura were princely states, with resident British political officers answering to the governor of Assam. Sikkim, the most unique of the eight, was juridically independent but under British paramountcy. It became an independent country in 1947, before being annexed by India in 1975. In 2001 Sikkim was made a member of the North Eastern Council, and thus officially a part of the Northeast.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding.

• Sikkim is not part of the North-Eastern Council.

• Pre-Independence, all the present-day North-eastern states were part of colonial Assam.

Sikkim became an independent country in 1947, before being annexed by India in 1975.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• b) 1 and 3 only

• c) 2 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: a)

Northeast India officially comprises eights states — Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, and Tripura — which are a part of the North-Eastern Council, a statutory advisory body that plays a role in development planning, and region-level policy making.

Pre-Independence, five of these eight present-day states (Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Mizoram) were a part of colonial Assam. Manipur and Tripura were princely states, with resident British political officers answering to the governor of Assam.

Sikkim, the most unique of the eight, was juridically independent but under British paramountcy. It became an independent country in 1947, before being annexed by India in 1975. In 2001 Sikkim was made a member of the North Eastern Council, and thus officially a part of the Northeast.

Solution: a)

Northeast India officially comprises eights states — Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, and Tripura — which are a part of the North-Eastern Council, a statutory advisory body that plays a role in development planning, and region-level policy making.

Pre-Independence, five of these eight present-day states (Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Mizoram) were a part of colonial Assam. Manipur and Tripura were princely states, with resident British political officers answering to the governor of Assam.

Sikkim, the most unique of the eight, was juridically independent but under British paramountcy. It became an independent country in 1947, before being annexed by India in 1975. In 2001 Sikkim was made a member of the North Eastern Council, and thus officially a part of the Northeast.

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements. Reservation in Indian law is a form of affirmative action whereby a percentage of seats are reserved in the public sector units, union and state government departments and religious/ linguistic minority edu­cational institutions for the socially and educationally backward communities. Justice G. Rohini Commission’s report is related to the issue of sub-categorization of OBCs. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: a) Reservation in Indian law is a form of affirmative action whereby a percentage of seats are reserved in the public sector units, union and state civil services, union and state government departments and in all public and private educational institutions, except in the religious/ linguistic minority edu­cational institutions, for the socially and educationally backward communities who are inadequately represented in these services and institutions. Justice G. Rohini Committee was set up to examine the possibility of creating categories within OBCs for the reservation to ensure “equitable distribution” of representation among all OBC communities. Its objectives include working out a mechanism, criteria, norm and parameters through a scientific approach for sub-categorisation within the OBCs and identifying the respective castes or communities or sub-castes or synonyms in the Central List of OBCs and classifying them into their respective sub-categories. Part XVI deals with reservation of SC and ST in Central and State legislatures. Article 15(4) and 16(4) of the Constitution enabled the State and Central Governments to reserve seats in government services for the members of the SC and ST. Incorrect Solution: a) Reservation in Indian law is a form of affirmative action whereby a percentage of seats are reserved in the public sector units, union and state civil services, union and state government departments and in all public and private educational institutions, except in the religious/ linguistic minority edu­cational institutions, for the socially and educationally backward communities who are inadequately represented in these services and institutions. Justice G. Rohini Committee was set up to examine the possibility of creating categories within OBCs for the reservation to ensure “equitable distribution” of representation among all OBC communities. Its objectives include working out a mechanism, criteria, norm and parameters through a scientific approach for sub-categorisation within the OBCs and identifying the respective castes or communities or sub-castes or synonyms in the Central List of OBCs and classifying them into their respective sub-categories. Part XVI deals with reservation of SC and ST in Central and State legislatures. Article 15(4) and 16(4) of the Constitution enabled the State and Central Governments to reserve seats in government services for the members of the SC and ST.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements.

• Reservation in Indian law is a form of affirmative action whereby a percentage of seats are reserved in the public sector units, union and state government departments and religious/ linguistic minority edu­cational institutions for the socially and educationally backward communities.

• Justice G. Rohini Commission’s report is related to the issue of sub-categorization of OBCs.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• c) Both 1 and 2

• d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a)

Reservation in Indian law is a form of affirmative action whereby a percentage of seats are reserved in the public sector units, union and state civil services, union and state government departments and in all public and private educational institutions, except in the religious/ linguistic minority edu­cational institutions, for the socially and educationally backward communities who are inadequately represented in these services and institutions.

Justice G. Rohini Committee was set up to examine the possibility of creating categories within OBCs for the reservation to ensure “equitable distribution” of representation among all OBC communities. Its objectives include working out a mechanism, criteria, norm and parameters through a scientific approach for sub-categorisation within the OBCs and identifying the respective castes or communities or sub-castes or synonyms in the Central List of OBCs and classifying them into their respective sub-categories.

Part XVI deals with reservation of SC and ST in Central and State legislatures.

Article 15(4) and 16(4) of the Constitution enabled the State and Central Governments to reserve seats in government services for the members of the SC and ST.

Solution: a)

Reservation in Indian law is a form of affirmative action whereby a percentage of seats are reserved in the public sector units, union and state civil services, union and state government departments and in all public and private educational institutions, except in the religious/ linguistic minority edu­cational institutions, for the socially and educationally backward communities who are inadequately represented in these services and institutions.

Justice G. Rohini Committee was set up to examine the possibility of creating categories within OBCs for the reservation to ensure “equitable distribution” of representation among all OBC communities. Its objectives include working out a mechanism, criteria, norm and parameters through a scientific approach for sub-categorisation within the OBCs and identifying the respective castes or communities or sub-castes or synonyms in the Central List of OBCs and classifying them into their respective sub-categories.

Part XVI deals with reservation of SC and ST in Central and State legislatures.

Article 15(4) and 16(4) of the Constitution enabled the State and Central Governments to reserve seats in government services for the members of the SC and ST.

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements regarding Supreme Court Legal Services Committee. The Supreme Court Legal Services Committee is non statutory body that provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of society. It consists of a sitting Supreme Court judge, who is the chairman, along with other members possessing the experience and qualifications prescribed by the Centre. Both the chairman and other members are nominated by the Centre. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 2 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: a) The Supreme Court Legal Services Committee was constituted under Section 3A of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, to provide “free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of society”, in cases falling under the top court’s jurisdiction. Section 3A of the Act states that the Central Authority (the National Legal Services Authority or NALSA) shall constitute the committee. It consists of a sitting SC judge, who is the chairman, along with other members possessing the experience and qualifications prescribed by the Centre. Both the chairman and other members will be nominated by the CJI. Further, the CJI can appoint the Secretary to the Committee. Incorrect Solution: a) The Supreme Court Legal Services Committee was constituted under Section 3A of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, to provide “free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of society”, in cases falling under the top court’s jurisdiction. Section 3A of the Act states that the Central Authority (the National Legal Services Authority or NALSA) shall constitute the committee. It consists of a sitting SC judge, who is the chairman, along with other members possessing the experience and qualifications prescribed by the Centre. Both the chairman and other members will be nominated by the CJI. Further, the CJI can appoint the Secretary to the Committee.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Supreme Court Legal Services Committee.

• The Supreme Court Legal Services Committee is non statutory body that provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of society.

• It consists of a sitting Supreme Court judge, who is the chairman, along with other members possessing the experience and qualifications prescribed by the Centre.

• Both the chairman and other members are nominated by the Centre.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• b) 1 and 3 only

• c) 2 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: a)

The Supreme Court Legal Services Committee was constituted under Section 3A of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, to provide “free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of society”, in cases falling under the top court’s jurisdiction.

Section 3A of the Act states that the Central Authority (the National Legal Services Authority or NALSA) shall constitute the committee. It consists of a sitting SC judge, who is the chairman, along with other members possessing the experience and qualifications prescribed by the Centre. Both the chairman and other members will be nominated by the CJI. Further, the CJI can appoint the Secretary to the Committee.

Solution: a)

The Supreme Court Legal Services Committee was constituted under Section 3A of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, to provide “free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of society”, in cases falling under the top court’s jurisdiction.

Section 3A of the Act states that the Central Authority (the National Legal Services Authority or NALSA) shall constitute the committee. It consists of a sitting SC judge, who is the chairman, along with other members possessing the experience and qualifications prescribed by the Centre. Both the chairman and other members will be nominated by the CJI. Further, the CJI can appoint the Secretary to the Committee.

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