UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 05 July 2024

UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 05 July 2024 We will post 5 questions daily on static topics mentioned in the UPSC civil services preliminary examination syllabus. Each week will focus on a specific topic from the syllabus, such as History of India and Indian National Movement, Indian and World Geography, and more.We are excited to bring you our daily UPSC Static Quiz, designed to help you prepare for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination. Each day, we will post 5 questions on static topics mentioned in the UPSC syllabus. This week, we are focusing on Indian and World Geography.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Which of the following terms has/have not been defined in the constitution? a) Securities or stock b) Union Territory c) Agricultural Income d) Procedure Established by Law Correct Solution: d) Article 366 contains the definitions of various terms used in different provisions of the constitution. These are mentioned below: Agricultural Income means agricultural income as defined for the purposes of the enactments relating to Indian income-tax. Securities include stock. Union Territory means any Union territory specified in the First Schedule and includes any other territory comprised within the territory of India but not specified in that Schedule. The term “procedure established by law” is not defined. Incorrect Solution: d) Article 366 contains the definitions of various terms used in different provisions of the constitution. These are mentioned below: Agricultural Income means agricultural income as defined for the purposes of the enactments relating to Indian income-tax. Securities include stock. Union Territory means any Union territory specified in the First Schedule and includes any other territory comprised within the territory of India but not specified in that Schedule. The term “procedure established by law” is not defined.

#### 1. Question

Which of the following terms has/have not been defined in the constitution?

• a) Securities or stock

• b) Union Territory

• c) Agricultural Income

• d) Procedure Established by Law

Solution: d)

Article 366 contains the definitions of various terms used in different provisions of the constitution. These are mentioned below:

• Agricultural Income means agricultural income as defined for the purposes of the enactments relating to Indian income-tax.

• Securities include stock.

• Union Territory means any Union territory specified in the First Schedule and includes any other territory comprised within the territory of India but not specified in that Schedule.

The term “procedure established by law” is not defined.

Solution: d)

Article 366 contains the definitions of various terms used in different provisions of the constitution. These are mentioned below:

• Agricultural Income means agricultural income as defined for the purposes of the enactments relating to Indian income-tax.

• Securities include stock.

• Union Territory means any Union territory specified in the First Schedule and includes any other territory comprised within the territory of India but not specified in that Schedule.

The term “procedure established by law” is not defined.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question The Cabinet Mission included which of these as members? Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi Mountbatten Stafford Cripps How many of the above options is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: a) Only option 3 is correct. The Cabinet Mission was sent to India to negotiate the constitutional position of India and the future of British empire in India. It consisted of three members – Lord Pethick Lawrence, Sir Stafford Cripps and A V Alexander. The Cabinet Mission published its plan on 1946. It was notable that there was no Indian member in the Mission. Incorrect Solution: a) Only option 3 is correct. The Cabinet Mission was sent to India to negotiate the constitutional position of India and the future of British empire in India. It consisted of three members – Lord Pethick Lawrence, Sir Stafford Cripps and A V Alexander. The Cabinet Mission published its plan on 1946. It was notable that there was no Indian member in the Mission.

#### 2. Question

The Cabinet Mission included which of these as members?

• Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi

• Mountbatten

• Stafford Cripps

How many of the above options is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: a)

Only option 3 is correct.

The Cabinet Mission was sent to India to negotiate the constitutional position of India and the future of British empire in India.

It consisted of three members – Lord Pethick Lawrence, Sir Stafford Cripps and A V Alexander. The Cabinet Mission published its plan on 1946.

It was notable that there was no Indian member in the Mission.

Solution: a)

Only option 3 is correct.

The Cabinet Mission was sent to India to negotiate the constitutional position of India and the future of British empire in India.

It consisted of three members – Lord Pethick Lawrence, Sir Stafford Cripps and A V Alexander. The Cabinet Mission published its plan on 1946.

It was notable that there was no Indian member in the Mission.

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements. State legislatures can make law prescribing a requirement of residence for jobs in a particular state. Reservation for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes is referred to as vertical reservation. Horizontal reservation refers to opportunity provided to beneficiaries such as women, the transgender community, domicile and individuals with disabilities, cutting through the vertical categories. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 16 of the Constitution, which guarantees equal treatment under law in matters of public employment, prohibits the state from discriminating on grounds of place of birth or residence. Article 16(2) states that “no citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence or any of them, be ineligible for, or discriminated against in respect or, any employment or office under the State”. The provision is supplemented by the other clauses in the Constitution that guarantee equality. However, Article 16(3) of the Constitution provides an exception by saying that Parliament may make a law “prescribing” a requirement of residence for jobs in a particular state. This power vests solely in the Parliament, not state legislatures. Reservation for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes is referred to as vertical reservation. Horizontal reservation refers to opportunity provided to other categories of beneficiaries such as women, veterans, the transgender community, domicile and individuals with disabilities, cutting through the vertical categories. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 16 of the Constitution, which guarantees equal treatment under law in matters of public employment, prohibits the state from discriminating on grounds of place of birth or residence. Article 16(2) states that “no citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence or any of them, be ineligible for, or discriminated against in respect or, any employment or office under the State”. The provision is supplemented by the other clauses in the Constitution that guarantee equality. However, Article 16(3) of the Constitution provides an exception by saying that Parliament may make a law “prescribing” a requirement of residence for jobs in a particular state. This power vests solely in the Parliament, not state legislatures. Reservation for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes is referred to as vertical reservation. Horizontal reservation refers to opportunity provided to other categories of beneficiaries such as women, veterans, the transgender community, domicile and individuals with disabilities, cutting through the vertical categories.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements.

• State legislatures can make law prescribing a requirement of residence for jobs in a particular state.

• Reservation for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes is referred to as vertical reservation.

• Horizontal reservation refers to opportunity provided to beneficiaries such as women, the transgender community, domicile and individuals with disabilities, cutting through the vertical categories.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is incorrect.

Article 16 of the Constitution, which guarantees equal treatment under law in matters of public employment, prohibits the state from discriminating on grounds of place of birth or residence.

Article 16(2) states that “no citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence or any of them, be ineligible for, or discriminated against in respect or, any employment or office under the State”. The provision is supplemented by the other clauses in the Constitution that guarantee equality.

However, Article 16(3) of the Constitution provides an exception by saying that Parliament may make a law “prescribing” a requirement of residence for jobs in a particular state. This power vests solely in the Parliament, not state legislatures.

Reservation for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes is referred to as vertical reservation. Horizontal reservation refers to opportunity provided to other categories of beneficiaries such as women, veterans, the transgender community, domicile and individuals with disabilities, cutting through the vertical categories.

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is incorrect.

Article 16 of the Constitution, which guarantees equal treatment under law in matters of public employment, prohibits the state from discriminating on grounds of place of birth or residence.

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements regarding Right to be Forgotten. The “Right to be Forgotten” is the right to remove or erase content on the internet so that it’s not accessible to the public at large. The Information Technology Rules, 2021 explicitly mentions about this right. The Right to be Forgotten is an Indian innovation, provided by the Supreme Court in the Singhal v. Union of India case. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a) Only Statement 1 is correct. The “Right to be Forgotten” is the right to remove or erase content so that it’s not accessible to the public at large. It empowers an individual to have information in the form of news, video, or photographs deleted from internet records so it doesn’t show up through search engines, like Google in the present case. Section 43A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 says that organizations who possess sensitive personal data and fail to maintain appropriate security to safeguard such data, resulting in wrongful loss or wrongful gain to anyone, may be obligated to pay damages to the affected person. While, the IT Rules, 2021 do not include this right, they do however, lay down the procedure for filing complaints with the designated Grievance Officer so as to have content exposing personal information about a complainant removed from the internet. While the right is not recognized by a law or a statute in India expressly, the courts have repeatedly held it to be endemic to an individual’s Right to Privacy under Article 21 since the Apex Court’s 2017 ruling in “K.S.Puttaswamy vs Union of India”. The Right to be Forgotten originates from the 2014 European Court of Justice ruling in the case of “Google Spain SL, Google Inc v Agencia Española de Protección de Datos, Mario Costeja González”, where it was codified for the first time following a Spanish man’s quest to make the world forget a 1998 advertisement saying “his home was being repossessed to pay off debts.” Incorrect Solution: a) Only Statement 1 is correct. The “Right to be Forgotten” is the right to remove or erase content so that it’s not accessible to the public at large. It empowers an individual to have information in the form of news, video, or photographs deleted from internet records so it doesn’t show up through search engines, like Google in the present case. Section 43A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 says that organizations who possess sensitive personal data and fail to maintain appropriate security to safeguard such data, resulting in wrongful loss or wrongful gain to anyone, may be obligated to pay damages to the affected person. While, the IT Rules, 2021 do not include this right, they do however, lay down the procedure for filing complaints with the designated Grievance Officer so as to have content exposing personal information about a complainant removed from the internet. While the right is not recognized by a law or a statute in India expressly, the courts have repeatedly held it to be endemic to an individual’s Right to Privacy under Article 21 since the Apex Court’s 2017 ruling in “K.S.Puttaswamy vs Union of India”. The Right to be Forgotten originates from the 2014 European Court of Justice ruling in the case of “Google Spain SL, Google Inc v Agencia Española de Protección de Datos, Mario Costeja González”, where it was codified for the first time following a Spanish man’s quest to make the world forget a 1998 advertisement saying “his home was being repossessed to pay off debts.”

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Right to be Forgotten.

• The “Right to be Forgotten” is the right to remove or erase content on the internet so that it’s not accessible to the public at large.

• The Information Technology Rules, 2021 explicitly mentions about this right.

• The Right to be Forgotten is an Indian innovation, provided by the Supreme Court in the Singhal v. Union of India case.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: a)

Only Statement 1 is correct.

The “Right to be Forgotten” is the right to remove or erase content so that it’s not accessible to the public at large. It empowers an individual to have information in the form of news, video, or photographs deleted from internet records so it doesn’t show up through search engines, like Google in the present case.

Section 43A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 says that organizations who possess sensitive personal data and fail to maintain appropriate security to safeguard such data, resulting in wrongful loss or wrongful gain to anyone, may be obligated to pay damages to the affected person.

While, the IT Rules, 2021 do not include this right, they do however, lay down the procedure for filing complaints with the designated Grievance Officer so as to have content exposing personal information about a complainant removed from the internet.

While the right is not recognized by a law or a statute in India expressly, the courts have repeatedly held it to be endemic to an individual’s Right to Privacy under Article 21 since the Apex Court’s 2017 ruling in “K.S.Puttaswamy vs Union of India”.

The Right to be Forgotten originates from the 2014 European Court of Justice ruling in the case of “Google Spain SL, Google Inc v Agencia Española de Protección de Datos, Mario Costeja González”, where it was codified for the first time following a Spanish man’s quest to make the world forget a 1998 advertisement saying “his home was being repossessed to pay off debts.”

Solution: a)

Only Statement 1 is correct.

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Apart from the Minerva Mills case, which of the following cases deal with the primacy of fundamental rights vis-à-vis directive principles or vice versa? Champakam Dorairajan (1951) Golak Nath case (1967) Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973) ADM Jabalpur case (1976) How many of the above options is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: c) Option 4 is incorrect In the Champakam Dorairajan case (1951), the Supreme Court ruled that in case of any conflict between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles, the former would prevail. It declared that the Directive Principles have to conform to and run as subsidiary to the Fundamental Rights. The above situation underwent a major change in 1967 following the Supreme Court’s judgement in the Golaknath case (1967). In that case, the Supreme Court ruled that the Parliament cannot take away or abridge any of the Fundamental Rights, which are ‘sacrosanct’ in nature. In other words, the Court held that the Fundamental Rights cannot be amended for the implementation of the Directive Principles. In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court declared a particular provision of Article 31C as unconstitutional and invalid on the ground that judicial review is a basic feature of the Constitution and hence, cannot be taken away. (ADM Jabalpur v Shivakant Shukla Case) – 1976: In this landmark judgment, the Supreme Court declared that the rights of citizens to move the court for violation of Articles 14, 21 and 22 would remain suspended during emergencies. Incorrect Solution: c) Option 4 is incorrect In the Champakam Dorairajan case (1951), the Supreme Court ruled that in case of any conflict between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles, the former would prevail. It declared that the Directive Principles have to conform to and run as subsidiary to the Fundamental Rights. The above situation underwent a major change in 1967 following the Supreme Court’s judgement in the Golaknath case (1967). In that case, the Supreme Court ruled that the Parliament cannot take away or abridge any of the Fundamental Rights, which are ‘sacrosanct’ in nature. In other words, the Court held that the Fundamental Rights cannot be amended for the implementation of the Directive Principles. In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court declared a particular provision of Article 31C as unconstitutional and invalid on the ground that judicial review is a basic feature of the Constitution and hence, cannot be taken away. (ADM Jabalpur v Shivakant Shukla Case) – 1976: In this landmark judgment, the Supreme Court declared that the rights of citizens to move the court for violation of Articles 14, 21 and 22 would remain suspended during emergencies.

#### 5. Question

Apart from the Minerva Mills case, which of the following cases deal with the primacy of fundamental rights vis-à-vis directive principles or vice versa?

• Champakam Dorairajan (1951)

• Golak Nath case (1967)

• Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973)

• ADM Jabalpur case (1976)

How many of the above options is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: c)

Option 4 is incorrect

In the Champakam Dorairajan case (1951), the Supreme Court ruled that in case of any conflict between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles, the former would prevail. It declared that the Directive Principles have to conform to and run as subsidiary to the Fundamental Rights.

The above situation underwent a major change in 1967 following the Supreme Court’s judgement in the Golaknath case (1967). In that case, the Supreme Court ruled that the Parliament cannot take away or abridge any of the Fundamental Rights, which are ‘sacrosanct’ in nature. In other words, the Court held that the Fundamental Rights cannot be amended for the implementation of the Directive Principles.

In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court declared a particular provision of Article 31C as unconstitutional and invalid on the ground that judicial review is a basic feature of the Constitution and hence, cannot be taken away.

(ADM Jabalpur v Shivakant Shukla Case) – 1976: In this landmark judgment, the Supreme Court declared that the rights of citizens to move the court for violation of Articles 14, 21 and 22 would remain suspended during emergencies.

Solution: c)

Option 4 is incorrect

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