UPSC Static Quiz – History : 6 October 2025

UPSC Static Quiz – History : 6 October 2025 We will post 5 questions daily on static topics mentioned in the UPSC civil services preliminary examination syllabus. Each week will focus on a specific topic from the syllabus, such as History of India and Indian National Movement, Indian and World Geography, and more. We are excited to bring you our daily UPSC Static Quiz, designed to help you prepare for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination. Each day, we will post 5 questions on static topics mentioned in the UPSC syllabus. This week, we are focusing on Indian and World Geography.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Battle of Buxar (1764) is considered by historians to be a more decisive and foundational victory for the establishment of British rule in India than the Battle of Plassey (1757). Statement-II: The victory at Buxar led to the Treaty of Allahabad (1765), wherein the Mughal Emperor formally granted the Diwani of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa to the East India Company, providing a legal and constitutional basis for its authority. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct. While Plassey was a crucial first step, it was a victory achieved largely through conspiracy, bribery, and the treachery of key commanders like Mir Jafar. It established British influence and installed a puppet Nawab, but it was not a true test of military supremacy. The Battle of Buxar, in contrast, was a decisive military engagement where the Company’s forces, under Hector Munro, defeated the combined armies of the Nawab of Bengal (Mir Qasim), the Nawab of Awadh (Shuja-ud-Daula), and the Mughal Emperor himself (Shah Alam II). This was a victory of arms, not intrigue, and it demonstrated British military superiority unequivocally. Statement-II is correct. The most significant consequence of the victory at Buxar was the signing of the Treaty of Allahabad in 1765. Under this treaty, the Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II, now a dependent of the British, granted the East India Company the Diwani—the right to collect revenue—from the provinces of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa. This act was of immense constitutional importance. It transformed the Company from a mere trading corporation and a regional political player into the legal, imperial revenue-collecting authority in the richest part of India. Statement-II provides the precise reason why Statement-I is true. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct. While Plassey was a crucial first step, it was a victory achieved largely through conspiracy, bribery, and the treachery of key commanders like Mir Jafar. It established British influence and installed a puppet Nawab, but it was not a true test of military supremacy. The Battle of Buxar, in contrast, was a decisive military engagement where the Company’s forces, under Hector Munro, defeated the combined armies of the Nawab of Bengal (Mir Qasim), the Nawab of Awadh (Shuja-ud-Daula), and the Mughal Emperor himself (Shah Alam II). This was a victory of arms, not intrigue, and it demonstrated British military superiority unequivocally. Statement-II is correct. The most significant consequence of the victory at Buxar was the signing of the Treaty of Allahabad in 1765. Under this treaty, the Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II, now a dependent of the British, granted the East India Company the Diwani—the right to collect revenue—from the provinces of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa. This act was of immense constitutional importance. It transformed the Company from a mere trading corporation and a regional political player into the legal, imperial revenue-collecting authority in the richest part of India. Statement-II provides the precise reason why Statement-I is true.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Battle of Buxar (1764) is considered by historians to be a more decisive and foundational victory for the establishment of British rule in India than the Battle of Plassey (1757).

Statement-II: The victory at Buxar led to the Treaty of Allahabad (1765), wherein the Mughal Emperor formally granted the Diwani of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa to the East India Company, providing a legal and constitutional basis for its authority.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. While Plassey was a crucial first step, it was a victory achieved largely through conspiracy, bribery, and the treachery of key commanders like Mir Jafar. It established British influence and installed a puppet Nawab, but it was not a true test of military supremacy. The Battle of Buxar, in contrast, was a decisive military engagement where the Company’s forces, under Hector Munro, defeated the combined armies of the Nawab of Bengal (Mir Qasim), the Nawab of Awadh (Shuja-ud-Daula), and the Mughal Emperor himself (Shah Alam II). This was a victory of arms, not intrigue, and it demonstrated British military superiority unequivocally.

• Statement-II is correct. The most significant consequence of the victory at Buxar was the signing of the Treaty of Allahabad in 1765. Under this treaty, the Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II, now a dependent of the British, granted the East India Company the Diwani—the right to collect revenue—from the provinces of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa. This act was of immense constitutional importance. It transformed the Company from a mere trading corporation and a regional political player into the legal, imperial revenue-collecting authority in the richest part of India.

• Statement-II provides the precise reason why Statement-I is true.

Solution: A

• Statement-II provides the precise reason why Statement-I is true.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements regarding Warren Hastings: Statement I: Warren Hastings is credited with laying the foundational structure for the civil administration of British India. Statement II: He abolished the Dual System of Government in Bengal, thereby bringing both Diwani and Nizamat functions under the Company’s direct purview. Statement III: He established a hierarchical judicial system by creating a Diwani Adalat (civil court) and a Faujdari Adalat (criminal court) in each district, with appellate courts in Calcutta. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct Correct Solution: A Statement I makes a correct general assertion. Warren Hastings’s tenure (1772-1785) marked the transition of the East India Company from a commercial body to a governing power, and his reforms were central to creating a systematic administrative framework. Statement II is a correct and specific reform. In 1772, Hastings abolished the chaotic Dual System established by Robert Clive. This system had divorced power (held by the Company) from responsibility (held by the Nawab). By ending it, Hastings brought both revenue collection (Diwani) and civil administration (Nizamat) under direct Company control, which was a crucial step towards creating a unified and accountable administration. Statement III is also a correct and specific reform. In 1772, Hastings restructured the judicial system. He established a Diwani Adalat (presided over by the European Collector) for civil cases and a Faujdari Adalat (under Indian officers but supervised by the Collector) for criminal cases in each district. He also created two appellate courts in Calcutta: the Sadar Diwani Adalat and the Sadar Nizamat Adalat. This created a structured, hierarchical judicial system where none had existed before under the Company. Both statements II and III are the primary pillars that support the claim in Statement I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I makes a correct general assertion. Warren Hastings’s tenure (1772-1785) marked the transition of the East India Company from a commercial body to a governing power, and his reforms were central to creating a systematic administrative framework. Statement II is a correct and specific reform. In 1772, Hastings abolished the chaotic Dual System established by Robert Clive. This system had divorced power (held by the Company) from responsibility (held by the Nawab). By ending it, Hastings brought both revenue collection (Diwani) and civil administration (Nizamat) under direct Company control, which was a crucial step towards creating a unified and accountable administration. Statement III is also a correct and specific reform. In 1772, Hastings restructured the judicial system. He established a Diwani Adalat (presided over by the European Collector) for civil cases and a Faujdari Adalat (under Indian officers but supervised by the Collector) for criminal cases in each district. He also created two appellate courts in Calcutta: the Sadar Diwani Adalat and the Sadar Nizamat Adalat. This created a structured, hierarchical judicial system where none had existed before under the Company. Both statements II and III are the primary pillars that support the claim in Statement I.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Warren Hastings:

Statement I: Warren Hastings is credited with laying the foundational structure for the civil administration of British India.

Statement II: He abolished the Dual System of Government in Bengal, thereby bringing both Diwani and Nizamat functions under the Company’s direct purview.

Statement III: He established a hierarchical judicial system by creating a Diwani Adalat (civil court) and a Faujdari Adalat (criminal court) in each district, with appellate courts in Calcutta.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

• (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Solution: A

• Statement I makes a correct general assertion. Warren Hastings’s tenure (1772-1785) marked the transition of the East India Company from a commercial body to a governing power, and his reforms were central to creating a systematic administrative framework.

• Statement II is a correct and specific reform. In 1772, Hastings abolished the chaotic Dual System established by Robert Clive. This system had divorced power (held by the Company) from responsibility (held by the Nawab). By ending it, Hastings brought both revenue collection (Diwani) and civil administration (Nizamat) under direct Company control, which was a crucial step towards creating a unified and accountable administration.

• Statement III is also a correct and specific reform. In 1772, Hastings restructured the judicial system. He established a Diwani Adalat (presided over by the European Collector) for civil cases and a Faujdari Adalat (under Indian officers but supervised by the Collector) for criminal cases in each district. He also created two appellate courts in Calcutta: the Sadar Diwani Adalat and the Sadar Nizamat Adalat. This created a structured, hierarchical judicial system where none had existed before under the Company.

• Both statements II and III are the primary pillars that support the claim in Statement I.

Solution: A

• Both statements II and III are the primary pillars that support the claim in Statement I.

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Match the following proposals with their most distinctive feature or point of contention: List-I (Proposal) List-II (Distinctive Feature/Contention) A. Rajagopalachari Formula 1. Parity between Congress and League nominees in the interim government B. Desai-Liaqat Pact 2. Plebiscite for the entire population in Muslim-majority areas C. Wavell Plan 3. Parity between ‘caste Hindus’ and Muslims in the Executive Council Select the correct answer code: (a) A-2, B-1, C-3 (b) A-1, B-2, C-3 (c) A-3, B-1, C-2 (d) A-2, B-3, C-1 Correct Solution: A Rajagopalachari Formula (1944) is correctly matched with 2. Plebiscite for the entire population in Muslim-majority areas. This was a core component of the C.R. Formula and a major reason for its rejection by M.A. Jinnah, who wanted the plebiscite to be limited only to the Muslim population of those areas. Desai-Liaqat Pact (1945) is correctly matched with 1. Parity between Congress and League nominees in the interim government. This was the central, groundbreaking proposal of the unofficial pact between Bhulabhai Desai and Liaqat Ali Khan. It suggested that the Congress and the Muslim League would have an equal number of representatives in the central interim government, a significant concession from the Congress side at the time. Wavell Plan (1945) is correctly matched with 3. Parity between ‘caste Hindus’ and Muslims in the Executive Council. While influenced by the Desai-Liaqat Pact’s idea of parity, the Wavell Plan framed it differently and more controversially. It explicitly proposed parity not between the Congress and the League as political parties, but between ‘caste Hindus’ and Muslims as communities. This was strongly opposed by the Congress as it undermined its secular character. Incorrect Solution: A Rajagopalachari Formula (1944) is correctly matched with 2. Plebiscite for the entire population in Muslim-majority areas. This was a core component of the C.R. Formula and a major reason for its rejection by M.A. Jinnah, who wanted the plebiscite to be limited only to the Muslim population of those areas. Desai-Liaqat Pact (1945) is correctly matched with 1. Parity between Congress and League nominees in the interim government. This was the central, groundbreaking proposal of the unofficial pact between Bhulabhai Desai and Liaqat Ali Khan. It suggested that the Congress and the Muslim League would have an equal number of representatives in the central interim government, a significant concession from the Congress side at the time. Wavell Plan (1945) is correctly matched with 3. Parity between ‘caste Hindus’ and Muslims in the Executive Council. While influenced by the Desai-Liaqat Pact’s idea of parity, the Wavell Plan framed it differently and more controversially. It explicitly proposed parity not between the Congress and the League as political parties, but between ‘caste Hindus’ and Muslims as communities. This was strongly opposed by the Congress as it undermined its secular character.

#### 3. Question

Match the following proposals with their most distinctive feature or point of contention:

List-I (Proposal) | List-II (Distinctive Feature/Contention)

A. Rajagopalachari Formula | 1. Parity between Congress and League nominees in the interim government

B. Desai-Liaqat Pact | 2. Plebiscite for the entire population in Muslim-majority areas

C. Wavell Plan | 3. Parity between ‘caste Hindus’ and Muslims in the Executive Council

Select the correct answer code:

• (a) A-2, B-1, C-3

• (b) A-1, B-2, C-3

• (c) A-3, B-1, C-2

• (d) A-2, B-3, C-1

Solution: A

• Rajagopalachari Formula (1944) is correctly matched with 2. Plebiscite for the entire population in Muslim-majority areas. This was a core component of the C.R. Formula and a major reason for its rejection by M.A. Jinnah, who wanted the plebiscite to be limited only to the Muslim population of those areas.

• Desai-Liaqat Pact (1945) is correctly matched with 1. Parity between Congress and League nominees in the interim government. This was the central, groundbreaking proposal of the unofficial pact between Bhulabhai Desai and Liaqat Ali Khan. It suggested that the Congress and the Muslim League would have an equal number of representatives in the central interim government, a significant concession from the Congress side at the time.

• Wavell Plan (1945) is correctly matched with 3. Parity between ‘caste Hindus’ and Muslims in the Executive Council. While influenced by the Desai-Liaqat Pact’s idea of parity, the Wavell Plan framed it differently and more controversially. It explicitly proposed parity not between the Congress and the League as political parties, but between ‘caste Hindus’ and Muslims as communities. This was strongly opposed by the Congress as it undermined its secular character.

Solution: A

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements regarding Royal Indian Navy (RIN) mutiny: Statement-I: Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel and Muhammad Ali Jinnah were instrumental in persuading the ratings of the Royal Indian Navy to surrender in February 1946. Statement-II: The leadership of both the Congress and the Muslim League feared that a large-scale, uncontrolled armed uprising would derail the process of a negotiated transfer of power from the British. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Explanation: Statement-I is correct. After five days of intense uprising, it was indeed the intervention of senior political leaders that brought the mutiny to an end. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel flew to Bombay to negotiate with the Naval Central Strike Committee. He, along with M.A. Jinnah who issued a statement from Calcutta, persuaded the ratings to surrender, giving them an assurance that their grievances would be looked into and that they would not be victimized. Statement-II is also correct. The reason for this intervention by the leadership of both major parties was their deep-seated apprehension about the nature of the revolt. The Congress and the Muslim League were committed to achieving independence through a constitutional, negotiated path. They viewed a spontaneous, armed, and leaderless mutiny within the armed forces as a dangerous development that could lead to widespread violence and anarchy. They feared that such an event could give the British an excuse to delay or scuttle the transfer of power, thereby jeopardizing the independence that seemed within reach. Incorrect Solution: A Explanation: Statement-I is correct. After five days of intense uprising, it was indeed the intervention of senior political leaders that brought the mutiny to an end. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel flew to Bombay to negotiate with the Naval Central Strike Committee. He, along with M.A. Jinnah who issued a statement from Calcutta, persuaded the ratings to surrender, giving them an assurance that their grievances would be looked into and that they would not be victimized. Statement-II is also correct. The reason for this intervention by the leadership of both major parties was their deep-seated apprehension about the nature of the revolt. The Congress and the Muslim League were committed to achieving independence through a constitutional, negotiated path. They viewed a spontaneous, armed, and leaderless mutiny within the armed forces as a dangerous development that could lead to widespread violence and anarchy. They feared that such an event could give the British an excuse to delay or scuttle the transfer of power, thereby jeopardizing the independence that seemed within reach.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Royal Indian Navy (RIN) mutiny:

Statement-I: Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel and Muhammad Ali Jinnah were instrumental in persuading the ratings of the Royal Indian Navy to surrender in February 1946.

Statement-II: The leadership of both the Congress and the Muslim League feared that a large-scale, uncontrolled armed uprising would derail the process of a negotiated transfer of power from the British.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

Explanation:

• Statement-I is correct. After five days of intense uprising, it was indeed the intervention of senior political leaders that brought the mutiny to an end. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel flew to Bombay to negotiate with the Naval Central Strike Committee. He, along with M.A. Jinnah who issued a statement from Calcutta, persuaded the ratings to surrender, giving them an assurance that their grievances would be looked into and that they would not be victimized.

• Statement-II is also correct. The reason for this intervention by the leadership of both major parties was their deep-seated apprehension about the nature of the revolt. The Congress and the Muslim League were committed to achieving independence through a constitutional, negotiated path. They viewed a spontaneous, armed, and leaderless mutiny within the armed forces as a dangerous development that could lead to widespread violence and anarchy. They feared that such an event could give the British an excuse to delay or scuttle the transfer of power, thereby jeopardizing the independence that seemed within reach.

Solution: A

Explanation:

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question With reference to the Indian Councils Act of 1909, consider the following statements: The Act for the first time introduced separate electorates for the representation of Muslims. It ensured an elected majority in the Provincial Legislative Councils but retained an official majority in the Central Legislative Council. The members of the legislative councils were empowered to vote on the budget and move resolutions on it. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The most significant feature of the Indian Councils Act of 1909 was the introduction of separate electorates for Muslims. This institutionalized the principle of communal representation in Indian politics, wherein Muslim members were to be elected only by Muslim voters. This was a response to the demands of the Simla Deputation led by the Aga Khan. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Act did allow for a non-official majority in the Provincial Legislative Councils, but this did not mean an elected The non-official members included both elected and nominated members. The British strategically used the power of nomination to ensure that a combination of officials and nominated non-officials would always outnumber the elected members, thus defeating any real measure of democratic control. An official majority was indeed retained at the Centre. Statement 3 is incorrect. While the powers of the legislative councils were enlarged, they were still very limited. Members could discuss the budget and move resolutions on it, but they were not empowered to vote on the budget as a whole. The financial powers remained firmly in the hands of the executive. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The most significant feature of the Indian Councils Act of 1909 was the introduction of separate electorates for Muslims. This institutionalized the principle of communal representation in Indian politics, wherein Muslim members were to be elected only by Muslim voters. This was a response to the demands of the Simla Deputation led by the Aga Khan. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Act did allow for a non-official majority in the Provincial Legislative Councils, but this did not mean an elected The non-official members included both elected and nominated members. The British strategically used the power of nomination to ensure that a combination of officials and nominated non-officials would always outnumber the elected members, thus defeating any real measure of democratic control. An official majority was indeed retained at the Centre. Statement 3 is incorrect. While the powers of the legislative councils were enlarged, they were still very limited. Members could discuss the budget and move resolutions on it, but they were not empowered to vote on the budget as a whole. The financial powers remained firmly in the hands of the executive.

#### 5. Question

With reference to the Indian Councils Act of 1909, consider the following statements:

• The Act for the first time introduced separate electorates for the representation of Muslims.

• It ensured an elected majority in the Provincial Legislative Councils but retained an official majority in the Central Legislative Council.

• The members of the legislative councils were empowered to vote on the budget and move resolutions on it.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. The most significant feature of the Indian Councils Act of 1909 was the introduction of separate electorates for Muslims. This institutionalized the principle of communal representation in Indian politics, wherein Muslim members were to be elected only by Muslim voters. This was a response to the demands of the Simla Deputation led by the Aga Khan.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Act did allow for a non-official majority in the Provincial Legislative Councils, but this did not mean an elected The non-official members included both elected and nominated members. The British strategically used the power of nomination to ensure that a combination of officials and nominated non-officials would always outnumber the elected members, thus defeating any real measure of democratic control. An official majority was indeed retained at the Centre.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. While the powers of the legislative councils were enlarged, they were still very limited. Members could discuss the budget and move resolutions on it, but they were not empowered to vote on the budget as a whole. The financial powers remained firmly in the hands of the executive.

Solution: A

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