UPSC Static Quiz – Environment : 7 June 2025

UPSC Static Quiz – Environment : 7 June 2025 We will post 5 questions daily on static topics mentioned in the UPSC civil services preliminary examination syllabus. Each week will focus on a specific topic from the syllabus, such as History of India and Indian National Movement, Indian and World Geography, and more.We are excited to bring you our daily UPSC Static Quiz, designed to help you prepare for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination. Each day, we will post 5 questions on static topics mentioned in the UPSC syllabus. This week, we are focusing on Indian and World Geography.

Why Participate in the UPSC Static Quiz?

Participating in daily quizzes helps reinforce your knowledge and identify areas that need improvement. Regular practice will enhance your recall abilities and boost your confidence for the examination. By covering various topics throughout the week, you ensure a comprehensive revision of the syllabus.

#### Quiz-summary

0 of 5 questions completed

Questions:

#### Information

Best of Luck! 🙂

You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.

Quiz is loading...

You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:

0 of 5 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)

#### Categories

• Not categorized 0%

• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements regarding the India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2023: The total forest and tree cover of the country is more than 30% of its geographical area. The report indicates an increase in the country’s carbon sink in its forest and tree cover since 2005. The ISFR is a triennial publication by the Forest Survey of India (FSI). How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. According to ISFR 2023, the total forest and tree cover is 8,27,357 sq km, which is 25.17% of the geographical area of the country. Statement 2 is correct. The ISFR 2023 highlights that India’s carbon sink in forest and tree cover reached 30.43 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent, representing an addition of 2.29 billion tonnes since 2005. This aligns with India’s NDC target. Statement 3 is incorrect. The ISFR is a biennial assessment (published every two years) by the Forest Survey of India (FSI). The ISFR 2023 is the 18th edition since the first report in 1987. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. According to ISFR 2023, the total forest and tree cover is 8,27,357 sq km, which is 25.17% of the geographical area of the country. Statement 2 is correct. The ISFR 2023 highlights that India’s carbon sink in forest and tree cover reached 30.43 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent, representing an addition of 2.29 billion tonnes since 2005. This aligns with India’s NDC target. Statement 3 is incorrect. The ISFR is a biennial assessment (published every two years) by the Forest Survey of India (FSI). The ISFR 2023 is the 18th edition since the first report in 1987.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2023:

• The total forest and tree cover of the country is more than 30% of its geographical area.

• The report indicates an increase in the country’s carbon sink in its forest and tree cover since 2005.

• The ISFR is a triennial publication by the Forest Survey of India (FSI).

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: a)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. According to ISFR 2023, the total forest and tree cover is 8,27,357 sq km, which is 25.17% of the geographical area of the country.

• Statement 2 is correct. The ISFR 2023 highlights that India’s carbon sink in forest and tree cover reached 30.43 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent, representing an addition of 2.29 billion tonnes since 2005. This aligns with India’s NDC target.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The ISFR is a biennial assessment (published every two years) by the Forest Survey of India (FSI). The ISFR 2023 is the 18th edition since the first report in 1987.

Solution: a)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. According to ISFR 2023, the total forest and tree cover is 8,27,357 sq km, which is 25.17% of the geographical area of the country.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question With reference to Per- and Polyfluoroalkyl Substances (PFAS), consider the following statements: PFAS are synthetic chemicals known for their resistance to heat, water, and oil, leading to their widespread use in consumer products. Due to their strong chemical bonds, PFAS are readily biodegradable in the environment. Bioaccumulation of PFAS in human and animal tissues is not a significant concern due to their rapid excretion. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is correct. PFAS are a group of synthetic chemicals valued for their resistance to heat, water, and oil, which is why they are used in a wide array of consumer products like non-stick cookware, food packaging, and firefighting foams. Statement 2 is incorrect. PFAS are often called “forever chemicals” precisely because their strong carbon-fluorine bonds make them highly resistant to natural degradation processes in the environment. They are not readily biodegradable. Statement 3 is incorrect. Persistent exposure to PFAS can lead to bioaccumulation in animal and human bodies because they do not break down easily and can build up in tissues over time, posing potential health concerns. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is correct. PFAS are a group of synthetic chemicals valued for their resistance to heat, water, and oil, which is why they are used in a wide array of consumer products like non-stick cookware, food packaging, and firefighting foams. Statement 2 is incorrect. PFAS are often called “forever chemicals” precisely because their strong carbon-fluorine bonds make them highly resistant to natural degradation processes in the environment. They are not readily biodegradable. Statement 3 is incorrect. Persistent exposure to PFAS can lead to bioaccumulation in animal and human bodies because they do not break down easily and can build up in tissues over time, posing potential health concerns.

#### 2. Question

With reference to Per- and Polyfluoroalkyl Substances (PFAS), consider the following statements:

• PFAS are synthetic chemicals known for their resistance to heat, water, and oil, leading to their widespread use in consumer products.

• Due to their strong chemical bonds, PFAS are readily biodegradable in the environment.

• Bioaccumulation of PFAS in human and animal tissues is not a significant concern due to their rapid excretion.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: a)

• Statement 1 is correct. PFAS are a group of synthetic chemicals valued for their resistance to heat, water, and oil, which is why they are used in a wide array of consumer products like non-stick cookware, food packaging, and firefighting foams.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. PFAS are often called “forever chemicals” precisely because their strong carbon-fluorine bonds make them highly resistant to natural degradation processes in the environment. They are not readily biodegradable.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. Persistent exposure to PFAS can lead to bioaccumulation in animal and human bodies because they do not break down easily and can build up in tissues over time, posing potential health concerns.

Solution: a)

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements regarding Biological Diversity (Amendment) Act, 2023. Statement-I: The Biological Diversity (Amendment) Act, 2023, aims to simplify compliance burdens for domestic companies and traditional users of biological resources. Statement-II: The amendment decriminalizes certain offences under the Act and focuses on monetary penalties, while also encouraging research and cultivation of medicinal plants. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: a) Statement-I is correct. The Biological Diversity (Amendment) Act, 2023, seeks to reduce the compliance burden for domestic companies, AYUSH practitioners, and traditional knowledge holders, facilitating easier access to biological resources and associated traditional knowledge. It aims to promote a more conducive environment for research, patent applications, and the transfer of research results, while simplifying the overall regulatory framework. Statement-II is correct. The amendment introduces changes such as decriminalizing certain offences and replacing them with monetary penalties. It also includes provisions to encourage the cultivation of medicinal plants and promote collaborative research and investment, thereby supporting the objectives mentioned in Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement-I is correct. The Biological Diversity (Amendment) Act, 2023, seeks to reduce the compliance burden for domestic companies, AYUSH practitioners, and traditional knowledge holders, facilitating easier access to biological resources and associated traditional knowledge. It aims to promote a more conducive environment for research, patent applications, and the transfer of research results, while simplifying the overall regulatory framework. Statement-II is correct. The amendment introduces changes such as decriminalizing certain offences and replacing them with monetary penalties. It also includes provisions to encourage the cultivation of medicinal plants and promote collaborative research and investment, thereby supporting the objectives mentioned in Statement-I.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Biological Diversity (Amendment) Act, 2023.

Statement-I: The Biological Diversity (Amendment) Act, 2023, aims to simplify compliance burdens for domestic companies and traditional users of biological resources.

Statement-II: The amendment decriminalizes certain offences under the Act and focuses on monetary penalties, while also encouraging research and cultivation of medicinal plants.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: a)

Statement-I is correct. The Biological Diversity (Amendment) Act, 2023, seeks to reduce the compliance burden for domestic companies, AYUSH practitioners, and traditional knowledge holders, facilitating easier access to biological resources and associated traditional knowledge. It aims to promote a more conducive environment for research, patent applications, and the transfer of research results, while simplifying the overall regulatory framework.

Statement-II is correct. The amendment introduces changes such as decriminalizing certain offences and replacing them with monetary penalties. It also includes provisions to encourage the cultivation of medicinal plants and promote collaborative research and investment, thereby supporting the objectives mentioned in Statement-I.

Solution: a)

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following pairs of Newly Added Ramsar Site (2024-2025) and the respective State Aghanashini Estuary: Karnataka Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary: Tamil Nadu Longwood Shola Reserve Forest: Kerala Magadi Kere Conservation Reserve: Karnataka How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: c) 1. Aghanashini Estuary in Karnataka was designated as a Ramsar Site in 2024. This pair is correctly matched. Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary in Tamil Nadu was designated as a Ramsar Site in 2024. This pair is correctly matched. Longwood Shola Reserve Forest in Tamil Nadu (not Kerala) was designated as a Ramsar Site in 2024. This pair is incorrectly matched. Magadi Kere Conservation Reserve in Karnataka was designated as a Ramsar Site in 2024. This pair is correctly matched. Incorrect Solution: c) 1. Aghanashini Estuary in Karnataka was designated as a Ramsar Site in 2024. This pair is correctly matched. Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary in Tamil Nadu was designated as a Ramsar Site in 2024. This pair is correctly matched. Longwood Shola Reserve Forest in Tamil Nadu (not Kerala) was designated as a Ramsar Site in 2024. This pair is incorrectly matched. Magadi Kere Conservation Reserve in Karnataka was designated as a Ramsar Site in 2024. This pair is correctly matched.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following pairs of Newly Added Ramsar Site (2024-2025) and the respective State

• Aghanashini Estuary: Karnataka

• Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary: Tamil Nadu

• Longwood Shola Reserve Forest: Kerala

• Magadi Kere Conservation Reserve: Karnataka

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: c)

• 1. Aghanashini Estuary in Karnataka was designated as a Ramsar Site in 2024. This pair is correctly matched.

• Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary in Tamil Nadu was designated as a Ramsar Site in 2024. This pair is correctly matched.

• Longwood Shola Reserve Forest in Tamil Nadu (not Kerala) was designated as a Ramsar Site in 2024. This pair is incorrectly matched.

• Magadi Kere Conservation Reserve in Karnataka was designated as a Ramsar Site in 2024. This pair is correctly matched.

Solution: c)

• 1. Aghanashini Estuary in Karnataka was designated as a Ramsar Site in 2024. This pair is correctly matched.

• Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary in Tamil Nadu was designated as a Ramsar Site in 2024. This pair is correctly matched.

• Longwood Shola Reserve Forest in Tamil Nadu (not Kerala) was designated as a Ramsar Site in 2024. This pair is incorrectly matched.

• Magadi Kere Conservation Reserve in Karnataka was designated as a Ramsar Site in 2024. This pair is correctly matched.

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Which of the following best describes “Membrane Bioreactors (MBRs)” often discussed in the context of environmental management? (a) Genetically modified organisms used for decomposing complex industrial effluents. (b) Large-scale natural wetland systems designed for passive wastewater treatment. (c) A combination of a membrane filtration process with a biological wastewater treatment process. (d) Porous membranes deployed in oceans to capture microplastic pollution. Correct Solution: c) Membrane Bioreactors (MBRs) combine a membrane process like microfiltration or ultrafiltration with a biological wastewater treatment process, typically a suspended growth bioreactor. They are advanced systems used for municipal and industrial wastewater treatment, offering advantages like high effluent quality and smaller footprint compared to conventional systems. Option (a) refers to bioremediation using specific organisms, not necessarily MBRs. Option (b) describes constructed wetlands, which are different from MBR technology. Option (d) refers to a method for plastic pollution control, not the primary function of MBRs. Incorrect Solution: c) Membrane Bioreactors (MBRs) combine a membrane process like microfiltration or ultrafiltration with a biological wastewater treatment process, typically a suspended growth bioreactor. They are advanced systems used for municipal and industrial wastewater treatment, offering advantages like high effluent quality and smaller footprint compared to conventional systems. Option (a) refers to bioremediation using specific organisms, not necessarily MBRs. Option (b) describes constructed wetlands, which are different from MBR technology. Option (d) refers to a method for plastic pollution control, not the primary function of MBRs.

#### 5. Question

Which of the following best describes “Membrane Bioreactors (MBRs)” often discussed in the context of environmental management?

• (a) Genetically modified organisms used for decomposing complex industrial effluents.

• (b) Large-scale natural wetland systems designed for passive wastewater treatment.

• (c) A combination of a membrane filtration process with a biological wastewater treatment process.

• (d) Porous membranes deployed in oceans to capture microplastic pollution.

Solution: c)

Membrane Bioreactors (MBRs) combine a membrane process like microfiltration or ultrafiltration with a biological wastewater treatment process, typically a suspended growth bioreactor. They are advanced systems used for municipal and industrial wastewater treatment, offering advantages like high effluent quality and smaller footprint compared to conventional systems.

Option (a) refers to bioremediation using specific organisms, not necessarily MBRs.

Option (b) describes constructed wetlands, which are different from MBR technology.

Option (d) refers to a method for plastic pollution control, not the primary function of MBRs.

Solution: c)

Option (a) refers to bioremediation using specific organisms, not necessarily MBRs.

Option (b) describes constructed wetlands, which are different from MBR technology.

Option (d) refers to a method for plastic pollution control, not the primary function of MBRs.

Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE for Motivation and Fast Updates

Join our Twitter Channel HERE

Follow our Instagram Channel HERE

Stay Consistent

Consistency is key in UPSC preparation. By making the UPSC Static Quiz a part of your daily routine, you will steadily improve your knowledge base and exam readiness. Join us every day to tackle new questions and make your journey towards UPSC success more structured and effective.