KartavyaDesk
news

UPSC Static Quiz – Environment : 5 July 2025

Kartavya Desk Staff

UPSC Static Quiz – Environment : 5 July 2025 We will post 5 questions daily on static topics mentioned in the UPSC civil services preliminary examination syllabus. Each week will focus on a specific topic from the syllabus, such as History of India and Indian National Movement, Indian and World Geography, and more.We are excited to bring you our daily UPSC Static Quiz, designed to help you prepare for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination. Each day, we will post 5 questions on static topics mentioned in the UPSC syllabus. This week, we are focusing on Indian and World Geography.

Why Participate in the UPSC Static Quiz?

Participating in daily quizzes helps reinforce your knowledge and identify areas that need improvement. Regular practice will enhance your recall abilities and boost your confidence for the examination. By covering various topics throughout the week, you ensure a comprehensive revision of the syllabus.

#### Quiz-summary

0 of 5 questions completed

Questions:

#### Information

Best of Luck! 🙂

You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.

Quiz is loading...

You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:

0 of 5 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)

#### Categories

• Not categorized 0%

• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Match List-I (Organism Type) with List-II (Example) and List-III (Ecological Role/Characteristic): List-I (Organism Type) List-II (Example) List-III (Ecological Role/Characteristic) A. Parasitoid 1. Earthworm I. Decomposer, improves soil structure B. Detritivore 2. Fig Wasp II. Pollinator in an obligate mutualism C. Mutualist (Pollinator) 3. Tachinid Fly III. Lays eggs in/on host, eventually killing it D. Keystone Species 4. Sea Otter IV. Maintains ecosystem structure by controlling prey populations Select the correct answer code: A B C D (a) 3-III 1-I 2-II 4-IV (b) 1-I 3-III 4-IV 2-II (c) 3-III 2-II 1-I 4-IV (d) 4-IV 1-I 2-II 3-III Correct Solution: A Parasitoid: An organism that lives in close association with its host at the host’s expense, eventually killing it. Tachinid flies (3) are classic examples, laying eggs on or in other insects, with their larvae consuming and killing the host (III). Parasitoid species are found in flies and wasps. So, A matches with 3 and III. Detritivore: An organism that feeds on dead organic material (detritus). Earthworms (1) are prime examples, consuming decaying organic matter and playing a vital role as decomposers, improving soil structure (I). So, B matches with 1 and I. Mutualist (Pollinator): An interaction where both species benefit. The Fig Wasp (2) has an obligate mutualistic relationship with the fig tree, where it is the sole pollinator for the tree, and the tree provides food and shelter for the wasp (II). So, C matches with 2 and II. Keystone Species: A species whose impact on its ecosystem is disproportionately large relative to its abundance. Sea Otters (4) are a classic example; by preying on sea urchins, they prevent urchins from overgrazing kelp forests, thus maintaining ecosystem structure by controlling prey populations (IV). Incorrect Solution: A Parasitoid: An organism that lives in close association with its host at the host’s expense, eventually killing it. Tachinid flies (3) are classic examples, laying eggs on or in other insects, with their larvae consuming and killing the host (III). Parasitoid species are found in flies and wasps. So, A matches with 3 and III. Detritivore: An organism that feeds on dead organic material (detritus). Earthworms (1) are prime examples, consuming decaying organic matter and playing a vital role as decomposers, improving soil structure (I). So, B matches with 1 and I. Mutualist (Pollinator): An interaction where both species benefit. The Fig Wasp (2) has an obligate mutualistic relationship with the fig tree, where it is the sole pollinator for the tree, and the tree provides food and shelter for the wasp (II). So, C matches with 2 and II. Keystone Species: A species whose impact on its ecosystem is disproportionately large relative to its abundance. Sea Otters (4) are a classic example; by preying on sea urchins, they prevent urchins from overgrazing kelp forests, thus maintaining ecosystem structure by controlling prey populations (IV).

#### 1. Question

Match List-I (Organism Type) with List-II (Example) and List-III (Ecological Role/Characteristic):

List-I (Organism Type) | List-II (Example) | List-III (Ecological Role/Characteristic)

A. Parasitoid | 1. Earthworm | I. Decomposer, improves soil structure

B. Detritivore | 2. Fig Wasp | II. Pollinator in an obligate mutualism

C. Mutualist (Pollinator) | 3. Tachinid Fly | III. Lays eggs in/on host, eventually killing it

D. Keystone Species | 4. Sea Otter | IV. Maintains ecosystem structure by controlling prey populations

Select the correct answer code:

• (a) 3-III 1-I 2-II 4-IV

• (b) 1-I 3-III 4-IV 2-II

• (c) 3-III 2-II 1-I 4-IV

• (d) 4-IV 1-I 2-II 3-III

Solution: A

• Parasitoid: An organism that lives in close association with its host at the host’s expense, eventually killing it. Tachinid flies (3) are classic examples, laying eggs on or in other insects, with their larvae consuming and killing the host (III). Parasitoid species are found in flies and wasps. So, A matches with 3 and III.

• Detritivore: An organism that feeds on dead organic material (detritus). Earthworms (1) are prime examples, consuming decaying organic matter and playing a vital role as decomposers, improving soil structure (I). So, B matches with 1 and I.

• Mutualist (Pollinator): An interaction where both species benefit. The Fig Wasp (2) has an obligate mutualistic relationship with the fig tree, where it is the sole pollinator for the tree, and the tree provides food and shelter for the wasp (II). So, C matches with 2 and II.

• Keystone Species: A species whose impact on its ecosystem is disproportionately large relative to its abundance. Sea Otters (4) are a classic example; by preying on sea urchins, they prevent urchins from overgrazing kelp forests, thus maintaining ecosystem structure by controlling prey populations (IV).

Solution: A

• Parasitoid: An organism that lives in close association with its host at the host’s expense, eventually killing it. Tachinid flies (3) are classic examples, laying eggs on or in other insects, with their larvae consuming and killing the host (III). Parasitoid species are found in flies and wasps. So, A matches with 3 and III.

• Detritivore: An organism that feeds on dead organic material (detritus). Earthworms (1) are prime examples, consuming decaying organic matter and playing a vital role as decomposers, improving soil structure (I). So, B matches with 1 and I.

• Mutualist (Pollinator): An interaction where both species benefit. The Fig Wasp (2) has an obligate mutualistic relationship with the fig tree, where it is the sole pollinator for the tree, and the tree provides food and shelter for the wasp (II). So, C matches with 2 and II.

• Keystone Species: A species whose impact on its ecosystem is disproportionately large relative to its abundance. Sea Otters (4) are a classic example; by preying on sea urchins, they prevent urchins from overgrazing kelp forests, thus maintaining ecosystem structure by controlling prey populations (IV).

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements regarding coral bleaching. Statement-I: The phenomenon of coral bleaching is primarily caused by the expulsion of symbiotic zooxanthellae algae from coral tissues. Statement-II: Elevated Sea surface temperatures due to global warming are a major stressor leading to widespread coral bleaching events. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct. Coral bleaching occurs when corals, under stress, expel the symbiotic algae (zooxanthellae) living in their tissues. These algae provide corals with most of their color and food. Without them, the coral tissue becomes transparent, revealing the white calcium carbonate skeleton underneath. Statement-II is correct. One of the most significant stressors causing corals to expel zooxanthellae and leading to widespread bleaching events is elevated sea surface temperatures, often linked to global warming and climate change. Other stressors include pollution and ocean acidification. Statement-II explains the primary cause (elevated sea temperatures) for the physiological response described in Statement-I (expulsion of zooxanthellae leading to bleaching). Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct. Coral bleaching occurs when corals, under stress, expel the symbiotic algae (zooxanthellae) living in their tissues. These algae provide corals with most of their color and food. Without them, the coral tissue becomes transparent, revealing the white calcium carbonate skeleton underneath. Statement-II is correct. One of the most significant stressors causing corals to expel zooxanthellae and leading to widespread bleaching events is elevated sea surface temperatures, often linked to global warming and climate change. Other stressors include pollution and ocean acidification. Statement-II explains the primary cause (elevated sea temperatures) for the physiological response described in Statement-I (expulsion of zooxanthellae leading to bleaching).

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding coral bleaching.

Statement-I: The phenomenon of coral bleaching is primarily caused by the expulsion of symbiotic zooxanthellae algae from coral tissues.

Statement-II: Elevated Sea surface temperatures due to global warming are a major stressor leading to widespread coral bleaching events.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

Statement-I is correct. Coral bleaching occurs when corals, under stress, expel the symbiotic algae (zooxanthellae) living in their tissues. These algae provide corals with most of their color and food. Without them, the coral tissue becomes transparent, revealing the white calcium carbonate skeleton underneath.

Statement-II is correct. One of the most significant stressors causing corals to expel zooxanthellae and leading to widespread bleaching events is elevated sea surface temperatures, often linked to global warming and climate change. Other stressors include pollution and ocean acidification.

Statement-II explains the primary cause (elevated sea temperatures) for the physiological response described in Statement-I (expulsion of zooxanthellae leading to bleaching).

Solution: A

Statement-I is correct. Coral bleaching occurs when corals, under stress, expel the symbiotic algae (zooxanthellae) living in their tissues. These algae provide corals with most of their color and food. Without them, the coral tissue becomes transparent, revealing the white calcium carbonate skeleton underneath.

Statement-II is correct. One of the most significant stressors causing corals to expel zooxanthellae and leading to widespread bleaching events is elevated sea surface temperatures, often linked to global warming and climate change. Other stressors include pollution and ocean acidification.

Statement-II explains the primary cause (elevated sea temperatures) for the physiological response described in Statement-I (expulsion of zooxanthellae leading to bleaching).

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Match List-I (Type of Protected Area) with List-II (Key Feature/Objective) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List-I List-II A. National Park 1. Focus on conservation of specific flagship faunal species and their habitat, often with a single-species orientation. B. Wildlife Sanctuary 2. Conservation of overall biodiversity, landscapes, and traditional lifestyles of local communities, with zonation for different activities. C. Biosphere Reserve 3. High degree of protection for wildlife and habitats; most human activities strictly regulated or prohibited. D. Tiger Reserve 4. Protection of specific fauna, flora, or geological features; some regulated human activities may be permitted. Select the correct answer code: A B C D (a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 4 3 1 2 (c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 4 2 3 1 Correct Solution: A A. National Park (e.g., Kaziranga, Jim Corbett) generally offers a high degree of protection for wildlife and habitats, and most human activities like grazing, forestry, etc., are strictly regulated or prohibited. The focus is on conserving the entire ecosystem. So, A matches with 3. B. Wildlife Sanctuary aims at the protection of specific fauna, flora, or geological/zoological features. Some regulated human activities, such as grazing or collection of minor forest produce by local communities, may be permitted if they do not harm wildlife. So, B matches with 4. C. Biosphere Reserve (e.g., Nilgiri, Nanda Devi) is a concept under UNESCO’s Man and Biosphere (MAB) Programme. It aims at the conservation of overall biodiversity, landscapes, and the traditional lifestyles of local communities, often with a zonation approach (core, buffer, transition zones) allowing for different levels of human activity and research. So, C matches with 2. D. Tiger Reserve (e.g., Bandipur, Ranthambore) is declared under Project Tiger with a focus on the conservation of tigers (a specific flagship faunal species) and their habitat. It often has a single-species orientation for intensive management, though the entire ecosystem benefits. So, D matches with 1. Incorrect Solution: A A. National Park (e.g., Kaziranga, Jim Corbett) generally offers a high degree of protection for wildlife and habitats, and most human activities like grazing, forestry, etc., are strictly regulated or prohibited. The focus is on conserving the entire ecosystem. So, A matches with 3. B. Wildlife Sanctuary aims at the protection of specific fauna, flora, or geological/zoological features. Some regulated human activities, such as grazing or collection of minor forest produce by local communities, may be permitted if they do not harm wildlife. So, B matches with 4. C. Biosphere Reserve (e.g., Nilgiri, Nanda Devi) is a concept under UNESCO’s Man and Biosphere (MAB) Programme. It aims at the conservation of overall biodiversity, landscapes, and the traditional lifestyles of local communities, often with a zonation approach (core, buffer, transition zones) allowing for different levels of human activity and research. So, C matches with 2. D. Tiger Reserve (e.g., Bandipur, Ranthambore) is declared under Project Tiger with a focus on the conservation of tigers (a specific flagship faunal species) and their habitat. It often has a single-species orientation for intensive management, though the entire ecosystem benefits. So, D matches with 1.

#### 3. Question

Match List-I (Type of Protected Area) with List-II (Key Feature/Objective) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I | List-II

A. National Park | 1. Focus on conservation of specific flagship faunal species and their habitat, often with a single-species orientation.

B. Wildlife Sanctuary | 2. Conservation of overall biodiversity, landscapes, and traditional lifestyles of local communities, with zonation for different activities.

C. Biosphere Reserve | 3. High degree of protection for wildlife and habitats; most human activities strictly regulated or prohibited.

D. Tiger Reserve | 4. Protection of specific fauna, flora, or geological features; some regulated human activities may be permitted.

Select the correct answer code:

• (a) 3 4 2 1

• (b) 4 3 1 2

• (c) 3 1 2 4

• (d) 4 2 3 1

Solution: A

A. National Park (e.g., Kaziranga, Jim Corbett) generally offers a high degree of protection for wildlife and habitats, and most human activities like grazing, forestry, etc., are strictly regulated or prohibited. The focus is on conserving the entire ecosystem. So, A matches with 3.

B. Wildlife Sanctuary aims at the protection of specific fauna, flora, or geological/zoological features. Some regulated human activities, such as grazing or collection of minor forest produce by local communities, may be permitted if they do not harm wildlife. So, B matches with 4.

C. Biosphere Reserve (e.g., Nilgiri, Nanda Devi) is a concept under UNESCO’s Man and Biosphere (MAB) Programme. It aims at the conservation of overall biodiversity, landscapes, and the traditional lifestyles of local communities, often with a zonation approach (core, buffer, transition zones) allowing for different levels of human activity and research. So, C matches with 2.

D. Tiger Reserve (e.g., Bandipur, Ranthambore) is declared under Project Tiger with a focus on the conservation of tigers (a specific flagship faunal species) and their habitat. It often has a single-species orientation for intensive management, though the entire ecosystem benefits. So, D matches with 1.

Solution: A

A. National Park (e.g., Kaziranga, Jim Corbett) generally offers a high degree of protection for wildlife and habitats, and most human activities like grazing, forestry, etc., are strictly regulated or prohibited. The focus is on conserving the entire ecosystem. So, A matches with 3.

B. Wildlife Sanctuary aims at the protection of specific fauna, flora, or geological/zoological features. Some regulated human activities, such as grazing or collection of minor forest produce by local communities, may be permitted if they do not harm wildlife. So, B matches with 4.

C. Biosphere Reserve (e.g., Nilgiri, Nanda Devi) is a concept under UNESCO’s Man and Biosphere (MAB) Programme. It aims at the conservation of overall biodiversity, landscapes, and the traditional lifestyles of local communities, often with a zonation approach (core, buffer, transition zones) allowing for different levels of human activity and research. So, C matches with 2.

D. Tiger Reserve (e.g., Bandipur, Ranthambore) is declared under Project Tiger with a focus on the conservation of tigers (a specific flagship faunal species) and their habitat. It often has a single-species orientation for intensive management, though the entire ecosystem benefits. So, D matches with 1.

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements regarding the National Green Tribunal (NGT) of India: The NGT was established under the provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. It has jurisdiction to hear all civil cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources. The NGT is bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. Appeals against the orders of the NGT lie directly with the Supreme Court of India. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established in 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, not the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Statement 2 is correct. The NGT has jurisdiction over all civil cases where a substantial question relating to the environment (including enforcement of any legal right relating to environment) is involved and such questions arise out of the implementation of the enactments specified in Schedule I of the NGT Act, 2010. This covers environmental protection, conservation of forests, and other natural resources. Statement 3 is incorrect. The NGT is guided by principles of natural justice and is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, though it has the powers of a civil court. It can regulate its own procedure. Statement 4 is correct. An appeal against an order, decision, or award of the NGT lies to the Supreme Court of India, generally within ninety days from the date of communication of the order. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established in 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, not the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Statement 2 is correct. The NGT has jurisdiction over all civil cases where a substantial question relating to the environment (including enforcement of any legal right relating to environment) is involved and such questions arise out of the implementation of the enactments specified in Schedule I of the NGT Act, 2010. This covers environmental protection, conservation of forests, and other natural resources. Statement 3 is incorrect. The NGT is guided by principles of natural justice and is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, though it has the powers of a civil court. It can regulate its own procedure. Statement 4 is correct. An appeal against an order, decision, or award of the NGT lies to the Supreme Court of India, generally within ninety days from the date of communication of the order.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the National Green Tribunal (NGT) of India:

• The NGT was established under the provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

• It has jurisdiction to hear all civil cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources.

• The NGT is bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.

• Appeals against the orders of the NGT lie directly with the Supreme Court of India.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established in 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, not the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

Statement 2 is correct. The NGT has jurisdiction over all civil cases where a substantial question relating to the environment (including enforcement of any legal right relating to environment) is involved and such questions arise out of the implementation of the enactments specified in Schedule I of the NGT Act, 2010. This covers environmental protection, conservation of forests, and other natural resources.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The NGT is guided by principles of natural justice and is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, though it has the powers of a civil court. It can regulate its own procedure.

Statement 4 is correct. An appeal against an order, decision, or award of the NGT lies to the Supreme Court of India, generally within ninety days from the date of communication of the order.

Solution: B

Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established in 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, not the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

Statement 2 is correct. The NGT has jurisdiction over all civil cases where a substantial question relating to the environment (including enforcement of any legal right relating to environment) is involved and such questions arise out of the implementation of the enactments specified in Schedule I of the NGT Act, 2010. This covers environmental protection, conservation of forests, and other natural resources.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The NGT is guided by principles of natural justice and is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, though it has the powers of a civil court. It can regulate its own procedure.

Statement 4 is correct. An appeal against an order, decision, or award of the NGT lies to the Supreme Court of India, generally within ninety days from the date of communication of the order.

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Which of the following are considered “greenhouse gases” under the Kyoto Protocol? Carbon dioxide (CO2​) Methane (CH4​) Sulphur hexafluoride (SF6​) Water Vapour (H2​O) Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution: B The Kyoto Protocol covers a basket of six main greenhouse gases: Carbon dioxide – Correct Methane – Correct Nitrous oxide Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) Perfluorocarbons (PFCs) Sulphur hexafluoride – Correct Water vapour is the most abundant greenhouse gas and plays a critical role in the Earth’s climate system. However, its atmospheric concentration is primarily controlled by temperature rather than direct human emissions, and it is generally not included in the list of gases whose emissions countries are required to control under international agreements like the Kyoto Protocol. The focus is on gases whose concentrations are directly affected by anthropogenic activities. Incorrect Solution: B The Kyoto Protocol covers a basket of six main greenhouse gases: Carbon dioxide – Correct Methane – Correct Nitrous oxide Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) Perfluorocarbons (PFCs) Sulphur hexafluoride – Correct Water vapour is the most abundant greenhouse gas and plays a critical role in the Earth’s climate system. However, its atmospheric concentration is primarily controlled by temperature rather than direct human emissions, and it is generally not included in the list of gases whose emissions countries are required to control under international agreements like the Kyoto Protocol. The focus is on gases whose concentrations are directly affected by anthropogenic activities.

#### 5. Question

Which of the following are considered “greenhouse gases” under the Kyoto Protocol?

• Carbon dioxide (CO2​)

• Methane (CH4​)

• Sulphur hexafluoride (SF6​)

• Water Vapour (H2​O)

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1, 3 and 4 only

• (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: B

The Kyoto Protocol covers a basket of six main greenhouse gases:

• Carbon dioxide – Correct

• Methane – Correct

• Nitrous oxide

• Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs)

• Perfluorocarbons (PFCs)

• Sulphur hexafluoride – Correct

Water vapour is the most abundant greenhouse gas and plays a critical role in the Earth’s climate system. However, its atmospheric concentration is primarily controlled by temperature rather than direct human emissions, and it is generally not included in the list of gases whose emissions countries are required to control under international agreements like the Kyoto Protocol. The focus is on gases whose concentrations are directly affected by anthropogenic activities.

Solution: B

The Kyoto Protocol covers a basket of six main greenhouse gases:

• Carbon dioxide – Correct

• Methane – Correct

• Nitrous oxide

• Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs)

• Perfluorocarbons (PFCs)

• Sulphur hexafluoride – Correct

Water vapour is the most abundant greenhouse gas and plays a critical role in the Earth’s climate system. However, its atmospheric concentration is primarily controlled by temperature rather than direct human emissions, and it is generally not included in the list of gases whose emissions countries are required to control under international agreements like the Kyoto Protocol. The focus is on gases whose concentrations are directly affected by anthropogenic activities.

Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE for Motivation and Fast Updates

Join our Twitter Channel HERE

Follow our Instagram Channel HERE

Stay Consistent

Consistency is key in UPSC preparation. By making the UPSC Static Quiz a part of your daily routine, you will steadily improve your knowledge base and exam readiness. Join us every day to tackle new questions and make your journey towards UPSC success more structured and effective.

AI-assisted content, editorially reviewed by Kartavya Desk Staff.

About Kartavya Desk Staff

Articles in our archive published before our editorial team was expanded. Legacy content is periodically reviewed and updated by our current editors.

All News