UPSC Static Quiz – Environment : 4 November 2025

UPSC Static Quiz – Environment : 4 November 2025 We will post 5 questions daily on static topics mentioned in the UPSC civil services preliminary examination syllabus. Each week will focus on a specific topic from the syllabus, such as History of India and Indian National Movement, Indian and World Geography, and more. We are excited to bring you our daily UPSC Static Quiz, designed to help you prepare for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination. Each day, we will post 5 questions on static topics mentioned in the UPSC syllabus. This week, we are focusing on Indian and World Geography.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Which one of the following best describes the ecological process of ‘allelopathy’? (a) The process by which an organism produces biochemicals that influence the germination, growth, survival, and reproduction of other organisms. (b) The symbiotic relationship between fungi and plant roots that enhances nutrient uptake for the plant. (c) The gradual and predictable change in species composition in a given area over time. (d) The adaptation of an organism to survive in an environment with a high concentration of salt. Correct Solution: A Option (a) is the correct definition. Allelopathy is a form of biological interaction where one organism, typically a plant, releases chemical substances (allelochemicals) into the environment that have a direct inhibitory or, less commonly, stimulatory effect on neighboring organisms. A classic example is the black walnut tree (Juglans nigra), which releases a compound called juglone that inhibits the growth of many other plants, such as tomatoes and apples, in its vicinity. This is a competitive strategy to reduce resource competition. Option (b) describes mycorrhiza. This is a mutualistic symbiotic association between a fungus and a plant. The fungus colonizes the host plant’s root tissues, enhancing the plant’s ability to absorb water and nutrients (like phosphorus), while the plant provides the fungus with carbohydrates formed from photosynthesis. Option (c) describes ecological succession. This is the process of change in the species structure of an ecological community over time. It can be primary (on a new, sterile substrate) or secondary (following a disturbance in an existing community). Option (d) describes the characteristics of a halophyte. Halophytes are salt-tolerant plants that are adapted to grow in saline conditions, such as in salt marshes, mangroves, or deserts. Incorrect Solution: A Option (a) is the correct definition. Allelopathy is a form of biological interaction where one organism, typically a plant, releases chemical substances (allelochemicals) into the environment that have a direct inhibitory or, less commonly, stimulatory effect on neighboring organisms. A classic example is the black walnut tree (Juglans nigra), which releases a compound called juglone that inhibits the growth of many other plants, such as tomatoes and apples, in its vicinity. This is a competitive strategy to reduce resource competition. Option (b) describes mycorrhiza. This is a mutualistic symbiotic association between a fungus and a plant. The fungus colonizes the host plant’s root tissues, enhancing the plant’s ability to absorb water and nutrients (like phosphorus), while the plant provides the fungus with carbohydrates formed from photosynthesis. Option (c) describes ecological succession. This is the process of change in the species structure of an ecological community over time. It can be primary (on a new, sterile substrate) or secondary (following a disturbance in an existing community). Option (d) describes the characteristics of a halophyte. Halophytes are salt-tolerant plants that are adapted to grow in saline conditions, such as in salt marshes, mangroves, or deserts.

#### 1. Question

Which one of the following best describes the ecological process of ‘allelopathy’?

• (a) The process by which an organism produces biochemicals that influence the germination, growth, survival, and reproduction of other organisms.

• (b) The symbiotic relationship between fungi and plant roots that enhances nutrient uptake for the plant.

• (c) The gradual and predictable change in species composition in a given area over time.

• (d) The adaptation of an organism to survive in an environment with a high concentration of salt.

Solution: A

• Option (a) is the correct definition. Allelopathy is a form of biological interaction where one organism, typically a plant, releases chemical substances (allelochemicals) into the environment that have a direct inhibitory or, less commonly, stimulatory effect on neighboring organisms. A classic example is the black walnut tree (Juglans nigra), which releases a compound called juglone that inhibits the growth of many other plants, such as tomatoes and apples, in its vicinity. This is a competitive strategy to reduce resource competition.

• Option (b) describes mycorrhiza. This is a mutualistic symbiotic association between a fungus and a plant. The fungus colonizes the host plant’s root tissues, enhancing the plant’s ability to absorb water and nutrients (like phosphorus), while the plant provides the fungus with carbohydrates formed from photosynthesis.

• Option (c) describes ecological succession. This is the process of change in the species structure of an ecological community over time. It can be primary (on a new, sterile substrate) or secondary (following a disturbance in an existing community).

• Option (d) describes the characteristics of a halophyte. Halophytes are salt-tolerant plants that are adapted to grow in saline conditions, such as in salt marshes, mangroves, or deserts.

Solution: A

• Option (d) describes the characteristics of a halophyte. Halophytes are salt-tolerant plants that are adapted to grow in saline conditions, such as in salt marshes, mangroves, or deserts.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Match List-I with List-II List-I (Threat to Biodiversity) List-II (Specific Example) A. Habitat Fragmentation 1. Use of diclofenac in livestock leading to vulture deaths B. Overexploitation 2. Parthenium hysterophorus displacing native flora C. Alien Species Invasion 3. A highway bisecting a contiguous elephant corridor D. Pollution 4. Unsustainable harvesting of Red Sanders Select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: A B C D (a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 2 1 3 4 (c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 2 4 3 1 Correct Solution: A Habitat Fragmentation (3): Habitat fragmentation is the process by which a large, continuous habitat is broken down into smaller, isolated patches. A highway or a railway line cutting through an elephant corridor is a perfect example of this. It doesn’t just destroy the habitat under the road; it creates a barrier that dissects the entire landscape, impeding movement and isolating populations. So, A matches with 3. Overexploitation (4): Overexploitation refers to harvesting a renewable resource to the point of diminishing returns. Red Sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus) is a highly valuable tree species found in a restricted region of Andhra Pradesh. It has been subjected to immense illegal logging and smuggling for its red-hued wood, leading to a severe decline in its population. This unsustainable harvesting is a clear case of overexploitation. So, B matches with 4. Alien Species Invasion (2): This refers to the introduction and spread of a non-native species that causes ecological or economic harm. Parthenium hysterophorus, also known as Congress Grass, is an aggressive invasive weed that has spread across India. It outcompetes native plant species for resources, reduces crop yields, and can cause health problems in humans and livestock. Its displacement of native flora is a classic impact of an alien species invasion. So, C matches with 2. Pollution (1): This threat involves the introduction of harmful contaminants into the environment. The catastrophic decline of vulture populations in South Asia is a well-documented case of chemical pollution. The veterinary anti-inflammatory drug diclofenac, when administered to cattle, remains in their carcasses. Vultures feeding on these carcasses suffer from kidney failure and die. This is a direct example of biodiversity loss caused by a specific chemical pollutant. So, D matches with 1. Incorrect Solution: A Habitat Fragmentation (3): Habitat fragmentation is the process by which a large, continuous habitat is broken down into smaller, isolated patches. A highway or a railway line cutting through an elephant corridor is a perfect example of this. It doesn’t just destroy the habitat under the road; it creates a barrier that dissects the entire landscape, impeding movement and isolating populations. So, A matches with 3. Overexploitation (4): Overexploitation refers to harvesting a renewable resource to the point of diminishing returns. Red Sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus) is a highly valuable tree species found in a restricted region of Andhra Pradesh. It has been subjected to immense illegal logging and smuggling for its red-hued wood, leading to a severe decline in its population. This unsustainable harvesting is a clear case of overexploitation. So, B matches with 4. Alien Species Invasion (2): This refers to the introduction and spread of a non-native species that causes ecological or economic harm. Parthenium hysterophorus, also known as Congress Grass, is an aggressive invasive weed that has spread across India. It outcompetes native plant species for resources, reduces crop yields, and can cause health problems in humans and livestock. Its displacement of native flora is a classic impact of an alien species invasion. So, C matches with 2. Pollution (1): This threat involves the introduction of harmful contaminants into the environment. The catastrophic decline of vulture populations in South Asia is a well-documented case of chemical pollution. The veterinary anti-inflammatory drug diclofenac, when administered to cattle, remains in their carcasses. Vultures feeding on these carcasses suffer from kidney failure and die. This is a direct example of biodiversity loss caused by a specific chemical pollutant. So, D matches with 1.

#### 2. Question

Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Threat to Biodiversity) | List-II (Specific Example)

A. Habitat Fragmentation | 1. Use of diclofenac in livestock leading to vulture deaths

B. Overexploitation | 2. Parthenium hysterophorus displacing native flora

C. Alien Species Invasion | 3. A highway bisecting a contiguous elephant corridor

D. Pollution | 4. Unsustainable harvesting of Red Sanders

Select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

• (a) 3 4 2 1

• (b) 2 1 3 4

• (c) 3 1 2 4

• (d) 2 4 3 1

Solution: A

• Habitat Fragmentation (3): Habitat fragmentation is the process by which a large, continuous habitat is broken down into smaller, isolated patches. A highway or a railway line cutting through an elephant corridor is a perfect example of this. It doesn’t just destroy the habitat under the road; it creates a barrier that dissects the entire landscape, impeding movement and isolating populations. So, A matches with 3.

• Overexploitation (4): Overexploitation refers to harvesting a renewable resource to the point of diminishing returns. Red Sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus) is a highly valuable tree species found in a restricted region of Andhra Pradesh. It has been subjected to immense illegal logging and smuggling for its red-hued wood, leading to a severe decline in its population. This unsustainable harvesting is a clear case of overexploitation. So, B matches with 4.

• Alien Species Invasion (2): This refers to the introduction and spread of a non-native species that causes ecological or economic harm. Parthenium hysterophorus, also known as Congress Grass, is an aggressive invasive weed that has spread across India. It outcompetes native plant species for resources, reduces crop yields, and can cause health problems in humans and livestock. Its displacement of native flora is a classic impact of an alien species invasion. So, C matches with 2.

• Pollution (1): This threat involves the introduction of harmful contaminants into the environment. The catastrophic decline of vulture populations in South Asia is a well-documented case of chemical pollution. The veterinary anti-inflammatory drug diclofenac, when administered to cattle, remains in their carcasses. Vultures feeding on these carcasses suffer from kidney failure and die. This is a direct example of biodiversity loss caused by a specific chemical pollutant. So, D matches with 1.

Solution: A

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements regarding the legal status of Protected Areas in India: The boundaries of a National Park can be altered only by a resolution passed by the Parliament of India. The declaration of a Community Reserve is possible on private land without the consent of the individual owner if it is deemed ecologically significant. Limited human activities such as the collection of non-timber forest produce and grazing of livestock, which may be permissible in a Wildlife Sanctuary, are strictly prohibited in a National Park unless specifically permitted under exceptional circumstances.. A Conservation Reserve can be declared by the Central Government in addition to the State Government. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The boundaries of a National Park are determined by the State Government, and any alteration requires a resolution passed by the State Legislature, not the Parliament of India. This provision ensures that changes to these highly protected areas are subject to rigorous legislative scrutiny at the state level. Statement 2 is incorrect. A Community Reserve can be declared on private or community land, but it requires that the local community or the concerned individual has volunteered to conserve the wildlife. The consent of the community or landowner is a prerequisite, making declaration without consent impossible. This participatory approach is central to the concept of Community Reserves. Statement 3 is correct. National Parks are afforded a higher degree of protection than Wildlife Sanctuaries. While certain human activities, often traditional rights of local communities like grazing and collection of minor forest produce, may be allowed in a regulated manner within a sanctuary, these are strictly prohibited in National Parks unless specifically permitted by the State Government under exceptional circumstances. Statement 4 is correct. The Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022, empowered the Central Government to also notify a Conservation Reserve, a power that was previously vested only with the State Governments. These reserves are typically declared in areas adjacent to existing National Parks or Sanctuaries and serve as buffer zones or corridors. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The boundaries of a National Park are determined by the State Government, and any alteration requires a resolution passed by the State Legislature, not the Parliament of India. This provision ensures that changes to these highly protected areas are subject to rigorous legislative scrutiny at the state level. Statement 2 is incorrect. A Community Reserve can be declared on private or community land, but it requires that the local community or the concerned individual has volunteered to conserve the wildlife. The consent of the community or landowner is a prerequisite, making declaration without consent impossible. This participatory approach is central to the concept of Community Reserves. Statement 3 is correct. National Parks are afforded a higher degree of protection than Wildlife Sanctuaries. While certain human activities, often traditional rights of local communities like grazing and collection of minor forest produce, may be allowed in a regulated manner within a sanctuary, these are strictly prohibited in National Parks unless specifically permitted by the State Government under exceptional circumstances. Statement 4 is correct. The Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022, empowered the Central Government to also notify a Conservation Reserve, a power that was previously vested only with the State Governments. These reserves are typically declared in areas adjacent to existing National Parks or Sanctuaries and serve as buffer zones or corridors.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the legal status of Protected Areas in India:

• The boundaries of a National Park can be altered only by a resolution passed by the Parliament of India.

• The declaration of a Community Reserve is possible on private land without the consent of the individual owner if it is deemed ecologically significant.

• Limited human activities such as the collection of non-timber forest produce and grazing of livestock, which may be permissible in a Wildlife Sanctuary, are strictly prohibited in a National Park unless specifically permitted under exceptional circumstances..

• A Conservation Reserve can be declared by the Central Government in addition to the State Government.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The boundaries of a National Park are determined by the State Government, and any alteration requires a resolution passed by the State Legislature, not the Parliament of India. This provision ensures that changes to these highly protected areas are subject to rigorous legislative scrutiny at the state level.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. A Community Reserve can be declared on private or community land, but it requires that the local community or the concerned individual has volunteered to conserve the wildlife. The consent of the community or landowner is a prerequisite, making declaration without consent impossible. This participatory approach is central to the concept of Community Reserves.

• Statement 3 is correct. National Parks are afforded a higher degree of protection than Wildlife Sanctuaries. While certain human activities, often traditional rights of local communities like grazing and collection of minor forest produce, may be allowed in a regulated manner within a sanctuary, these are strictly prohibited in National Parks unless specifically permitted by the State Government under exceptional circumstances.

• Statement 4 is correct. The Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022, empowered the Central Government to also notify a Conservation Reserve, a power that was previously vested only with the State Governments. These reserves are typically declared in areas adjacent to existing National Parks or Sanctuaries and serve as buffer zones or corridors.

Solution: B

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question The establishment of Tiger Reserves in India is carried out under the provisions of which of the following? (a) The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 (b) The Biological Diversity Act, 2002 (c) The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 (d) The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 Correct Solution: D Tiger Reserves are a specific category of Protected Area declared for the conservation of the tiger. They are established under the provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. While Project Tiger was launched in 1973, the legal framework for declaring and managing Tiger Reserves was significantly strengthened through the 2006 amendment to the Wildlife (Protection) Act. This amendment led to the creation of the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) as a statutory body and provided a formal legal process for the notification of Tiger Reserves by State Governments on the recommendation of the NTCA. Incorrect Solution: D Tiger Reserves are a specific category of Protected Area declared for the conservation of the tiger. They are established under the provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. While Project Tiger was launched in 1973, the legal framework for declaring and managing Tiger Reserves was significantly strengthened through the 2006 amendment to the Wildlife (Protection) Act. This amendment led to the creation of the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) as a statutory body and provided a formal legal process for the notification of Tiger Reserves by State Governments on the recommendation of the NTCA.

#### 4. Question

The establishment of Tiger Reserves in India is carried out under the provisions of which of the following?

• (a) The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

• (b) The Biological Diversity Act, 2002

• (c) The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980

• (d) The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972

Solution: D

• Tiger Reserves are a specific category of Protected Area declared for the conservation of the tiger. They are established under the provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

• While Project Tiger was launched in 1973, the legal framework for declaring and managing Tiger Reserves was significantly strengthened through the 2006 amendment to the Wildlife (Protection) Act. This amendment led to the creation of the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) as a statutory body and provided a formal legal process for the notification of Tiger Reserves by State Governments on the recommendation of the NTCA.

Solution: D

• Tiger Reserves are a specific category of Protected Area declared for the conservation of the tiger. They are established under the provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements: The term ‘Living Modified Organism’ (LMO) under the Cartagena Protocol includes non-viable organisms and processed products like DNA extracts. The term ‘Access and Benefit-Sharing’ (ABS) under the Nagoya Protocol is applicable only to genetic resources and not to the traditional knowledge associated with them. The term ‘People’s Biodiversity Register’ (PBR) refers to a global database managed by the CBD Secretariat to document traditional knowledge. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The Cartagena Protocol defines a ‘Living Modified Organism’ as any living organism possessing a novel combination of genetic material, where ‘living organism’ means any biological entity capable of transferring or replicating genetic material. This definition explicitly excludes non-viable organisms or processed products like purified DNA or proteins, as they cannot replicate on their own. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Nagoya Protocol’s scope explicitly and significantly includes traditional knowledge associated with genetic resources. This was a major advancement, recognizing that the value of a genetic resource is often unlocked through the traditional knowledge held by indigenous and local communities about its use. The protocol mandates benefit-sharing for the utilization of this knowledge as well. Statement 3 is incorrect. The ‘People’s Biodiversity Register’ (PBR) is not a global database. It is a mechanism established under India’s Biological Diversity Act, 2002. PBRs are prepared at the local level by Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) to document local biodiversity and traditional knowledge. It is a grassroots, decentralized initiative specific to the Indian legal framework. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect. The Cartagena Protocol defines a ‘Living Modified Organism’ as any living organism possessing a novel combination of genetic material, where ‘living organism’ means any biological entity capable of transferring or replicating genetic material. This definition explicitly excludes non-viable organisms or processed products like purified DNA or proteins, as they cannot replicate on their own. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Nagoya Protocol’s scope explicitly and significantly includes traditional knowledge associated with genetic resources. This was a major advancement, recognizing that the value of a genetic resource is often unlocked through the traditional knowledge held by indigenous and local communities about its use. The protocol mandates benefit-sharing for the utilization of this knowledge as well. Statement 3 is incorrect. The ‘People’s Biodiversity Register’ (PBR) is not a global database. It is a mechanism established under India’s Biological Diversity Act, 2002. PBRs are prepared at the local level by Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) to document local biodiversity and traditional knowledge. It is a grassroots, decentralized initiative specific to the Indian legal framework.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements:

• The term ‘Living Modified Organism’ (LMO) under the Cartagena Protocol includes non-viable organisms and processed products like DNA extracts.

• The term ‘Access and Benefit-Sharing’ (ABS) under the Nagoya Protocol is applicable only to genetic resources and not to the traditional knowledge associated with them.

• The term ‘People’s Biodiversity Register’ (PBR) refers to a global database managed by the CBD Secretariat to document traditional knowledge.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Cartagena Protocol defines a ‘Living Modified Organism’ as any living organism possessing a novel combination of genetic material, where ‘living organism’ means any biological entity capable of transferring or replicating genetic material. This definition explicitly excludes non-viable organisms or processed products like purified DNA or proteins, as they cannot replicate on their own.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Nagoya Protocol’s scope explicitly and significantly includes traditional knowledge associated with genetic resources. This was a major advancement, recognizing that the value of a genetic resource is often unlocked through the traditional knowledge held by indigenous and local communities about its use. The protocol mandates benefit-sharing for the utilization of this knowledge as well.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The ‘People’s Biodiversity Register’ (PBR) is not a global database. It is a mechanism established under India’s Biological Diversity Act, 2002. PBRs are prepared at the local level by Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) to document local biodiversity and traditional knowledge. It is a grassroots, decentralized initiative specific to the Indian legal framework.

Solution: D

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