UPSC Static Quiz – Environment : 24 December 2025

UPSC Static Quiz – Environment : 24 December 2025 We will post 5 questions daily on static topics mentioned in the UPSC civil services preliminary examination syllabus. Each week will focus on a specific topic from the syllabus, such as History of India and Indian National Movement, Indian and World Geography, and more. We are excited to bring you our daily UPSC Static Quiz, designed to help you prepare for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination. Each day, we will post 5 questions on static topics mentioned in the UPSC syllabus. This week, we are focusing on Indian and World Geography.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Match the following conservation projects with their primary approach: List-I (Project) List-II (Primary Approach) A. Project Tiger 1. Landscape-based conservation in high-altitude ecosystems B. Project Elephant 2. Securing corridors to facilitate movement between fragmented habitats C. Project Snow Leopard 3. Core-buffer strategy with a statutory authority for management Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) A-3, B-2, C-1 (b) A-1, B-2, C-3 (c) A-3, B-1, C-2 (d) A-2, B-3, C-1 Correct Solution: A Project Tiger (A): Launched in 1973, this is India’s flagship conservation program. Its strategy revolves around a core-buffer model, where core areas are kept inviolate for breeding populations and buffer areas allow for co-existence. A key development was the creation of the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) in 2005, a statutory body under the WPA, 1972, to administer the project and manage tiger reserves. Project Elephant (B): Launched in 1992, this project aims to protect elephants, their habitats, and their corridors. A central focus of the project is to identify and secure traditional elephant corridors to allow for their movement between fragmented forest patches, thereby reducing human-elephant conflict. India is also a key participant in the CITES program MIKE (Monitoring of Illegal Killing of Elephants), which tracks elephant mortality to assess poaching trends. Project Snow Leopard (C): Launched in 2009, this project focuses on the conservation of the elusive snow leopard and its fragile high-altitude ecosystem in the Himalayan and trans-Himalayan regions. It adopts a participatory, landscape-based approach, going beyond just protected areas to manage the entire landscape involving local communities. At the international level, India is a key partner in the Global Snow Leopard and Ecosystem Protection (GSLEP) Program, a high-level inter-governmental alliance of all 12 snow leopard range countries. Incorrect Solution: A Project Tiger (A): Launched in 1973, this is India’s flagship conservation program. Its strategy revolves around a core-buffer model, where core areas are kept inviolate for breeding populations and buffer areas allow for co-existence. A key development was the creation of the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) in 2005, a statutory body under the WPA, 1972, to administer the project and manage tiger reserves. Project Elephant (B): Launched in 1992, this project aims to protect elephants, their habitats, and their corridors. A central focus of the project is to identify and secure traditional elephant corridors to allow for their movement between fragmented forest patches, thereby reducing human-elephant conflict. India is also a key participant in the CITES program MIKE (Monitoring of Illegal Killing of Elephants), which tracks elephant mortality to assess poaching trends. Project Snow Leopard (C): Launched in 2009, this project focuses on the conservation of the elusive snow leopard and its fragile high-altitude ecosystem in the Himalayan and trans-Himalayan regions. It adopts a participatory, landscape-based approach, going beyond just protected areas to manage the entire landscape involving local communities. At the international level, India is a key partner in the Global Snow Leopard and Ecosystem Protection (GSLEP) Program, a high-level inter-governmental alliance of all 12 snow leopard range countries.

#### 1. Question

Match the following conservation projects with their primary approach:

List-I (Project) | List-II (Primary Approach)

A. Project Tiger | 1. Landscape-based conservation in high-altitude ecosystems

B. Project Elephant | 2. Securing corridors to facilitate movement between fragmented habitats

C. Project Snow Leopard | 3. Core-buffer strategy with a statutory authority for management

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) A-3, B-2, C-1

• (b) A-1, B-2, C-3

• (c) A-3, B-1, C-2

• (d) A-2, B-3, C-1

Solution: A

• Project Tiger (A): Launched in 1973, this is India’s flagship conservation program. Its strategy revolves around a core-buffer model, where core areas are kept inviolate for breeding populations and buffer areas allow for co-existence. A key development was the creation of the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) in 2005, a statutory body under the WPA, 1972, to administer the project and manage tiger reserves.

• Project Elephant (B): Launched in 1992, this project aims to protect elephants, their habitats, and their corridors. A central focus of the project is to identify and secure traditional elephant corridors to allow for their movement between fragmented forest patches, thereby reducing human-elephant conflict. India is also a key participant in the CITES program MIKE (Monitoring of Illegal Killing of Elephants), which tracks elephant mortality to assess poaching trends.

• Project Snow Leopard (C): Launched in 2009, this project focuses on the conservation of the elusive snow leopard and its fragile high-altitude ecosystem in the Himalayan and trans-Himalayan regions. It adopts a participatory, landscape-based approach, going beyond just protected areas to manage the entire landscape involving local communities. At the international level, India is a key partner in the Global Snow Leopard and Ecosystem Protection (GSLEP) Program, a high-level inter-governmental alliance of all 12 snow leopard range countries.

Solution: A

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements regarding Biological Diversity Act, 2002: The Biological Diversity Act, 2002 was enacted to give effect to the provisions of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD). The Act provides for a three-tiered structure consisting of the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA), State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs), and Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) at the local level. Any person seeking to access biological resources from India for commercial utilization must obtain prior approval only from the State Biodiversity Board of the respective state. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Biological Diversity Act, 2002, was enacted by the Parliament of India primarily to meet the obligations under the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), to which India is a party. The CBD’s main objectives are the conservation of biological diversity, the sustainable use of its components, and the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the use of biological resources. The Indian Act provides a legal framework to achieve these goals. Statement 2 is correct. The Act establishes a decentralized, three-tiered mechanism for its implementation. At the national level, there is the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) in Chennai. At the state level, there are State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs). At the local body level (panchayats, municipalities), there are Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs), which are responsible for promoting conservation, sustainable use, and documentation of biodiversity, including the preparation of People’s Biodiversity Registers (PBRs). Statement 3 is incorrect. The approval process for accessing biological resources depends on the identity of the applicant. Foreign nationals, companies, or non-resident Indians require approval from the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA). Indian citizens or corporate bodies are required to obtain approval from the respective State Biodiversity Board (SBB). Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The Biological Diversity Act, 2002, was enacted by the Parliament of India primarily to meet the obligations under the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), to which India is a party. The CBD’s main objectives are the conservation of biological diversity, the sustainable use of its components, and the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the use of biological resources. The Indian Act provides a legal framework to achieve these goals. Statement 2 is correct. The Act establishes a decentralized, three-tiered mechanism for its implementation. At the national level, there is the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) in Chennai. At the state level, there are State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs). At the local body level (panchayats, municipalities), there are Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs), which are responsible for promoting conservation, sustainable use, and documentation of biodiversity, including the preparation of People’s Biodiversity Registers (PBRs). Statement 3 is incorrect. The approval process for accessing biological resources depends on the identity of the applicant. Foreign nationals, companies, or non-resident Indians require approval from the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA). Indian citizens or corporate bodies are required to obtain approval from the respective State Biodiversity Board (SBB).

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Biological Diversity Act, 2002:

• The Biological Diversity Act, 2002 was enacted to give effect to the provisions of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).

• The Act provides for a three-tiered structure consisting of the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA), State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs), and Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) at the local level.

• Any person seeking to access biological resources from India for commercial utilization must obtain prior approval only from the State Biodiversity Board of the respective state.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The Biological Diversity Act, 2002, was enacted by the Parliament of India primarily to meet the obligations under the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), to which India is a party. The CBD’s main objectives are the conservation of biological diversity, the sustainable use of its components, and the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the use of biological resources. The Indian Act provides a legal framework to achieve these goals.

• Statement 2 is correct. The Act establishes a decentralized, three-tiered mechanism for its implementation. At the national level, there is the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) in Chennai. At the state level, there are State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs). At the local body level (panchayats, municipalities), there are Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs), which are responsible for promoting conservation, sustainable use, and documentation of biodiversity, including the preparation of People’s Biodiversity Registers (PBRs).

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The approval process for accessing biological resources depends on the identity of the applicant. Foreign nationals, companies, or non-resident Indians require approval from the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA). Indian citizens or corporate bodies are required to obtain approval from the respective State Biodiversity Board (SBB).

Solution: B

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements regarding the institutional framework for biodiversity in India: State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs) have the authority to regulate access to biological resources for commercial utilization by foreign companies. The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) can advise the Central Government on opposing the grant of IPRs in other countries on biological resources obtained from India. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. Under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, the power to regulate access for foreign entities (individuals, companies) rests with the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA), not the State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs). SBBs are primarily responsible for granting approvals for commercial utilization or bio-survey to Indian citizens or corporate bodies registered in India. This division of power ensures that all international access requests are handled at the national level. Statement 2 is correct. One of the explicit and crucial functions of the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) is to advise the Central Government on taking necessary measures to oppose the grant of intellectual property rights in any country outside India on any biological resource obtained from India or on knowledge associated with such a resource that has been derived illegally or without proper authorization. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. Under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, the power to regulate access for foreign entities (individuals, companies) rests with the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA), not the State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs). SBBs are primarily responsible for granting approvals for commercial utilization or bio-survey to Indian citizens or corporate bodies registered in India. This division of power ensures that all international access requests are handled at the national level. Statement 2 is correct. One of the explicit and crucial functions of the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) is to advise the Central Government on taking necessary measures to oppose the grant of intellectual property rights in any country outside India on any biological resource obtained from India or on knowledge associated with such a resource that has been derived illegally or without proper authorization.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the institutional framework for biodiversity in India:

• State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs) have the authority to regulate access to biological resources for commercial utilization by foreign companies.

• The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) can advise the Central Government on opposing the grant of IPRs in other countries on biological resources obtained from India.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, the power to regulate access for foreign entities (individuals, companies) rests with the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA), not the State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs). SBBs are primarily responsible for granting approvals for commercial utilization or bio-survey to Indian citizens or corporate bodies registered in India. This division of power ensures that all international access requests are handled at the national level.

• Statement 2 is correct. One of the explicit and crucial functions of the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) is to advise the Central Government on taking necessary measures to oppose the grant of intellectual property rights in any country outside India on any biological resource obtained from India or on knowledge associated with such a resource that has been derived illegally or without proper authorization.

Solution: B

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements regarding the conservation status of the Gangetic River Dolphin: It is classified as ‘Critically Endangered’ on the IUCN Red List. It is included in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. It is an indicator species for river ecosystem health, and its presence signals a healthy aquatic environment. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Gangetic River Dolphin (Platanista gangetica) is classified as ‘Endangered’ on the IUCN Red List, not ‘Critically Endangered’. While its population faces severe threats from pollution, habitat fragmentation due to dams and barrages, and accidental entanglement in fishing nets, its current threat level is categorized as Endangered. Statement 2 is correct. In India, the Gangetic Dolphin is accorded the highest level of legal protection. It is listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. This makes hunting, poaching, or any form of harm to the species a serious offense with stringent penalties. This legal status is a cornerstone of its conservation efforts. Statement 3 is correct. The Gangetic Dolphin is widely regarded as an indicator species. It is at the top of the aquatic food chain and is highly sensitive to changes in water quality and flow. Therefore, the presence of a viable dolphin population is generally considered a sign of a healthy river ecosystem. Conversely, a decline in its population signals degradation of the aquatic habitat, affecting the entire food web. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. The Gangetic River Dolphin (Platanista gangetica) is classified as ‘Endangered’ on the IUCN Red List, not ‘Critically Endangered’. While its population faces severe threats from pollution, habitat fragmentation due to dams and barrages, and accidental entanglement in fishing nets, its current threat level is categorized as Endangered. Statement 2 is correct. In India, the Gangetic Dolphin is accorded the highest level of legal protection. It is listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. This makes hunting, poaching, or any form of harm to the species a serious offense with stringent penalties. This legal status is a cornerstone of its conservation efforts. Statement 3 is correct. The Gangetic Dolphin is widely regarded as an indicator species. It is at the top of the aquatic food chain and is highly sensitive to changes in water quality and flow. Therefore, the presence of a viable dolphin population is generally considered a sign of a healthy river ecosystem. Conversely, a decline in its population signals degradation of the aquatic habitat, affecting the entire food web.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the conservation status of the Gangetic River Dolphin:

• It is classified as ‘Critically Endangered’ on the IUCN Red List.

• It is included in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

• It is an indicator species for river ecosystem health, and its presence signals a healthy aquatic environment.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Gangetic River Dolphin (Platanista gangetica) is classified as ‘Endangered’ on the IUCN Red List, not ‘Critically Endangered’. While its population faces severe threats from pollution, habitat fragmentation due to dams and barrages, and accidental entanglement in fishing nets, its current threat level is categorized as Endangered.

• Statement 2 is correct. In India, the Gangetic Dolphin is accorded the highest level of legal protection. It is listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. This makes hunting, poaching, or any form of harm to the species a serious offense with stringent penalties. This legal status is a cornerstone of its conservation efforts.

• Statement 3 is correct. The Gangetic Dolphin is widely regarded as an indicator species. It is at the top of the aquatic food chain and is highly sensitive to changes in water quality and flow. Therefore, the presence of a viable dolphin population is generally considered a sign of a healthy river ecosystem. Conversely, a decline in its population signals degradation of the aquatic habitat, affecting the entire food web.

Solution: B

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question With reference to the ‘National Green Hydrogen Mission’ (NGHM), consider the following statements: Statement I: The Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition (SIGHT) programme provides direct financial incentives for both the domestic manufacturing of electrolysers and the production of Green Hydrogen. Statement II: To be eligible for incentives under the mission, projects must utilize electrolysers that have 100% domestic content origin from the commencement of the scheme. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Statement I is Correct:The SIGHT programme is the core financial mechanism of the NGHM. It is divided into two distinct components: Component I targets the manufacturing of electrolysers, and Component II targets the production of Green Hydrogen This dual-incentive structure aims to solve the “chicken-and-egg” problem of supply and demand. Statement II is Incorrect:The mission guidelines specify “Local Value Addition” (LVA) requirements, but they are not 100% from day one. For example, for alkaline electrolysers, the minimum LVA might start at 40% in the first year and scale up progressively. The scheme is designed to encourage indigenization over time, not to ban imports immediately, which would stall project deployment. Incorrect Solution: C Statement I is Correct:The SIGHT programme is the core financial mechanism of the NGHM. It is divided into two distinct components: Component I targets the manufacturing of electrolysers, and Component II targets the production of Green Hydrogen This dual-incentive structure aims to solve the “chicken-and-egg” problem of supply and demand. Statement II is Incorrect:The mission guidelines specify “Local Value Addition” (LVA) requirements, but they are not 100% from day one. For example, for alkaline electrolysers, the minimum LVA might start at 40% in the first year and scale up progressively. The scheme is designed to encourage indigenization over time, not to ban imports immediately, which would stall project deployment.

#### 5. Question

With reference to the ‘National Green Hydrogen Mission’ (NGHM), consider the following statements:

Statement I: The Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition (SIGHT) programme provides direct financial incentives for both the domestic manufacturing of electrolysers and the production of Green Hydrogen.

Statement II: To be eligible for incentives under the mission, projects must utilize electrolysers that have 100% domestic content origin from the commencement of the scheme.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

• Statement I is Correct:The SIGHT programme is the core financial mechanism of the NGHM. It is divided into two distinct components: Component I targets the manufacturing of electrolysers, and Component II targets the production of Green Hydrogen This dual-incentive structure aims to solve the “chicken-and-egg” problem of supply and demand.

• Statement II is Incorrect:The mission guidelines specify “Local Value Addition” (LVA) requirements, but they are not 100% from day one. For example, for alkaline electrolysers, the minimum LVA might start at 40% in the first year and scale up progressively. The scheme is designed to encourage indigenization over time, not to ban imports immediately, which would stall project deployment.

Solution: C

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