UPSC Static Quiz – Environment : 11 November 2025

UPSC Static Quiz – Environment : 11 November 2025 We will post 5 questions daily on static topics mentioned in the UPSC civil services preliminary examination syllabus. Each week will focus on a specific topic from the syllabus, such as History of India and Indian National Movement, Indian and World Geography, and more. We are excited to bring you our daily UPSC Static Quiz, designed to help you prepare for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination. Each day, we will post 5 questions on static topics mentioned in the UPSC syllabus. This week, we are focusing on Indian and World Geography.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Which of the following activities are permissible within a Biosphere Reserve, but are generally restricted or prohibited in a National Park? Scientific research and monitoring in the core area. Settlements of indigenous communities in the buffer zone. Ecotourism and recreational activities in the transition zone. Intensive agricultural practices in the buffer zone. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only Correct Solution: B In a Biosphere Reserve, the management structure is zoned into three areas — core, buffer, and transition zones — each allowing progressively greater human interaction. The core area is strictly protected for biodiversity conservation and minimal disturbance; only non-destructive research and monitoring are allowed under strict regulation. The buffer zone allows limited human activity such as settlements of local and tribal communities, sustainable resource collection, and conservation-oriented development. The transition zone permits ecotourism, environmental education, and sustainable economic activities, integrating local livelihoods with conservation. In contrast, a National Park has much stricter protection norms. Human habitation, grazing, or exploitation of resources are prohibited within its boundaries. Therefore, settlements of indigenous communities and ecotourism in designated transition areas are permissible in Biosphere Reserves but not generally allowed in National Parks. Intensive agriculture is discouraged even in buffer zones as it contradicts the conservation objective. Incorrect Solution: B In a Biosphere Reserve, the management structure is zoned into three areas — core, buffer, and transition zones — each allowing progressively greater human interaction. The core area is strictly protected for biodiversity conservation and minimal disturbance; only non-destructive research and monitoring are allowed under strict regulation. The buffer zone allows limited human activity such as settlements of local and tribal communities, sustainable resource collection, and conservation-oriented development. The transition zone permits ecotourism, environmental education, and sustainable economic activities, integrating local livelihoods with conservation. In contrast, a National Park has much stricter protection norms. Human habitation, grazing, or exploitation of resources are prohibited within its boundaries. Therefore, settlements of indigenous communities and ecotourism in designated transition areas are permissible in Biosphere Reserves but not generally allowed in National Parks. Intensive agriculture is discouraged even in buffer zones as it contradicts the conservation objective.

#### 1. Question

Which of the following activities are permissible within a Biosphere Reserve, but are generally restricted or prohibited in a National Park?

• Scientific research and monitoring in the core area.

• Settlements of indigenous communities in the buffer zone.

• Ecotourism and recreational activities in the transition zone.

• Intensive agricultural practices in the buffer zone.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 4 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 3 only

• (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Solution: B

In a Biosphere Reserve, the management structure is zoned into three areas — core, buffer, and transition zones — each allowing progressively greater human interaction.

• The core area is strictly protected for biodiversity conservation and minimal disturbance; only non-destructive research and monitoring are allowed under strict regulation.

• The buffer zone allows limited human activity such as settlements of local and tribal communities, sustainable resource collection, and conservation-oriented development.

• The transition zone permits ecotourism, environmental education, and sustainable economic activities, integrating local livelihoods with conservation.

In contrast, a National Park has much stricter protection norms. Human habitation, grazing, or exploitation of resources are prohibited within its boundaries. Therefore, settlements of indigenous communities and ecotourism in designated transition areas are permissible in Biosphere Reserves but not generally allowed in National Parks. Intensive agriculture is discouraged even in buffer zones as it contradicts the conservation objective.

Solution: B

In a Biosphere Reserve, the management structure is zoned into three areas — core, buffer, and transition zones — each allowing progressively greater human interaction.

• The core area is strictly protected for biodiversity conservation and minimal disturbance; only non-destructive research and monitoring are allowed under strict regulation.

• The buffer zone allows limited human activity such as settlements of local and tribal communities, sustainable resource collection, and conservation-oriented development.

• The transition zone permits ecotourism, environmental education, and sustainable economic activities, integrating local livelihoods with conservation.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements. Statement I: The Biological Diversity Act, 2002, provides for the establishment of Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) at the level of local bodies. Statement II: The primary mandate of the BMCs is to prepare People’s Biodiversity Registers (PBRs) to document local biodiversity and associated knowledge, which serves as a legal tool to assert community rights and counter biopiracy. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I. (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I. (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. Correct Solution: A Statement I is correct. Section 41 of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, explicitly mandates that every local body in the country shall constitute a Biodiversity Management Committee (BMC). This is a key feature of the Act’s decentralized, three-tier implementation structure. Statement II is also correct. The principal function of the BMC is the preparation of the People’s Biodiversity Register (PBR) in consultation with the local populace. The PBR is not merely an academic exercise; it is intended to be a legal document that formally records the biodiversity and traditional knowledge of a region. This documentation is crucial for establishing community rights over these resources and can be used as evidence of “prior art” to challenge illegitimate patents, thus acting as a direct measure to counter biopiracy. Statement II provides the core rationale and purpose for the establishment of BMCs mentioned in Statement I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is correct. Section 41 of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, explicitly mandates that every local body in the country shall constitute a Biodiversity Management Committee (BMC). This is a key feature of the Act’s decentralized, three-tier implementation structure. Statement II is also correct. The principal function of the BMC is the preparation of the People’s Biodiversity Register (PBR) in consultation with the local populace. The PBR is not merely an academic exercise; it is intended to be a legal document that formally records the biodiversity and traditional knowledge of a region. This documentation is crucial for establishing community rights over these resources and can be used as evidence of “prior art” to challenge illegitimate patents, thus acting as a direct measure to counter biopiracy. Statement II provides the core rationale and purpose for the establishment of BMCs mentioned in Statement I.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements.

Statement I: The Biological Diversity Act, 2002, provides for the establishment of Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) at the level of local bodies.

Statement II: The primary mandate of the BMCs is to prepare People’s Biodiversity Registers (PBRs) to document local biodiversity and associated knowledge, which serves as a legal tool to assert community rights and counter biopiracy.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.

• (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I.

• (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

• (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Solution: A

• Statement I is correct. Section 41 of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, explicitly mandates that every local body in the country shall constitute a Biodiversity Management Committee (BMC). This is a key feature of the Act’s decentralized, three-tier implementation structure.

• Statement II is also correct. The principal function of the BMC is the preparation of the People’s Biodiversity Register (PBR) in consultation with the local populace. The PBR is not merely an academic exercise; it is intended to be a legal document that formally records the biodiversity and traditional knowledge of a region. This documentation is crucial for establishing community rights over these resources and can be used as evidence of “prior art” to challenge illegitimate patents, thus acting as a direct measure to counter biopiracy.

• Statement II provides the core rationale and purpose for the establishment of BMCs mentioned in Statement I.

Solution: A

• Statement II provides the core rationale and purpose for the establishment of BMCs mentioned in Statement I.

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question The implementation of the ‘Precautionary Principle’ is a central feature of which of the following international agreements? (a) The Nagoya Protocol on Access and Benefit-Sharing (b) The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety (c) The Kyoto Protocol (d) The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands Correct Solution: B The Precautionary Principle generally states that where there are threats of serious or irreversible damage, lack of full scientific certainty shall not be used as a reason for postponing cost-effective measures to prevent environmental degradation. This principle is the operational and philosophical cornerstone of the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety. Article 1 of the Protocol explicitly states that its objective is in accordance with the precautionary approach. It allows an importing country to refuse the import of a Living Modified Organism (LMO) even if there is no conclusive scientific proof of its harm, as long as there is a perceived risk and insufficient scientific information. This empowers nations to prioritize environmental and health safety over trade when dealing with the uncertainties of modern biotechnology. The Nagoya Protocol is based on principles of equity and prior informed consent. The Kyoto Protocol deals with greenhouse gas emission reduction targets. The Ramsar Convention focuses on the conservation and wise use of wetlands. Incorrect Solution: B The Precautionary Principle generally states that where there are threats of serious or irreversible damage, lack of full scientific certainty shall not be used as a reason for postponing cost-effective measures to prevent environmental degradation. This principle is the operational and philosophical cornerstone of the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety. Article 1 of the Protocol explicitly states that its objective is in accordance with the precautionary approach. It allows an importing country to refuse the import of a Living Modified Organism (LMO) even if there is no conclusive scientific proof of its harm, as long as there is a perceived risk and insufficient scientific information. This empowers nations to prioritize environmental and health safety over trade when dealing with the uncertainties of modern biotechnology. The Nagoya Protocol is based on principles of equity and prior informed consent. The Kyoto Protocol deals with greenhouse gas emission reduction targets. The Ramsar Convention focuses on the conservation and wise use of wetlands.

#### 3. Question

The implementation of the ‘Precautionary Principle’ is a central feature of which of the following international agreements?

• (a) The Nagoya Protocol on Access and Benefit-Sharing

• (b) The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety

• (c) The Kyoto Protocol

• (d) The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands

Solution: B

• The Precautionary Principle generally states that where there are threats of serious or irreversible damage, lack of full scientific certainty shall not be used as a reason for postponing cost-effective measures to prevent environmental degradation.

• This principle is the operational and philosophical cornerstone of the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety. Article 1 of the Protocol explicitly states that its objective is in accordance with the precautionary approach.

• It allows an importing country to refuse the import of a Living Modified Organism (LMO) even if there is no conclusive scientific proof of its harm, as long as there is a perceived risk and insufficient scientific information. This empowers nations to prioritize environmental and health safety over trade when dealing with the uncertainties of modern biotechnology.

• The Nagoya Protocol is based on principles of equity and prior informed consent. The Kyoto Protocol deals with greenhouse gas emission reduction targets. The Ramsar Convention focuses on the conservation and wise use of wetlands.

Solution: B

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question In the context of biotechnology and its applications, the term ‘RNA interference’ is sometimes seen in the news. What is its most relevant application in the domain of biosafety and agriculture? (a) It is a technique used in gene therapy to correct defective genes in human somatic cells. (b) It is a natural process in cells that can be harnessed to create plants resistant to specific pests like nematodes. (c) It is a diagnostic method used to detect the presence of viral DNA in a patient's blood sample. (d) It is a method of bioremediation where microbes are used to interfere with and break down pollutants. Correct Solution: B RNA interference (RNAi) is a biological process in which RNA molecules inhibit gene expression or translation, by neutralizing targeted messenger RNA (mRNA) molecules. This natural defense mechanism has been ingeniously applied in agriculture to develop pest-resistant plants. For example, transgenic tobacco plants have been created that produce double-stranded RNA specific to a vital gene in the nematode Meloidegyne incognita. When the nematode feeds on the plant roots, it ingests this dsRNA, which triggers RNAi, silences the essential gene, and leads to the death of the pest. This creates a highly specific biopesticide within the plant itself, enhancing agricultural productivity and biosafety by reducing chemical pesticide use. Incorrect Solution: B RNA interference (RNAi) is a biological process in which RNA molecules inhibit gene expression or translation, by neutralizing targeted messenger RNA (mRNA) molecules. This natural defense mechanism has been ingeniously applied in agriculture to develop pest-resistant plants. For example, transgenic tobacco plants have been created that produce double-stranded RNA specific to a vital gene in the nematode Meloidegyne incognita. When the nematode feeds on the plant roots, it ingests this dsRNA, which triggers RNAi, silences the essential gene, and leads to the death of the pest. This creates a highly specific biopesticide within the plant itself, enhancing agricultural productivity and biosafety by reducing chemical pesticide use.

#### 4. Question

In the context of biotechnology and its applications, the term ‘RNA interference’ is sometimes seen in the news. What is its most relevant application in the domain of biosafety and agriculture?

• (a) It is a technique used in gene therapy to correct defective genes in human somatic cells.

• (b) It is a natural process in cells that can be harnessed to create plants resistant to specific pests like nematodes.

• (c) It is a diagnostic method used to detect the presence of viral DNA in a patient's blood sample.

• (d) It is a method of bioremediation where microbes are used to interfere with and break down pollutants.

Solution: B

RNA interference (RNAi) is a biological process in which RNA molecules inhibit gene expression or translation, by neutralizing targeted messenger RNA (mRNA) molecules. This natural defense mechanism has been ingeniously applied in agriculture to develop pest-resistant plants. For example, transgenic tobacco plants have been created that produce double-stranded RNA specific to a vital gene in the nematode Meloidegyne incognita. When the nematode feeds on the plant roots, it ingests this dsRNA, which triggers RNAi, silences the essential gene, and leads to the death of the pest. This creates a highly specific biopesticide within the plant itself, enhancing agricultural productivity and biosafety by reducing chemical pesticide use.

Solution: B

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Which of the following statements is correct regarding the institutional framework for pollution control in India? (a) The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) was established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. (b) The primary function of State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs) is to advise the Central Government on matters of air and water pollution. (c) The CPCB has the authority to issue directions to SPCBs, and in case of any inconsistency, the directions of the CPCB prevail. (d) The Chairman of the CPCB is appointed by a collegium of all State Environment Ministers. Correct Solution: C (a) is incorrect. The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) was constituted in September 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. It was later entrusted with powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, and also provides technical services to the Ministry of Environment under the EPA, 1986, but its establishment predates the EPA. (b) is incorrect. The primary function of State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs) is to plan and execute programs for the prevention, control, and abatement of pollution within their respective states. Their primary advisory role is to the State Government, not the Central Government. The CPCB is the body that advises the Central Government on these matters. (c) is correct. The legal framework establishes a clear hierarchy. The CPCB is mandated to coordinate the activities of the SPCBs and resolve disputes among them. Both the Water Act and the Air Act empower the CPCB to issue directions to the SPCBs, and these directions are binding. In case of any inconsistency between the directions given by the Central Government/CPCB and the State Government/SPCB, the directions of the central authorities shall prevail. This ensures a uniform national policy on pollution control. (d) is incorrect. The composition of the CPCB is specified in the Water Act, 1974. The Chairman of the CPCB, a full-time position, is nominated by the Central Government. There is no provision for appointment by a collegium of State Environment Ministers. Incorrect Solution: C (a) is incorrect. The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) was constituted in September 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. It was later entrusted with powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, and also provides technical services to the Ministry of Environment under the EPA, 1986, but its establishment predates the EPA. (b) is incorrect. The primary function of State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs) is to plan and execute programs for the prevention, control, and abatement of pollution within their respective states. Their primary advisory role is to the State Government, not the Central Government. The CPCB is the body that advises the Central Government on these matters. (c) is correct. The legal framework establishes a clear hierarchy. The CPCB is mandated to coordinate the activities of the SPCBs and resolve disputes among them. Both the Water Act and the Air Act empower the CPCB to issue directions to the SPCBs, and these directions are binding. In case of any inconsistency between the directions given by the Central Government/CPCB and the State Government/SPCB, the directions of the central authorities shall prevail. This ensures a uniform national policy on pollution control. (d) is incorrect. The composition of the CPCB is specified in the Water Act, 1974. The Chairman of the CPCB, a full-time position, is nominated by the Central Government. There is no provision for appointment by a collegium of State Environment Ministers.

#### 5. Question

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the institutional framework for pollution control in India?

• (a) The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) was established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

• (b) The primary function of State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs) is to advise the Central Government on matters of air and water pollution.

• (c) The CPCB has the authority to issue directions to SPCBs, and in case of any inconsistency, the directions of the CPCB prevail.

• (d) The Chairman of the CPCB is appointed by a collegium of all State Environment Ministers.

Solution: C

(a) is incorrect. The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) was constituted in September 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. It was later entrusted with powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, and also provides technical services to the Ministry of Environment under the EPA, 1986, but its establishment predates the EPA.

(b) is incorrect. The primary function of State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs) is to plan and execute programs for the prevention, control, and abatement of pollution within their respective states. Their primary advisory role is to the State Government, not the Central Government. The CPCB is the body that advises the Central Government on these matters.

(c) is correct. The legal framework establishes a clear hierarchy. The CPCB is mandated to coordinate the activities of the SPCBs and resolve disputes among them. Both the Water Act and the Air Act empower the CPCB to issue directions to the SPCBs, and these directions are binding. In case of any inconsistency between the directions given by the Central Government/CPCB and the State Government/SPCB, the directions of the central authorities shall prevail. This ensures a uniform national policy on pollution control.

(d) is incorrect. The composition of the CPCB is specified in the Water Act, 1974. The Chairman of the CPCB, a full-time position, is nominated by the Central Government. There is no provision for appointment by a collegium of State Environment Ministers.

Solution: C

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