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UPSC Insta–DART (Daily Aptitude and Reasoning Test) 23 Dec 2025

Kartavya Desk Staff

Considering the alarming importance of CSAT in UPSC CSE Prelims exam and with enormous requests we received recently, InsightsIAS has started Daily CSAT Test to ensure students practice CSAT Questions on a daily basis. Regular Practice would help one overcome the fear of CSAT too.We are naming this initiative as Insta– DART – Daily Aptitude and Reasoning Test. We hope you will be able to use DART to hit bull’s eye in CSAT paper and comfortably score 100+ even in the most difficult question paper that UPSC can give you in CSP-2021. Your peace of mind after every step of this exam is very important for us.

Looking forward to your enthusiastic participation (both in sending us questions and solving them on daily basis on this portal).

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question A refrigerator with marked price Rs. 32,000 is sold at successive discounts of 25% and 12%. The buyer spends Rs. 1,800 on transportation and then sells it for Rs. 29,000. What is the profit or loss percentage? (a) 22.45% (b) 25% (c) 26.53% (d) 30.15% Correct Answer: (c) Explanation Marked price = 32,000 Total discount = 25 + 12 – (25×12)/100 = 37 – 3 = 34% So the effective price = 66% of 32,000 = 0.66 × 32,000 = 21,120 Add transportation cost = 1,800 Total CP = 21,120 + 1,800 = 22,920 Selling price = 29,000 Profit = 29,000 – 22,920 = 6,080 Profit% = (6,080 ÷ 22,920) × 100 = 26.53% Incorrect Answer: (c) Explanation Marked price = 32,000 Total discount = 25 + 12 – (25×12)/100 = 37 – 3 = 34% So the effective price = 66% of 32,000 = 0.66 × 32,000 = 21,120 Add transportation cost = 1,800 Total CP = 21,120 + 1,800 = 22,920 Selling price = 29,000 Profit = 29,000 – 22,920 = 6,080 Profit% = (6,080 ÷ 22,920) × 100 = 26.53%

#### 1. Question

A refrigerator with marked price Rs. 32,000 is sold at successive discounts of 25% and 12%. The buyer spends Rs. 1,800 on transportation and then sells it for Rs. 29,000. What is the profit or loss percentage?

• (a) 22.45%

• (c) 26.53%

• (d) 30.15%

Answer: (c)

Explanation

Marked price = 32,000

Total discount = 25 + 12 – (25×12)/100 = 37 – 3 = 34%

So the effective price = 66% of 32,000 = 0.66 × 32,000 = 21,120

Add transportation cost = 1,800 Total CP = 21,120 + 1,800 = 22,920

Selling price = 29,000

Profit = 29,000 – 22,920 = 6,080

Profit% = (6,080 ÷ 22,920) × 100 = 26.53%

Answer: (c)

Explanation

Marked price = 32,000

Total discount = 25 + 12 – (25×12)/100 = 37 – 3 = 34%

So the effective price = 66% of 32,000 = 0.66 × 32,000 = 21,120

Add transportation cost = 1,800 Total CP = 21,120 + 1,800 = 22,920

Selling price = 29,000

Profit = 29,000 – 22,920 = 6,080

Profit% = (6,080 ÷ 22,920) × 100 = 26.53%

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Akarsh invests Rs. x in corporate bonds which give him returns at 69% annually (simple for 1 year), and Rs. y in a mutual fund that gives 12% returns compounded half yearly. If Akarsh gets the same returns from both the investments after 1 year, then what is the square root of the ratio x : y? (a) 53 : 65 (b) 65 : 53 (c) 21 : 22 (d) 22 : 21 Correct Answer: (a) Explanation Amount from corporate bonds after one year: A1 = (100 + 69)% of x = 169% of x For mutual fund, 12% compounded half-yearly means 6% each half year. Using net% effect: Net% = a + b + (ab/100) Here, a = b = 6% Net% effect = 6 + 6 + (6 × 6)/100 = 12 + 0.36 = 12.36% So effective annual rate = 12.36% Amount from mutual funds after one year: A2 = (100 + 12.36)% of y = 112.36% of y Given A1 = A2 169% of x = 112.36% of y 169x = 112.36y x / y = 112.36 / 169 Write 112.36 as fraction: 112.36 = 11236 / 100 So, x / y = (11236 / 100) ÷ 169 = 11236 / 16900 Divide numerator and denominator by 4: = 2809 / 4225 Note: 2809 = 53² and 4225 = 65² So, x / y = 53² / 65² Taking square root, √(x / y) = 53 / 65 Hence, the square root of the ratio x : y is 53 : 65. Incorrect Answer: (a) Explanation Amount from corporate bonds after one year: A1 = (100 + 69)% of x = 169% of x For mutual fund, 12% compounded half-yearly means 6% each half year. Using net% effect: Net% = a + b + (ab/100) Here, a = b = 6% Net% effect = 6 + 6 + (6 × 6)/100 = 12 + 0.36 = 12.36% So effective annual rate = 12.36% Amount from mutual funds after one year: A2 = (100 + 12.36)% of y = 112.36% of y Given A1 = A2 169% of x = 112.36% of y 169x = 112.36y x / y = 112.36 / 169 Write 112.36 as fraction: 112.36 = 11236 / 100 So, x / y = (11236 / 100) ÷ 169 = 11236 / 16900 Divide numerator and denominator by 4: = 2809 / 4225 Note: 2809 = 53² and 4225 = 65² So, x / y = 53² / 65² Taking square root, √(x / y) = 53 / 65 Hence, the square root of the ratio x : y is 53 : 65.

#### 2. Question

Akarsh invests Rs. x in corporate bonds which give him returns at 69% annually (simple for 1 year), and Rs. y in a mutual fund that gives 12% returns compounded half yearly. If Akarsh gets the same returns from both the investments after 1 year, then what is the square root of the ratio x : y?

• (a) 53 : 65

• (b) 65 : 53

• (c) 21 : 22

• (d) 22 : 21

Answer: (a)

Explanation Amount from corporate bonds after one year: A1 = (100 + 69)% of x = 169% of x

For mutual fund, 12% compounded half-yearly means 6% each half year.

Using net% effect: Net% = a + b + (ab/100)

Here, a = b = 6%

Net% effect = 6 + 6 + (6 × 6)/100 = 12 + 0.36 = 12.36%

So effective annual rate = 12.36%

Amount from mutual funds after one year: A2 = (100 + 12.36)% of y = 112.36% of y

Given A1 = A2

169% of x = 112.36% of y

169x = 112.36y

x / y = 112.36 / 169

Write 112.36 as fraction: 112.36 = 11236 / 100

So, x / y = (11236 / 100) ÷ 169 = 11236 / 16900

Divide numerator and denominator by 4: = 2809 / 4225

Note: 2809 = 53² and 4225 = 65²

So, x / y = 53² / 65²

Taking square root, √(x / y) = 53 / 65

Hence, the square root of the ratio x : y is 53 : 65.

Answer: (a)

Explanation Amount from corporate bonds after one year: A1 = (100 + 69)% of x = 169% of x

For mutual fund, 12% compounded half-yearly means 6% each half year.

Using net% effect: Net% = a + b + (ab/100)

Here, a = b = 6%

Net% effect = 6 + 6 + (6 × 6)/100 = 12 + 0.36 = 12.36%

So effective annual rate = 12.36%

Amount from mutual funds after one year: A2 = (100 + 12.36)% of y = 112.36% of y

Given A1 = A2

169% of x = 112.36% of y

169x = 112.36y

x / y = 112.36 / 169

Write 112.36 as fraction: 112.36 = 11236 / 100

So, x / y = (11236 / 100) ÷ 169 = 11236 / 16900

Divide numerator and denominator by 4: = 2809 / 4225

Note: 2809 = 53² and 4225 = 65²

So, x / y = 53² / 65²

Taking square root, √(x / y) = 53 / 65

Hence, the square root of the ratio x : y is 53 : 65.

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question A clock gains 3% of the week-time during the first week and then gains 2% of the week-time during the next one week. If the clock was set right at 12 noon on a Friday, what will be the time that the clock will show exactly 14 days from the time it was set right? (a) 6:24 p.m. (b) 8:24 p.m. (c) 9:12 p.m. (d) 10:36 p.m. Correct Answer: (b) Again, a week has 168 hours. In the first week, the clock gains 3% of 168 hours = (3/100) × 168 = 5.04 hours. So after the first week it is 5.04 hours fast. In the second week, it gains another 2% of 168 hours = (2/100) × 168 = 3.36 hours. So the additional gain in the second week is 3.36 hours. Net gain over the two weeks = 5.04 + 3.36 = 8.40 hours. Thus, after 14 days, when the actual time is 12 noon, the clock is 8.40 hours fast. Now 0.40 hours = 0.40 × 60 = 24 minutes, so 8.40 hours = 8 hours 24 minutes. Therefore, the clock will show 8:24 p.m. instead of 12 noon. Hence, option (b) is correct. Incorrect Answer: (b) Again, a week has 168 hours. In the first week, the clock gains 3% of 168 hours = (3/100) × 168 = 5.04 hours. So after the first week it is 5.04 hours fast. In the second week, it gains another 2% of 168 hours = (2/100) × 168 = 3.36 hours. So the additional gain in the second week is 3.36 hours. Net gain over the two weeks = 5.04 + 3.36 = 8.40 hours. Thus, after 14 days, when the actual time is 12 noon, the clock is 8.40 hours fast. Now 0.40 hours = 0.40 × 60 = 24 minutes, so 8.40 hours = 8 hours 24 minutes. Therefore, the clock will show 8:24 p.m. instead of 12 noon. Hence, option (b) is correct.

#### 3. Question

A clock gains 3% of the week-time during the first week and then gains 2% of the week-time during the next one week. If the clock was set right at 12 noon on a Friday, what will be the time that the clock will show exactly 14 days from the time it was set right?

• (a) 6:24 p.m.

• (b) 8:24 p.m.

• (c) 9:12 p.m.

• (d) 10:36 p.m.

Answer: (b)

Again, a week has 168 hours. In the first week, the clock gains 3% of 168 hours = (3/100) × 168 = 5.04 hours. So after the first week it is 5.04 hours fast. In the second week, it gains another 2% of 168 hours = (2/100) × 168 = 3.36 hours. So the additional gain in the second week is 3.36 hours. Net gain over the two weeks = 5.04 + 3.36 = 8.40 hours. Thus, after 14 days, when the actual time is 12 noon, the clock is 8.40 hours fast. Now 0.40 hours = 0.40 × 60 = 24 minutes, so 8.40 hours = 8 hours 24 minutes. Therefore, the clock will show 8:24 p.m. instead of 12 noon.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Answer: (b)

Again, a week has 168 hours. In the first week, the clock gains 3% of 168 hours = (3/100) × 168 = 5.04 hours. So after the first week it is 5.04 hours fast. In the second week, it gains another 2% of 168 hours = (2/100) × 168 = 3.36 hours. So the additional gain in the second week is 3.36 hours. Net gain over the two weeks = 5.04 + 3.36 = 8.40 hours. Thus, after 14 days, when the actual time is 12 noon, the clock is 8.40 hours fast. Now 0.40 hours = 0.40 × 60 = 24 minutes, so 8.40 hours = 8 hours 24 minutes. Therefore, the clock will show 8:24 p.m. instead of 12 noon.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question A, B, C, D and E play a game of cards. A says to B, “If you give me five cards, you will then have twice as many cards as E has, and if I give you seven cards, you will then have as many cards as D has.” A and B together have 6 more cards than what C and D together have. C has four cards more than what E has. If the total number of cards is 108, how many cards does B have? (a) 19 (b) 21 (c) 23 (d) 25 Correct Answer: (d) As per the question: B − 5 = 2E …(i) B + 7 = D …(ii) A + B = C + D + 6 …(iii) C = E + 4 …(iv) A + B + C + D + E = 108 …(v) From (i), B = 2E + 5 …(vi) From (ii), D = B + 7 …(vii) From (iv), C = E + 4 …(viii) Using (iii), A + B = C + D + 6 = (E + 4) + (B + 7) + 6 = B + E + 17 ∴ A = E + 17 …(ix) Now use (vi), (vii), (viii), (ix) in (v): A + B + C + D + E = (E + 17) + (2E + 5) + (E + 4) + (2E + 12) + E = (E + 2E + E + 2E + E) + (17 + 5 + 4 + 12) = 7E + 38 = 108 ∴ 7E = 70 ⇒ E = 10 From (vi), B = 2E + 5 = 20 + 5 = 25 Hence, option (d) is correct. Incorrect Answer: (d) As per the question: B − 5 = 2E …(i) B + 7 = D …(ii) A + B = C + D + 6 …(iii) C = E + 4 …(iv) A + B + C + D + E = 108 …(v) From (i), B = 2E + 5 …(vi) From (ii), D = B + 7 …(vii) From (iv), C = E + 4 …(viii) Using (iii), A + B = C + D + 6 = (E + 4) + (B + 7) + 6 = B + E + 17 ∴ A = E + 17 …(ix) Now use (vi), (vii), (viii), (ix) in (v): A + B + C + D + E = (E + 17) + (2E + 5) + (E + 4) + (2E + 12) + E = (E + 2E + E + 2E + E) + (17 + 5 + 4 + 12) = 7E + 38 = 108 ∴ 7E = 70 ⇒ E = 10 From (vi), B = 2E + 5 = 20 + 5 = 25 Hence, option (d) is correct.

#### 4. Question

A, B, C, D and E play a game of cards. A says to B, “If you give me five cards, you will then have twice as many cards as E has, and if I give you seven cards, you will then have as many cards as D has.” A and B together have 6 more cards than what C and D together have. C has four cards more than what E has. If the total number of cards is 108, how many cards does B have?

Answer: (d)

As per the question: B − 5 = 2E …(i) B + 7 = D …(ii) A + B = C + D + 6 …(iii) C = E + 4 …(iv) A + B + C + D + E = 108 …(v)

From (i), B = 2E + 5 …(vi)

From (ii), D = B + 7 …(vii)

From (iv), C = E + 4 …(viii)

Using (iii), A + B = C + D + 6 = (E + 4) + (B + 7) + 6 = B + E + 17

∴ A = E + 17 …(ix)

Now use (vi), (vii), (viii), (ix) in (v): A + B + C + D + E = (E + 17) + (2E + 5) + (E + 4) + (2E + 12) + E = (E + 2E + E + 2E + E) + (17 + 5 + 4 + 12) = 7E + 38 = 108

∴ 7E = 70 ⇒ E = 10

From (vi), B = 2E + 5 = 20 + 5 = 25

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Answer: (d)

As per the question: B − 5 = 2E …(i) B + 7 = D …(ii) A + B = C + D + 6 …(iii) C = E + 4 …(iv) A + B + C + D + E = 108 …(v)

From (i), B = 2E + 5 …(vi)

From (ii), D = B + 7 …(vii)

From (iv), C = E + 4 …(viii)

Using (iii), A + B = C + D + 6 = (E + 4) + (B + 7) + 6 = B + E + 17

∴ A = E + 17 …(ix)

Now use (vi), (vii), (viii), (ix) in (v): A + B + C + D + E = (E + 17) + (2E + 5) + (E + 4) + (2E + 12) + E = (E + 2E + E + 2E + E) + (17 + 5 + 4 + 12) = 7E + 38 = 108

∴ 7E = 70 ⇒ E = 10

From (vi), B = 2E + 5 = 20 + 5 = 25

Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question A TV has a marked price of ₹25,000. It is sold at successive discounts of 20% and 5%. If the buyer spends ₹500 on transport and sells it at ₹21,500, find the profit or loss percentage. (a) 15% loss (b) 20% profit (c) 10.26% profit (d) 12% loss Correct Answer: (c) Explanation: Marked price = ₹25,000. Total discount = 20 + 5 – (20×5)/100 = 25 – 1 = 24%. Price after discount = 76% of 25,000 = ₹19,000. Add transport = 19,000 + 500 = ₹19,500. Selling price = ₹21,500. Profit = 21,500 – 19,500 = ₹2,000. Profit% = (2,000 / 19,500) × 100 = 10.26% Incorrect Answer: (c) Explanation: Marked price = ₹25,000. Total discount = 20 + 5 – (20×5)/100 = 25 – 1 = 24%. Price after discount = 76% of 25,000 = ₹19,000. Add transport = 19,000 + 500 = ₹19,500. Selling price = ₹21,500. Profit = 21,500 – 19,500 = ₹2,000. Profit% = (2,000 / 19,500) × 100 = 10.26%

#### 5. Question

A TV has a marked price of ₹25,000. It is sold at successive discounts of 20% and 5%. If the buyer spends ₹500 on transport and sells it at ₹21,500, find the profit or loss percentage.

• (a) 15% loss

• (b) 20% profit

• (c) 10.26% profit

• (d) 12% loss

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Marked price = ₹25,000. Total discount = 20 + 5 – (20×5)/100 = 25 – 1 = 24%. Price after discount = 76% of 25,000 = ₹19,000. Add transport = 19,000 + 500 = ₹19,500. Selling price = ₹21,500. Profit = 21,500 – 19,500 = ₹2,000. Profit% = (2,000 / 19,500) × 100 = 10.26%

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Marked price = ₹25,000. Total discount = 20 + 5 – (20×5)/100 = 25 – 1 = 24%. Price after discount = 76% of 25,000 = ₹19,000. Add transport = 19,000 + 500 = ₹19,500. Selling price = ₹21,500. Profit = 21,500 – 19,500 = ₹2,000. Profit% = (2,000 / 19,500) × 100 = 10.26%

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