UPSC Editorials Quiz : 9 May 2025

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Nutrition for Growth (N4G) Summit: The summit primarily focuses on addressing undernutrition and micronutrient deficiencies, excluding concerns related to obesity and overnutrition. A key outcome of recent N4G Summits has been the global endorsement to integrate comprehensive nutrition education into school curricula. The N4G agenda is intrinsically linked with achieving targets under the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development, particularly SDG 2 (Zero Hunger) and SDG 3 (Good Health and Well-being). How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Nutrition for Growth (N4G) Summit aims at mobilizing commitments to tackle malnutrition in all its forms. This explicitly includes undernutrition (stunting, wasting), micronutrient deficiencies, and also overweight, obesity, and diet-related non-communicable diseases. The objective is comprehensive and does not exclude issues of overnutrition. Statement 2 is correct. One of the significant outcomes of the N4G Summit has been securing global endorsement to embed nutrition education in school curricula. This aligns with the objective to shift beyond mere food availability to improving food literacy and fostering healthy eating habits, especially among children. Statement 3 is correct. The N4G Summit’s objectives are deeply intertwined with the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. The summit aims to accelerate progress towards ending malnutrition by aligning nutrition goals with global development targets. Specifically, addressing malnutrition contributes directly to Sustainable Development Goal 2 (Zero Hunger), which includes ending all forms of malnutrition, and SDG 3 (Good Health and Well-being), as nutrition is a fundamental determinant of health. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. The Nutrition for Growth (N4G) Summit aims at mobilizing commitments to tackle malnutrition in all its forms. This explicitly includes undernutrition (stunting, wasting), micronutrient deficiencies, and also overweight, obesity, and diet-related non-communicable diseases. The objective is comprehensive and does not exclude issues of overnutrition. Statement 2 is correct. One of the significant outcomes of the N4G Summit has been securing global endorsement to embed nutrition education in school curricula. This aligns with the objective to shift beyond mere food availability to improving food literacy and fostering healthy eating habits, especially among children. Statement 3 is correct. The N4G Summit’s objectives are deeply intertwined with the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. The summit aims to accelerate progress towards ending malnutrition by aligning nutrition goals with global development targets. Specifically, addressing malnutrition contributes directly to Sustainable Development Goal 2 (Zero Hunger), which includes ending all forms of malnutrition, and SDG 3 (Good Health and Well-being), as nutrition is a fundamental determinant of health.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Nutrition for Growth (N4G) Summit:

• The summit primarily focuses on addressing undernutrition and micronutrient deficiencies, excluding concerns related to obesity and overnutrition.

• A key outcome of recent N4G Summits has been the global endorsement to integrate comprehensive nutrition education into school curricula.

• The N4G agenda is intrinsically linked with achieving targets under the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development, particularly SDG 2 (Zero Hunger) and SDG 3 (Good Health and Well-being).

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Nutrition for Growth (N4G) Summit aims at mobilizing commitments to tackle malnutrition in all its forms. This explicitly includes undernutrition (stunting, wasting), micronutrient deficiencies, and also overweight, obesity, and diet-related non-communicable diseases. The objective is comprehensive and does not exclude issues of overnutrition.

Statement 2 is correct. One of the significant outcomes of the N4G Summit has been securing global endorsement to embed nutrition education in school curricula. This aligns with the objective to shift beyond mere food availability to improving food literacy and fostering healthy eating habits, especially among children.

Statement 3 is correct. The N4G Summit’s objectives are deeply intertwined with the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. The summit aims to accelerate progress towards ending malnutrition by aligning nutrition goals with global development targets. Specifically, addressing malnutrition contributes directly to Sustainable Development Goal 2 (Zero Hunger), which includes ending all forms of malnutrition, and SDG 3 (Good Health and Well-being), as nutrition is a fundamental determinant of health.

Solution: b)

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements regarding Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha Statement-I: The office of the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha is crucial for ensuring the continuity of parliamentary proceedings and upholding institutional neutrality. Statement-II: The Deputy Speaker automatically becomes the chairperson of any parliamentary committee if appointed as a member of that committee. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: b) Statement-I is correct. The office of the Deputy Speaker plays a vital role in ensuring the uninterrupted functioning of the Lok Sabha, especially when the Speaker is absent or the office of the Speaker is vacant. This continuity is essential for legislative business. Furthermore, the Deputy Speaker, particularly when the convention of appointing an opposition member is followed, contributes to institutional neutrality and balance in legislative debates. Statement-II is also correct. It is a significant parliamentary convention and rule that if the Deputy Speaker is appointed as a member of any parliamentary committee, they automatically become its chairperson. This underscores the importance and seniority associated with the office of the Deputy Speaker within the committee system of the Parliament. However, Statement-II, while correct, is not the direct or primary explanation for why the office of the Deputy Speaker is crucial for ensuring continuity of proceedings and institutional neutrality (Statement-I). Incorrect Solution: b) Statement-I is correct. The office of the Deputy Speaker plays a vital role in ensuring the uninterrupted functioning of the Lok Sabha, especially when the Speaker is absent or the office of the Speaker is vacant. This continuity is essential for legislative business. Furthermore, the Deputy Speaker, particularly when the convention of appointing an opposition member is followed, contributes to institutional neutrality and balance in legislative debates. Statement-II is also correct. It is a significant parliamentary convention and rule that if the Deputy Speaker is appointed as a member of any parliamentary committee, they automatically become its chairperson. This underscores the importance and seniority associated with the office of the Deputy Speaker within the committee system of the Parliament. However, Statement-II, while correct, is not the direct or primary explanation for why the office of the Deputy Speaker is crucial for ensuring continuity of proceedings and institutional neutrality (Statement-I).

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Statement-I: The office of the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha is crucial for ensuring the continuity of parliamentary proceedings and upholding institutional neutrality.

Statement-II: The Deputy Speaker automatically becomes the chairperson of any parliamentary committee if appointed as a member of that committee.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: b)

Statement-I is correct. The office of the Deputy Speaker plays a vital role in ensuring the uninterrupted functioning of the Lok Sabha, especially when the Speaker is absent or the office of the Speaker is vacant. This continuity is essential for legislative business. Furthermore, the Deputy Speaker, particularly when the convention of appointing an opposition member is followed, contributes to institutional neutrality and balance in legislative debates.

Statement-II is also correct. It is a significant parliamentary convention and rule that if the Deputy Speaker is appointed as a member of any parliamentary committee, they automatically become its chairperson. This underscores the importance and seniority associated with the office of the Deputy Speaker within the committee system of the Parliament.

However, Statement-II, while correct, is not the direct or primary explanation for why the office of the Deputy Speaker is crucial for ensuring continuity of proceedings and institutional neutrality (Statement-I).

Solution: b)

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Which one of the following types of weather forecasts is most critically dependent on the immediate assimilation of real-time data from sources like Doppler radar and geostationary satellites for issuing alerts for rapidly developing severe weather phenomena like thunderstorms or squall lines? (a) Short-range forecast (b) Medium-range forecast (c) Nowcasting (d) Long-range forecast Correct Solution: c) Nowcasting refers to weather forecasting with a validity period of 0 to 6 hours. Its primary purpose is to provide ultra-short-term, highly localized, and frequently updated weather information, especially concerning hazardous weather phenomena such as thunderstorms, heavy rain, hailstorms, squall lines, and tornadoes. The critical characteristic of nowcasting is its heavy reliance on the rapid assimilation and interpretation of real-time observational data. Doppler weather radars are crucial for detecting precipitation structure, intensity, wind fields within storms, and early signs of severe weather development. Geostationary satellites provide continuous imagery of cloud patterns, movement, and growth, which is vital for tracking storm systems. This continuous stream of high-resolution data allows forecasters to issue timely warnings and advisories, which are essential for public safety and mitigating the impact of sudden, severe weather events. Short-range forecasts (1–3 days) and medium-range forecasts (4–10 days) primarily rely on Numerical Weather Prediction (NWP) models, which simulate atmospheric dynamics. While they also use observational data as initial conditions, the emphasis is more on model physics and longer-term atmospheric evolution. Long-range forecasts (beyond 10 days to seasons/years) focus on broader climatic patterns like monsoons and involve complex ocean-atmosphere interactions, using statistical and dynamical models rather than immediate, high-frequency radar/satellite data for severe weather alerts. Incorrect Solution: c) Nowcasting refers to weather forecasting with a validity period of 0 to 6 hours. Its primary purpose is to provide ultra-short-term, highly localized, and frequently updated weather information, especially concerning hazardous weather phenomena such as thunderstorms, heavy rain, hailstorms, squall lines, and tornadoes. The critical characteristic of nowcasting is its heavy reliance on the rapid assimilation and interpretation of real-time observational data. Doppler weather radars are crucial for detecting precipitation structure, intensity, wind fields within storms, and early signs of severe weather development. Geostationary satellites provide continuous imagery of cloud patterns, movement, and growth, which is vital for tracking storm systems. This continuous stream of high-resolution data allows forecasters to issue timely warnings and advisories, which are essential for public safety and mitigating the impact of sudden, severe weather events. Short-range forecasts (1–3 days) and medium-range forecasts (4–10 days) primarily rely on Numerical Weather Prediction (NWP) models, which simulate atmospheric dynamics. While they also use observational data as initial conditions, the emphasis is more on model physics and longer-term atmospheric evolution. Long-range forecasts (beyond 10 days to seasons/years) focus on broader climatic patterns like monsoons and involve complex ocean-atmosphere interactions, using statistical and dynamical models rather than immediate, high-frequency radar/satellite data for severe weather alerts.

#### 3. Question

Which one of the following types of weather forecasts is most critically dependent on the immediate assimilation of real-time data from sources like Doppler radar and geostationary satellites for issuing alerts for rapidly developing severe weather phenomena like thunderstorms or squall lines?

• (a) Short-range forecast

• (b) Medium-range forecast

• (c) Nowcasting

• (d) Long-range forecast

Solution: c)

• Nowcasting refers to weather forecasting with a validity period of 0 to 6 hours. Its primary purpose is to provide ultra-short-term, highly localized, and frequently updated weather information, especially concerning hazardous weather phenomena such as thunderstorms, heavy rain, hailstorms, squall lines, and tornadoes.

• The critical characteristic of nowcasting is its heavy reliance on the rapid assimilation and interpretation of real-time observational data.

• Doppler weather radars are crucial for detecting precipitation structure, intensity, wind fields within storms, and early signs of severe weather development.

• Geostationary satellites provide continuous imagery of cloud patterns, movement, and growth, which is vital for tracking storm systems.

• This continuous stream of high-resolution data allows forecasters to issue timely warnings and advisories, which are essential for public safety and mitigating the impact of sudden, severe weather events.

Short-range forecasts (1–3 days) and medium-range forecasts (4–10 days) primarily rely on Numerical Weather Prediction (NWP) models, which simulate atmospheric dynamics. While they also use observational data as initial conditions, the emphasis is more on model physics and longer-term atmospheric evolution.

Long-range forecasts (beyond 10 days to seasons/years) focus on broader climatic patterns like monsoons and involve complex ocean-atmosphere interactions, using statistical and dynamical models rather than immediate, high-frequency radar/satellite data for severe weather alerts.

Solution: c)

• The critical characteristic of nowcasting is its heavy reliance on the rapid assimilation and interpretation of real-time observational data.

• Doppler weather radars are crucial for detecting precipitation structure, intensity, wind fields within storms, and early signs of severe weather development.

• Geostationary satellites provide continuous imagery of cloud patterns, movement, and growth, which is vital for tracking storm systems.

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Caste Census in India: Statement-I: Article 246 of the Constitution of India, by listing “Census” in the Union List, implicitly mandates the collection of caste-specific data for all communities. Statement-II: The primary utility of a nationwide Caste Census lies in its potential to provide robust data for the effective targeting and refinement of affirmative action policies under Article 15 and Article 16. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: d) Statement-I is incorrect. While Article 246 of the Constitution, read with entry 69 in the Union List of the Seventh Schedule, grants the Union government exclusive power to legislate on “Census,” it does not mandate the collection of any specific type of data, including caste. The scope and particulars of data to be collected during a census are determined by the government through the Census Act and associated rules and notifications. Historically, post-independence censuses (from 1951 onwards) have enumerated Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) but not other castes, a departure from the pre-independence practice (1881-1931). Thus, the constitutional provision for census as a Union subject does not inherently compel a comprehensive caste enumeration for all communities. Statement-II is correct. Articles 15(4), 15(5), 15(6), 16(4), 16(6) of the Constitution enable the state to make special provisions for the advancement of socially and educationally backward classes (SEBCs), SCs, STs, and economically weaker sections (EWS). Accurate, contemporary data on the socio-economic status of various caste groups is deemed necessary to identify these classes, assess the effectiveness of existing reservation policies, ensure equitable distribution of benefits, and potentially refine or rationalize affirmative action measures. Article 340, which pertains to the appointment of a Commission to investigate the conditions of backward classes, also underscores the need for data to identify such groups and recommend ameliorative measures. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement-I is incorrect. While Article 246 of the Constitution, read with entry 69 in the Union List of the Seventh Schedule, grants the Union government exclusive power to legislate on “Census,” it does not mandate the collection of any specific type of data, including caste. The scope and particulars of data to be collected during a census are determined by the government through the Census Act and associated rules and notifications. Historically, post-independence censuses (from 1951 onwards) have enumerated Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) but not other castes, a departure from the pre-independence practice (1881-1931). Thus, the constitutional provision for census as a Union subject does not inherently compel a comprehensive caste enumeration for all communities. Statement-II is correct. Articles 15(4), 15(5), 15(6), 16(4), 16(6) of the Constitution enable the state to make special provisions for the advancement of socially and educationally backward classes (SEBCs), SCs, STs, and economically weaker sections (EWS). Accurate, contemporary data on the socio-economic status of various caste groups is deemed necessary to identify these classes, assess the effectiveness of existing reservation policies, ensure equitable distribution of benefits, and potentially refine or rationalize affirmative action measures. Article 340, which pertains to the appointment of a Commission to investigate the conditions of backward classes, also underscores the need for data to identify such groups and recommend ameliorative measures.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Caste Census in India:

Statement-I: Article 246 of the Constitution of India, by listing “Census” in the Union List, implicitly mandates the collection of caste-specific data for all communities.

Statement-II: The primary utility of a nationwide Caste Census lies in its potential to provide robust data for the effective targeting and refinement of affirmative action policies under Article 15 and Article 16.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: d)

Statement-I is incorrect. While Article 246 of the Constitution, read with entry 69 in the Union List of the Seventh Schedule, grants the Union government exclusive power to legislate on “Census,” it does not mandate the collection of any specific type of data, including caste. The scope and particulars of data to be collected during a census are determined by the government through the Census Act and associated rules and notifications. Historically, post-independence censuses (from 1951 onwards) have enumerated Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) but not other castes, a departure from the pre-independence practice (1881-1931). Thus, the constitutional provision for census as a Union subject does not inherently compel a comprehensive caste enumeration for all communities.

Statement-II is correct. Articles 15(4), 15(5), 15(6), 16(4), 16(6) of the Constitution enable the state to make special provisions for the advancement of socially and educationally backward classes (SEBCs), SCs, STs, and economically weaker sections (EWS). Accurate, contemporary data on the socio-economic status of various caste groups is deemed necessary to identify these classes, assess the effectiveness of existing reservation policies, ensure equitable distribution of benefits, and potentially refine or rationalize affirmative action measures. Article 340, which pertains to the appointment of a Commission to investigate the conditions of backward classes, also underscores the need for data to identify such groups and recommend ameliorative measures.

Solution: d)

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Which one of the following constitutional provisions is most directly and comprehensively violated by the practice of Bonded Labour? a) Article 19(1)(g) - Right to practise any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business. b) Article 21 - Protection of life and personal liberty. c) Article 25 - Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion. d) Article 39(a) - The right to an adequate means of livelihood. Correct Solution: b) Article 21 of the Constitution, which guarantees the “protection of life and personal liberty,” is the most directly and comprehensively violated provision by the practice of bonded labour. The Supreme Court of India has interpreted Article 21 expansively to include the right to live with human dignity. Bonded labour, characterized by forced work under coercion due to debt or other obligations, often without clear time limits and for nominal or no wages, fundamentally strips individuals of their dignity, autonomy, and personal liberty. It subjects them to exploitative conditions, restricts their freedom of movement, and denies them the ability to make choices about their own lives and labour. Incorrect Solution: b) Article 21 of the Constitution, which guarantees the “protection of life and personal liberty,” is the most directly and comprehensively violated provision by the practice of bonded labour. The Supreme Court of India has interpreted Article 21 expansively to include the right to live with human dignity. Bonded labour, characterized by forced work under coercion due to debt or other obligations, often without clear time limits and for nominal or no wages, fundamentally strips individuals of their dignity, autonomy, and personal liberty. It subjects them to exploitative conditions, restricts their freedom of movement, and denies them the ability to make choices about their own lives and labour.

#### 5. Question

Which one of the following constitutional provisions is most directly and comprehensively violated by the practice of Bonded Labour?

• a) Article 19(1)(g) - Right to practise any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.

• b) Article 21 - Protection of life and personal liberty.

• c) Article 25 - Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion.

• d) Article 39(a) - The right to an adequate means of livelihood.

Solution: b)

Article 21 of the Constitution, which guarantees the “protection of life and personal liberty,” is the most directly and comprehensively violated provision by the practice of bonded labour.

The Supreme Court of India has interpreted Article 21 expansively to include the right to live with human dignity. Bonded labour, characterized by forced work under coercion due to debt or other obligations, often without clear time limits and for nominal or no wages, fundamentally strips individuals of their dignity, autonomy, and personal liberty. It subjects them to exploitative conditions, restricts their freedom of movement, and denies them the ability to make choices about their own lives and labour.

Solution: b)

Article 21 of the Constitution, which guarantees the “protection of life and personal liberty,” is the most directly and comprehensively violated provision by the practice of bonded labour.

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