UPSC Editorials Quiz : 9 March 2026
Kartavya Desk Staff
Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.
#### Quiz-summary
0 of 5 questions completed
Questions:
#### Information
Best of luck! 🙂
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
0 of 5 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
#### Categories
• Not categorized 0%
• Question 1 of 5 1. Question With reference to Meningococcal infection, consider the following statements: It is a viral infection that primarily affects the protective membranes covering the brain and spinal cord. Approximately 10% to 20% of the human population are asymptomatic carriers of the bacteria. The disease is characterized by a purpuric rash that fades when pressed, distinguishing it from other febrile illnesses. There are no known animal vectors for this disease as it spreads strictly through person-to-person contact. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect. Meningococcal disease is a severe, life-threatening condition caused by the bacterium *Neisseria meningitidis, not a virus. It is notoriously dangerous because it can lead to both Meningitis (inflammation of the brain and spinal cord membranes) and Septicemia (bloodstream infection). A significant aspect of its epidemiology is that about 10% to 20% of the population are asymptomatic carriers, harboring the bacteria in their upper respiratory tract without falling ill. The transmission is strictly person-to-person via respiratory droplets or throat secretions (saliva), meaning there are no animal vectors. It spreads rapidly in crowded environments like military barracks and dormitories. One of the most critical diagnostic signs is the purpuric rash (dark purple spots); however, unlike many other rashes, these do not fade when pressed. The disease is a medical emergency with a high fatality rate of 10% to 15% even with treatment. Survivors often face long-term complications such as hearing loss, brain damage, or limb amputations due to necrosis. Rapid administration of high-dose intravenous (IV) antibiotics like ceftriaxone is the standard treatment protocol. The rapid progression—often becoming fatal within 24 to 48 hours—necessitates high public health vigilance. Incorrect Solution: B Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect. Meningococcal disease is a severe, life-threatening condition caused by the bacterium Neisseria meningitidis, not a virus. It is notoriously dangerous because it can lead to both Meningitis (inflammation of the brain and spinal cord membranes) and Septicemia (bloodstream infection). A significant aspect of its epidemiology is that about 10% to 20% of the population are asymptomatic carriers, harboring the bacteria in their upper respiratory tract without falling ill. The transmission is strictly person-to-person via respiratory droplets or throat secretions (saliva), meaning there are no animal vectors. It spreads rapidly in crowded environments like military barracks and dormitories. One of the most critical diagnostic signs is the purpuric rash (dark purple spots); however, unlike many other rashes, these do not fade when pressed. The disease is a medical emergency with a high fatality rate of 10% to 15% even with treatment. Survivors often face long-term complications such as hearing loss, brain damage, or limb amputations due to necrosis. Rapid administration of high-dose intravenous (IV) antibiotics* like ceftriaxone is the standard treatment protocol. The rapid progression—often becoming fatal within 24 to 48 hours—necessitates high public health vigilance.
#### 1. Question
With reference to Meningococcal infection, consider the following statements:
• It is a viral infection that primarily affects the protective membranes covering the brain and spinal cord.
• Approximately 10% to 20% of the human population are asymptomatic carriers of the bacteria.
• The disease is characterized by a purpuric rash that fades when pressed, distinguishing it from other febrile illnesses.
• There are no known animal vectors for this disease as it spreads strictly through person-to-person contact.
How many of the above statements are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) Only three
• (d) All four
Solution: B
Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect.
• Meningococcal disease is a severe, life-threatening condition caused by the bacterium *Neisseria meningitidis, not a virus. It is notoriously dangerous because it can lead to both Meningitis (inflammation of the brain and spinal cord membranes) and Septicemia* (bloodstream infection).
• A significant aspect of its epidemiology is that about 10% to 20% of the population are asymptomatic carriers, harboring the bacteria in their upper respiratory tract without falling ill.
• The transmission is strictly person-to-person via respiratory droplets or throat secretions (saliva), meaning there are no animal vectors. It spreads rapidly in crowded environments like military barracks and dormitories.
• One of the most critical diagnostic signs is the purpuric rash (dark purple spots); however, unlike many other rashes, these do not fade when pressed. The disease is a medical emergency with a high fatality rate of 10% to 15% even with treatment.
• Survivors often face long-term complications such as hearing loss, brain damage, or limb amputations due to necrosis. Rapid administration of high-dose intravenous (IV) antibiotics like ceftriaxone is the standard treatment protocol. The rapid progression—often becoming fatal within 24 to 48 hours—necessitates high public health vigilance.
Solution: B
Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect.
• Meningococcal disease is a severe, life-threatening condition caused by the bacterium *Neisseria meningitidis, not a virus. It is notoriously dangerous because it can lead to both Meningitis (inflammation of the brain and spinal cord membranes) and Septicemia* (bloodstream infection).
• A significant aspect of its epidemiology is that about 10% to 20% of the population are asymptomatic carriers, harboring the bacteria in their upper respiratory tract without falling ill.
• The transmission is strictly person-to-person via respiratory droplets or throat secretions (saliva), meaning there are no animal vectors. It spreads rapidly in crowded environments like military barracks and dormitories.
• One of the most critical diagnostic signs is the purpuric rash (dark purple spots); however, unlike many other rashes, these do not fade when pressed. The disease is a medical emergency with a high fatality rate of 10% to 15% even with treatment.
• Survivors often face long-term complications such as hearing loss, brain damage, or limb amputations due to necrosis. Rapid administration of high-dose intravenous (IV) antibiotics like ceftriaxone is the standard treatment protocol. The rapid progression—often becoming fatal within 24 to 48 hours—necessitates high public health vigilance.
• Question 2 of 5 2. Question In the context of the Indian Parliament, which of the following happens when a resolution for the removal of the Lok Sabha Speaker is under consideration? (a) The Speaker cannot preside over the House but has the right to speak and take part in proceedings. (b) The Speaker continues to preside but cannot vote on the resolution. (c) The House is automatically adjourned until the resolution is withdrawn. (d) The President of India appoints an external moderator to conduct the debate. Correct Solution: A According to Article 96 of the Constitution, the Speaker (or Deputy Speaker) shall not preside over a sitting of the House while any resolution for their removal from office is under consideration. However, they have the right to speak in, and otherwise take part in the proceedings of the House. This parliamentary procedure ensures that the individual being investigated does not influence the conduct of the debate. A resolution for removal requires a majority of all the then members of the House to be passed. This specific debate marks a rare moment in Indian parliamentary history, highlighting the deep rift between the government and the Opposition. Source Incorrect Solution: A According to Article 96 of the Constitution, the Speaker (or Deputy Speaker) shall not preside over a sitting of the House while any resolution for their removal from office is under consideration. However, they have the right to speak in, and otherwise take part in the proceedings of the House. This parliamentary procedure ensures that the individual being investigated does not influence the conduct of the debate. A resolution for removal requires a majority of all the then members of the House to be passed. This specific debate marks a rare moment in Indian parliamentary history, highlighting the deep rift between the government and the Opposition. Source
#### 2. Question
In the context of the Indian Parliament, which of the following happens when a resolution for the removal of the Lok Sabha Speaker is under consideration?
• (a) The Speaker cannot preside over the House but has the right to speak and take part in proceedings.
• (b) The Speaker continues to preside but cannot vote on the resolution.
• (c) The House is automatically adjourned until the resolution is withdrawn.
• (d) The President of India appoints an external moderator to conduct the debate.
Solution: A
• According to Article 96 of the Constitution, the Speaker (or Deputy Speaker) shall not preside over a sitting of the House while any resolution for their removal from office is under consideration. However, they have the right to speak in, and otherwise take part in the proceedings of the House.
• This parliamentary procedure ensures that the individual being investigated does not influence the conduct of the debate.
• A resolution for removal requires a majority of all the then members of the House to be passed. This specific debate marks a rare moment in Indian parliamentary history, highlighting the deep rift between the government and the Opposition.
Solution: A
• According to Article 96 of the Constitution, the Speaker (or Deputy Speaker) shall not preside over a sitting of the House while any resolution for their removal from office is under consideration. However, they have the right to speak in, and otherwise take part in the proceedings of the House.
• This parliamentary procedure ensures that the individual being investigated does not influence the conduct of the debate.
• A resolution for removal requires a majority of all the then members of the House to be passed. This specific debate marks a rare moment in Indian parliamentary history, highlighting the deep rift between the government and the Opposition.
• Question 3 of 5 3. Question In the context of the Indian Economy, which of the following is the correct formula to calculate the Gross Primary Deficit? (a) Fiscal Deficit + Interest Liabilities (b) Revenue Deficit - Interest Liabilities (c) Fiscal Deficit – Interest Liabilities (d) Total Expenditure – Revenue Receipts Correct Solution: C The Gross Primary Deficit is a key economic indicator that measures the government’s borrowing requirements excluding the interest payments on previous debts. The correct formula is: Gross Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest Liabilities. For example, if a country has a fiscal deficit of ₹50,000 crores and interest liabilities of ₹1,500 crores, the gross primary deficit would be ₹48,500 crores. This metric is useful for policymakers because it shows how much the current government’s actions (spending and taxing) are contributing to the deficit, without being skewed by the debt service burdens inherited from the past. Incorrect Solution: C The Gross Primary Deficit is a key economic indicator that measures the government’s borrowing requirements excluding the interest payments on previous debts. The correct formula is: Gross Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest Liabilities. For example, if a country has a fiscal deficit of ₹50,000 crores and interest liabilities of ₹1,500 crores, the gross primary deficit would be ₹48,500 crores. This metric is useful for policymakers because it shows how much the current government’s actions (spending and taxing) are contributing to the deficit, without being skewed by the debt service burdens inherited from the past.
#### 3. Question
In the context of the Indian Economy, which of the following is the correct formula to calculate the Gross Primary Deficit?
• (a) Fiscal Deficit + Interest Liabilities
• (b) Revenue Deficit - Interest Liabilities
• (c) Fiscal Deficit – Interest Liabilities
• (d) Total Expenditure – Revenue Receipts
Solution: C
The Gross Primary Deficit is a key economic indicator that measures the government’s borrowing requirements excluding the interest payments on previous debts. The correct formula is: Gross Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest Liabilities. For example, if a country has a fiscal deficit of ₹50,000 crores and interest liabilities of ₹1,500 crores, the gross primary deficit would be ₹48,500 crores. This metric is useful for policymakers because it shows how much the current government’s actions (spending and taxing) are contributing to the deficit, without being skewed by the debt service burdens inherited from the past.
Solution: C
The Gross Primary Deficit is a key economic indicator that measures the government’s borrowing requirements excluding the interest payments on previous debts. The correct formula is: Gross Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest Liabilities. For example, if a country has a fiscal deficit of ₹50,000 crores and interest liabilities of ₹1,500 crores, the gross primary deficit would be ₹48,500 crores. This metric is useful for policymakers because it shows how much the current government’s actions (spending and taxing) are contributing to the deficit, without being skewed by the debt service burdens inherited from the past.
• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Recent reports of Cheetahs moving from Kuno National Park in Madhya Pradesh to the Mangrol range in Rajasthan have been described by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) as: (a) A sign of food scarcity in the Kuno region. (b) Evidence of successful human-wildlife conflict mitigation. (c) An accidental migration caused by seasonal floods. (d) Natural territorial behavior of the species. Correct Solution: D On March 8, 2026, the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) stated that the movement of cheetahs from Kuno National Park (MP) to Baran district in Rajasthan is a manifestation of “natural territorial behavior”. Two cheetahs were tracked in the Mangrol range and the Banjh Amli Conservation Reserve after traveling approximately 60 to 70 km from their home base in Kuno. This behavior is expected as the species seeks to establish its own range and explore surrounding habitats. The project to reintroduce cheetahs to India is a high-profile conservation effort that seeks to restore the species to its historical range in the country. Source Incorrect Solution: D On March 8, 2026, the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) stated that the movement of cheetahs from Kuno National Park (MP) to Baran district in Rajasthan is a manifestation of “natural territorial behavior”. Two cheetahs were tracked in the Mangrol range and the Banjh Amli Conservation Reserve after traveling approximately 60 to 70 km from their home base in Kuno. This behavior is expected as the species seeks to establish its own range and explore surrounding habitats. The project to reintroduce cheetahs to India is a high-profile conservation effort that seeks to restore the species to its historical range in the country. Source
#### 4. Question
Recent reports of Cheetahs moving from Kuno National Park in Madhya Pradesh to the Mangrol range in Rajasthan have been described by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) as:
• (a) A sign of food scarcity in the Kuno region.
• (b) Evidence of successful human-wildlife conflict mitigation.
• (c) An accidental migration caused by seasonal floods.
• (d) Natural territorial behavior of the species.
Solution: D
• On March 8, 2026, the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) stated that the movement of cheetahs from Kuno National Park (MP) to Baran district in Rajasthan is a manifestation of “natural territorial behavior”. Two cheetahs were tracked in the Mangrol range and the Banjh Amli Conservation Reserve after traveling approximately 60 to 70 km from their home base in Kuno.
• This behavior is expected as the species seeks to establish its own range and explore surrounding habitats. The project to reintroduce cheetahs to India is a high-profile conservation effort that seeks to restore the species to its historical range in the country.
Solution: D
• On March 8, 2026, the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) stated that the movement of cheetahs from Kuno National Park (MP) to Baran district in Rajasthan is a manifestation of “natural territorial behavior”. Two cheetahs were tracked in the Mangrol range and the Banjh Amli Conservation Reserve after traveling approximately 60 to 70 km from their home base in Kuno.
• This behavior is expected as the species seeks to establish its own range and explore surrounding habitats. The project to reintroduce cheetahs to India is a high-profile conservation effort that seeks to restore the species to its historical range in the country.
• Question 5 of 5 5. Question India is a founding member of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC). Which of the following best describes the primary objective of this project? (a) To connect India to South-East Asian nations via Myanmar. (b) To connect India to Central Asia and Europe through Iran. (c) To establish a maritime link between India and the Arctic region. (d) To build a high-speed rail network connecting all SAARC nations. Correct Solution: B The International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) is a major multimodal transportation project involving rail, road, and water routes. Its primary goal is to provide a shorter and more efficient route connecting India to Central Asia and Europe via Iran. India is one of the founding members of this initiative, which aims to bypass the traditional, longer route through the Suez Canal. The corridor is strategically significant for India as it enhances trade connectivity with landlocked Central Asian republics and provides an alternative to the routes that pass through Pakistan. Incorrect Solution: B The International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) is a major multimodal transportation project involving rail, road, and water routes. Its primary goal is to provide a shorter and more efficient route connecting India to Central Asia and Europe via Iran. India is one of the founding members of this initiative, which aims to bypass the traditional, longer route through the Suez Canal. The corridor is strategically significant for India as it enhances trade connectivity with landlocked Central Asian republics and provides an alternative to the routes that pass through Pakistan.
#### 5. Question
India is a founding member of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC). Which of the following best describes the primary objective of this project?
• (a) To connect India to South-East Asian nations via Myanmar.
• (b) To connect India to Central Asia and Europe through Iran.
• (c) To establish a maritime link between India and the Arctic region.
• (d) To build a high-speed rail network connecting all SAARC nations.
Solution: B
The International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) is a major multimodal transportation project involving rail, road, and water routes. Its primary goal is to provide a shorter and more efficient route connecting India to Central Asia and Europe via Iran. India is one of the founding members of this initiative, which aims to bypass the traditional, longer route through the Suez Canal. The corridor is strategically significant for India as it enhances trade connectivity with landlocked Central Asian republics and provides an alternative to the routes that pass through Pakistan.
Solution: B
The International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) is a major multimodal transportation project involving rail, road, and water routes. Its primary goal is to provide a shorter and more efficient route connecting India to Central Asia and Europe via Iran. India is one of the founding members of this initiative, which aims to bypass the traditional, longer route through the Suez Canal. The corridor is strategically significant for India as it enhances trade connectivity with landlocked Central Asian republics and provides an alternative to the routes that pass through Pakistan.
Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE for Motivation and Fast Updates
Join our Twitter Channel HERE
Follow our Instagram Channel HERE