UPSC Editorials Quiz : 8 July 2025

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question With reference to the National Quantum Mission (NQM), consider the following statements: The mission is being implemented by the Department of Science and Technology (DST). It aims to seed, nurture, and scale up scientific and industrial R&D in Quantum Technology. A key deliverable of the mission is the development of a 1000 physical qubit quantum computer within the mission period. The mission will establish four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in top academic and national R&D institutes. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. The National Quantum Mission (NQM) was approved in 2023 and is being implemented by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) under the Ministry of Science and Technology. Statement 2 is correct. The NQM aims to seed, nurture, and scale up scientific and industrial Research and Development and create a vibrant and innovative ecosystem in Quantum Technology. This involves building a skilled workforce, fostering startups, and developing indigenous capabilities. Statement 3 is incorrect. While the development of quantum computers is a key goal, the mission’s target is to develop intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50-1000 physical qubits in 8 years. Statement 4 is correct. The mission’s implementation plan includes the establishment of four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in top academic and National R&D institutes. These hubs will focus on key areas of quantum technology: Quantum Computing, Quantum Communication, Quantum Sensing & Metrology, and Quantum Materials & Devices. This hub-and-spoke model is designed to consolidate expertise and resources. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is correct. The National Quantum Mission (NQM) was approved in 2023 and is being implemented by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) under the Ministry of Science and Technology. Statement 2 is correct. The NQM aims to seed, nurture, and scale up scientific and industrial Research and Development and create a vibrant and innovative ecosystem in Quantum Technology. This involves building a skilled workforce, fostering startups, and developing indigenous capabilities. Statement 3 is incorrect. While the development of quantum computers is a key goal, the mission’s target is to develop intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50-1000 physical qubits in 8 years. Statement 4 is correct. The mission’s implementation plan includes the establishment of four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in top academic and National R&D institutes. These hubs will focus on key areas of quantum technology: Quantum Computing, Quantum Communication, Quantum Sensing & Metrology, and Quantum Materials & Devices. This hub-and-spoke model is designed to consolidate expertise and resources.

#### 1. Question

With reference to the National Quantum Mission (NQM), consider the following statements:

• The mission is being implemented by the Department of Science and Technology (DST).

• It aims to seed, nurture, and scale up scientific and industrial R&D in Quantum Technology.

• A key deliverable of the mission is the development of a 1000 physical qubit quantum computer within the mission period.

• The mission will establish four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in top academic and national R&D institutes.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. The National Quantum Mission (NQM) was approved in 2023 and is being implemented by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) under the Ministry of Science and Technology.

• Statement 2 is correct. The NQM aims to seed, nurture, and scale up scientific and industrial Research and Development and create a vibrant and innovative ecosystem in Quantum Technology. This involves building a skilled workforce, fostering startups, and developing indigenous capabilities.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. While the development of quantum computers is a key goal, the mission’s target is to develop intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50-1000 physical qubits in 8 years.

• Statement 4 is correct. The mission’s implementation plan includes the establishment of four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in top academic and National R&D institutes. These hubs will focus on key areas of quantum technology: Quantum Computing, Quantum Communication, Quantum Sensing & Metrology, and Quantum Materials & Devices. This hub-and-spoke model is designed to consolidate expertise and resources.

Solution: C

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question With reference to the Employment Linked Incentive (ELI) Scheme approved in 2025, consider the following statements: It is a Central Sector Scheme with two components: one providing an incentive to first-time employees and another providing support to employers. Under the scheme, all first-time employees registered with EPFO are eligible for a one-month wage incentive, up to a maximum of ₹15,000. Employers in all sectors receive an incentive for up to four years for generating additional employment. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The ELI Scheme is a Central Sector Scheme, fully funded by the central government. It is structured into two distinct parts: Part A focuses on providing a direct incentive to first-time employees, and Part B focuses on providing an incentive to employers for creating new jobs. This dual-pronged approach aims to stimulate both the supply (by encouraging youth to join the formal workforce) and demand (by reducing the cost of new hiring for companies) sides of the labor market. Statement 2 is correct. Part A of the scheme specifically targets first-time employees registered with the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO). It offers them a one-month wage incentive, capped at ₹15,000. This incentive is for employees with salaries up to ₹1 lakh per year and is disbursed in two installments after 6 and 12 months of sustained employment. Statement 3 is incorrect. The duration of the incentive for employers under Part B is differentiated by sector. While employers in all sectors receive the incentive for a period of two years, there is a special provision for the manufacturing sector, where the incentive is extended for another two years, making it a total of four years. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. The ELI Scheme is a Central Sector Scheme, fully funded by the central government. It is structured into two distinct parts: Part A focuses on providing a direct incentive to first-time employees, and Part B focuses on providing an incentive to employers for creating new jobs. This dual-pronged approach aims to stimulate both the supply (by encouraging youth to join the formal workforce) and demand (by reducing the cost of new hiring for companies) sides of the labor market. Statement 2 is correct. Part A of the scheme specifically targets first-time employees registered with the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO). It offers them a one-month wage incentive, capped at ₹15,000. This incentive is for employees with salaries up to ₹1 lakh per year and is disbursed in two installments after 6 and 12 months of sustained employment. Statement 3 is incorrect. The duration of the incentive for employers under Part B is differentiated by sector. While employers in all sectors receive the incentive for a period of two years, there is a special provision for the manufacturing sector, where the incentive is extended for another two years, making it a total of four years.

#### 2. Question

With reference to the Employment Linked Incentive (ELI) Scheme approved in 2025, consider the following statements:

• It is a Central Sector Scheme with two components: one providing an incentive to first-time employees and another providing support to employers.

• Under the scheme, all first-time employees registered with EPFO are eligible for a one-month wage incentive, up to a maximum of ₹15,000.

• Employers in all sectors receive an incentive for up to four years for generating additional employment.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The ELI Scheme is a Central Sector Scheme, fully funded by the central government. It is structured into two distinct parts: Part A focuses on providing a direct incentive to first-time employees, and Part B focuses on providing an incentive to employers for creating new jobs. This dual-pronged approach aims to stimulate both the supply (by encouraging youth to join the formal workforce) and demand (by reducing the cost of new hiring for companies) sides of the labor market.

• Statement 2 is correct. Part A of the scheme specifically targets first-time employees registered with the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO). It offers them a one-month wage incentive, capped at ₹15,000. This incentive is for employees with salaries up to ₹1 lakh per year and is disbursed in two installments after 6 and 12 months of sustained employment.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The duration of the incentive for employers under Part B is differentiated by sector. While employers in all sectors receive the incentive for a period of two years, there is a special provision for the manufacturing sector, where the incentive is extended for another two years, making it a total of four years.

Solution: B

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Fiscal Health Index (FHI) 2025 released by NITI Aayog: The index is a one-time publication and will not be released annually. It assesses the fiscal health of states based on sub-indices such as Fiscal Prudence and Debt Sustainability. The report found that states in the southern region of India were the top performers in overall fiscal health. The index aims to guide policy reforms at the sub-national level by promoting healthy competition among states. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B The Fiscal Health Index (FHI) is a new and important tool introduced by NITI Aayog to analyze the fiscal dynamics of Indian states. Statement 1 is incorrect. The report explicitly states that the FHI 2025 marks the launch of an annual series. The intention is to provide valuable, data-driven insights into the fiscal health of states on a recurring basis to track progress and guide policy interventions over time. Statement 2 is correct. The FHI provides a comprehensive assessment based on five key sub-indices. These include Quality of Expenditure, Revenue Mobilisation, Fiscal Prudence, Debt Index, and Debt Sustainability. These parameters provide a multi-dimensional view of a state’s fiscal management. Statement 3 is incorrect. According to the inaugural report, the top-performing state in fiscal health was Odisha, an eastern state, with a score of 67.8. It was followed by Chhattisgarh and Goa. Statement 4 is correct. A primary objective of the FHI is to serve as a tool to guide policy reforms for sustainable and resilient economic growth at the state level. By ranking states and highlighting their strengths and weaknesses across various fiscal parameters, the index is designed to foster healthy competition among them, encouraging them to adopt best practices and improve their fiscal governance. Incorrect Solution: B The Fiscal Health Index (FHI) is a new and important tool introduced by NITI Aayog to analyze the fiscal dynamics of Indian states. Statement 1 is incorrect. The report explicitly states that the FHI 2025 marks the launch of an annual series. The intention is to provide valuable, data-driven insights into the fiscal health of states on a recurring basis to track progress and guide policy interventions over time. Statement 2 is correct. The FHI provides a comprehensive assessment based on five key sub-indices. These include Quality of Expenditure, Revenue Mobilisation, Fiscal Prudence, Debt Index, and Debt Sustainability. These parameters provide a multi-dimensional view of a state’s fiscal management. Statement 3 is incorrect. According to the inaugural report, the top-performing state in fiscal health was Odisha, an eastern state, with a score of 67.8. It was followed by Chhattisgarh and Goa. Statement 4 is correct. A primary objective of the FHI is to serve as a tool to guide policy reforms for sustainable and resilient economic growth at the state level. By ranking states and highlighting their strengths and weaknesses across various fiscal parameters, the index is designed to foster healthy competition among them, encouraging them to adopt best practices and improve their fiscal governance.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Fiscal Health Index (FHI) 2025 released by NITI Aayog:

• The index is a one-time publication and will not be released annually.

• It assesses the fiscal health of states based on sub-indices such as Fiscal Prudence and Debt Sustainability.

• The report found that states in the southern region of India were the top performers in overall fiscal health.

• The index aims to guide policy reforms at the sub-national level by promoting healthy competition among states.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

The Fiscal Health Index (FHI) is a new and important tool introduced by NITI Aayog to analyze the fiscal dynamics of Indian states.

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The report explicitly states that the FHI 2025 marks the launch of an annual series. The intention is to provide valuable, data-driven insights into the fiscal health of states on a recurring basis to track progress and guide policy interventions over time.

• Statement 2 is correct. The FHI provides a comprehensive assessment based on five key sub-indices. These include Quality of Expenditure, Revenue Mobilisation, Fiscal Prudence, Debt Index, and Debt Sustainability. These parameters provide a multi-dimensional view of a state’s fiscal management.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. According to the inaugural report, the top-performing state in fiscal health was Odisha, an eastern state, with a score of 67.8. It was followed by Chhattisgarh and Goa.

• Statement 4 is correct. A primary objective of the FHI is to serve as a tool to guide policy reforms for sustainable and resilient economic growth at the state level. By ranking states and highlighting their strengths and weaknesses across various fiscal parameters, the index is designed to foster healthy competition among them, encouraging them to adopt best practices and improve their fiscal governance.

Solution: B

The Fiscal Health Index (FHI) is a new and important tool introduced by NITI Aayog to analyze the fiscal dynamics of Indian states.

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Preamble of the Indian Constitution: The Preamble is based on the ‘Objectives Resolution’ drafted and moved by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976) added the words ‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’, and ‘Republic’ to the Preamble. In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution and can be amended. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect because the ‘Objectives Resolution’ was drafted and moved by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, not Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. This resolution laid down the philosophical foundations of the Constitution and was later adapted as the Preamble. Statement 2 is incorrect. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added three new words – ‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’, and ‘Integrity’ – to the Preamble. The word ‘Republic’ was already part of the Preamble from its inception. Statement 3 is incorrect. In the *Berubari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court stated that the Preamble is not a part of the Constitution and therefore cannot be amended. This position was later reversed in the landmark Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), where the Court held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution and can be amended, subject to the ‘basic structure’ doctrine. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is incorrect because the ‘Objectives Resolution’ was drafted and moved by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, not Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. This resolution laid down the philosophical foundations of the Constitution and was later adapted as the Preamble. Statement 2 is incorrect. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added three new words – ‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’, and ‘Integrity’ – to the Preamble. The word ‘Republic’ was already part of the Preamble from its inception. Statement 3 is incorrect. In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court stated that the Preamble is not a part of the Constitution and therefore cannot be amended. This position was later reversed in the landmark Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)*, where the Court held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution and can be amended, subject to the ‘basic structure’ doctrine.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Preamble of the Indian Constitution:

• The Preamble is based on the ‘Objectives Resolution’ drafted and moved by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.

• The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976) added the words ‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’, and ‘Republic’ to the Preamble.

• In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution and can be amended.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the ‘Objectives Resolution’ was drafted and moved by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, not Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. This resolution laid down the philosophical foundations of the Constitution and was later adapted as the Preamble.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added three new words – ‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’, and ‘Integrity’ – to the Preamble. The word ‘Republic’ was already part of the Preamble from its inception.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. In the *Berubari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court stated that the Preamble is not a part of the Constitution and therefore cannot be amended. This position was later reversed in the landmark Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)*, where the Court held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution and can be amended, subject to the ‘basic structure’ doctrine.

Solution: D

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements regarding National Sports Policy 2025: Statement-I: The National Sports Policy 2025 aims to position sports as a significant contributor to economic development. Statement-II: The policy includes provisions for promoting sports tourism and supporting the local manufacturing of sports goods. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct. The National Sports Policy 2025 explicitly identifies “Sports for Economic Development” as one of its key pillars. The goal is to transform the sports sector from a recreational activity into a viable industry that contributes to the national economy. Statement-II is correct. The policy outlines concrete measures to achieve its economic objectives. These measures include developing sports tourism by marketing sporting events and destinations, and bolstering domestic industries like the sports goods manufacturing sector (e.g., in Meerut). Statement-II directly provides the mechanisms through which the objective stated in Statement-I is to be achieved. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct. The National Sports Policy 2025 explicitly identifies “Sports for Economic Development” as one of its key pillars. The goal is to transform the sports sector from a recreational activity into a viable industry that contributes to the national economy. Statement-II is correct. The policy outlines concrete measures to achieve its economic objectives. These measures include developing sports tourism by marketing sporting events and destinations, and bolstering domestic industries like the sports goods manufacturing sector (e.g., in Meerut). Statement-II directly provides the mechanisms through which the objective stated in Statement-I is to be achieved.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding National Sports Policy 2025:

Statement-I: The National Sports Policy 2025 aims to position sports as a significant contributor to economic development.

Statement-II: The policy includes provisions for promoting sports tourism and supporting the local manufacturing of sports goods.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. The National Sports Policy 2025 explicitly identifies “Sports for Economic Development” as one of its key pillars. The goal is to transform the sports sector from a recreational activity into a viable industry that contributes to the national economy.

• Statement-II is correct. The policy outlines concrete measures to achieve its economic objectives. These measures include developing sports tourism by marketing sporting events and destinations, and bolstering domestic industries like the sports goods manufacturing sector (e.g., in Meerut).

• Statement-II directly provides the mechanisms through which the objective stated in Statement-I is to be achieved.

Solution: A

• Statement-II directly provides the mechanisms through which the objective stated in Statement-I is to be achieved.

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