UPSC Editorials Quiz : 8 August 2025
Kartavya Desk Staff
Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.
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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements about the Asian Giant Tortoise (Manouria emys): It is a keystone species due to its role in seed dispersal. It is primarily a carnivorous species, feeding on small insects and amphibians. The species is known to exhibit maternal care by guarding its nest. How many of the above statements are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The Asian Giant Tortoise is considered a keystone species because its activities, such as feeding on fruits and dispersing their seeds, significantly influence the structure and health of its forest ecosystem. Its disappearance can have cascading negative effects on forest regeneration. Statement 2 is incorrect. The species is herbivorous, with a diet consisting of leaves, fruits, mushrooms, and other plant matter. It is not a carnivore. Statement 3 is correct. One of the unique biological traits of the Asian Giant Tortoise is that the female guards her nest mound after laying eggs, a form of maternal care that is rare among chelonians (turtles and tortoises). Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct. The Asian Giant Tortoise is considered a keystone species because its activities, such as feeding on fruits and dispersing their seeds, significantly influence the structure and health of its forest ecosystem. Its disappearance can have cascading negative effects on forest regeneration. Statement 2 is incorrect. The species is herbivorous, with a diet consisting of leaves, fruits, mushrooms, and other plant matter. It is not a carnivore. Statement 3 is correct. One of the unique biological traits of the Asian Giant Tortoise is that the female guards her nest mound after laying eggs, a form of maternal care that is rare among chelonians (turtles and tortoises).
#### 1. Question
Consider the following statements about the Asian Giant Tortoise (Manouria emys):
• It is a keystone species due to its role in seed dispersal.
• It is primarily a carnivorous species, feeding on small insects and amphibians.
• The species is known to exhibit maternal care by guarding its nest.
How many of the above statements are incorrect?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Solution: A
• Statement 1 is correct. The Asian Giant Tortoise is considered a keystone species because its activities, such as feeding on fruits and dispersing their seeds, significantly influence the structure and health of its forest ecosystem. Its disappearance can have cascading negative effects on forest regeneration.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The species is herbivorous, with a diet consisting of leaves, fruits, mushrooms, and other plant matter. It is not a carnivore.
• Statement 3 is correct. One of the unique biological traits of the Asian Giant Tortoise is that the female guards her nest mound after laying eggs, a form of maternal care that is rare among chelonians (turtles and tortoises).
Solution: A
• Statement 1 is correct. The Asian Giant Tortoise is considered a keystone species because its activities, such as feeding on fruits and dispersing their seeds, significantly influence the structure and health of its forest ecosystem. Its disappearance can have cascading negative effects on forest regeneration.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The species is herbivorous, with a diet consisting of leaves, fruits, mushrooms, and other plant matter. It is not a carnivore.
• Statement 3 is correct. One of the unique biological traits of the Asian Giant Tortoise is that the female guards her nest mound after laying eggs, a form of maternal care that is rare among chelonians (turtles and tortoises).
• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements regarding Restitutionary Damages as interpreted by the Supreme Court of India: The Supreme Court has mandated that the power to impose these damages must be guided by formal rules and regulations. The Court’s verdict exclusively applies to cases under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. The imposition of these damages is based on the ‘precautionary principle’ and the ‘polluter pays principle’. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Restitutionary damages refer to compensatory payments or financial guarantees imposed on polluting entities to restore environmental damage or prevent potential harm, even before actual damage occurs. Objective: To repair polluted ecosystems and ensure restoration of air and water to their original state, going beyond punishment to promote ecological recovery and sustainability. Statement 1 is correct. The Court emphasized that while Pollution Control Boards have this power, it must not be exercised arbitrarily. It must be structured through subordinate legislation (rules and regulations) to ensure fairness, transparency, and adherence to principles of natural justice. Statement 2 is incorrect. The ruling explicitly empowers boards under both the Water Act (Section 33A) and the Air Act (Section 31A). Statement 3 is correct. The entire concept of imposing damages for potential or actual harm is rooted in the internationally recognized precautionary principle and the polluter pays principle, which are foundational to modern environmental law in India. Incorrect Solution: B Restitutionary damages refer to compensatory payments or financial guarantees imposed on polluting entities to restore environmental damage or prevent potential harm, even before actual damage occurs. Objective: To repair polluted ecosystems and ensure restoration of air and water to their original state, going beyond punishment to promote ecological recovery and sustainability. Statement 1 is correct. The Court emphasized that while Pollution Control Boards have this power, it must not be exercised arbitrarily. It must be structured through subordinate legislation (rules and regulations) to ensure fairness, transparency, and adherence to principles of natural justice. Statement 2 is incorrect. The ruling explicitly empowers boards under both the Water Act (Section 33A) and the Air Act (Section 31A). Statement 3 is correct. The entire concept of imposing damages for potential or actual harm is rooted in the internationally recognized precautionary principle and the polluter pays principle, which are foundational to modern environmental law in India.
#### 2. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Restitutionary Damages as interpreted by the Supreme Court of India:
• The Supreme Court has mandated that the power to impose these damages must be guided by formal rules and regulations.
• The Court’s verdict exclusively applies to cases under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
• The imposition of these damages is based on the ‘precautionary principle’ and the ‘polluter pays principle’.
How many of the above statements are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) All three
Solution: B
Restitutionary damages refer to compensatory payments or financial guarantees imposed on polluting entities to restore environmental damage or prevent potential harm, even before actual damage occurs.
Objective: To repair polluted ecosystems and ensure restoration of air and water to their original state, going beyond punishment to promote ecological recovery and sustainability.
• Statement 1 is correct. The Court emphasized that while Pollution Control Boards have this power, it must not be exercised arbitrarily. It must be structured through subordinate legislation (rules and regulations) to ensure fairness, transparency, and adherence to principles of natural justice.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The ruling explicitly empowers boards under both the Water Act (Section 33A) and the Air Act (Section 31A).
Statement 3 is correct. The entire concept of imposing damages for potential or actual harm is rooted in the internationally recognized precautionary principle and the polluter pays principle, which are foundational to modern environmental law in India.
Solution: B
Restitutionary damages refer to compensatory payments or financial guarantees imposed on polluting entities to restore environmental damage or prevent potential harm, even before actual damage occurs.
Objective: To repair polluted ecosystems and ensure restoration of air and water to their original state, going beyond punishment to promote ecological recovery and sustainability.
• Statement 1 is correct. The Court emphasized that while Pollution Control Boards have this power, it must not be exercised arbitrarily. It must be structured through subordinate legislation (rules and regulations) to ensure fairness, transparency, and adherence to principles of natural justice.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The ruling explicitly empowers boards under both the Water Act (Section 33A) and the Air Act (Section 31A).
Statement 3 is correct. The entire concept of imposing damages for potential or actual harm is rooted in the internationally recognized precautionary principle and the polluter pays principle, which are foundational to modern environmental law in India.
• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements: Statement-I: A vacancy in the office of the Vice President of India caused by resignation must be filled by an election within six months from the date of the occurrence of the vacancy. Statement-II: The Constitution of India, under Article 68, explicitly mandates a timeline for conducting the election to fill a vacancy in the office of the Vice President. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is also incorrect Correct Solution: D Statement-I is incorrect because the six-month rule for filling a vacancy applies to the office of the President of India, not the Vice President. The Constitution does not specify a fixed timeline for holding the election for the Vice President’s office when a vacancy occurs due to resignation, death, or removal. Statement-II is also incorrect. While Article 68 of the Constitution deals with the time of holding an election to fill a vacancy in the office of the Vice President, it only states that an election to fill a vacancy must be held “as soon as possible after the occurrence of the vacancy.” It does not prescribe a specific mandatory timeline like the six-month period for the President. The Election Commission of India is responsible for conducting the election in a timely manner, but there is no constitutional compulsion for it to be within six months. Incorrect Solution: D Statement-I is incorrect because the six-month rule for filling a vacancy applies to the office of the President of India, not the Vice President. The Constitution does not specify a fixed timeline for holding the election for the Vice President’s office when a vacancy occurs due to resignation, death, or removal. Statement-II is also incorrect. While Article 68 of the Constitution deals with the time of holding an election to fill a vacancy in the office of the Vice President, it only states that an election to fill a vacancy must be held “as soon as possible after the occurrence of the vacancy.” It does not prescribe a specific mandatory timeline like the six-month period for the President. The Election Commission of India is responsible for conducting the election in a timely manner, but there is no constitutional compulsion for it to be within six months.
#### 3. Question
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: A vacancy in the office of the Vice President of India caused by resignation must be filled by an election within six months from the date of the occurrence of the vacancy.
Statement-II: The Constitution of India, under Article 68, explicitly mandates a timeline for conducting the election to fill a vacancy in the office of the Vice President.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
• (d) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is also incorrect
Solution: D
• Statement-I is incorrect because the six-month rule for filling a vacancy applies to the office of the President of India, not the Vice President. The Constitution does not specify a fixed timeline for holding the election for the Vice President’s office when a vacancy occurs due to resignation, death, or removal.
Statement-II is also incorrect. While Article 68 of the Constitution deals with the time of holding an election to fill a vacancy in the office of the Vice President, it only states that an election to fill a vacancy must be held “as soon as possible after the occurrence of the vacancy.” It does not prescribe a specific mandatory timeline like the six-month period for the President. The Election Commission of India is responsible for conducting the election in a timely manner, but there is no constitutional compulsion for it to be within six months.
Solution: D
• Statement-I is incorrect because the six-month rule for filling a vacancy applies to the office of the President of India, not the Vice President. The Constitution does not specify a fixed timeline for holding the election for the Vice President’s office when a vacancy occurs due to resignation, death, or removal.
Statement-II is also incorrect. While Article 68 of the Constitution deals with the time of holding an election to fill a vacancy in the office of the Vice President, it only states that an election to fill a vacancy must be held “as soon as possible after the occurrence of the vacancy.” It does not prescribe a specific mandatory timeline like the six-month period for the President. The Election Commission of India is responsible for conducting the election in a timely manner, but there is no constitutional compulsion for it to be within six months.
• Question 4 of 5 4. Question With reference to the Special Assistance to States for Capital Investment (SASCI) scheme for tourism, consider the following statements: It is a centrally funded initiative implemented directly by the Ministry of Tourism. The scheme mandates a project completion window of 24 months from the date of approval. State governments are responsible for proposing and managing the projects under this scheme. The primary objective is to develop iconic tourist centres to a global scale through capital investment. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. While the scheme is a centrally funded initiative, it is executed and managed by the State Governments, not directly by the Ministry of Tourism. Statement 2 is correct. The scheme explicitly sets a two-year (24 months) completion window for each project after it receives approval, ensuring timely implementation. Statement 3 is correct. The operational framework of SASCI is state-led. State governments are empowered to identify potential sites, propose development projects, and manage their execution, with the Centre providing financial assistance. Statement 4 is correct. The core objective of the scheme is to transform select iconic Indian tourism destinations into world-class attractions by focusing on capital investment, infrastructure upgrades, and enhancing the overall tourist experience to boost global competitiveness. Incorrect Solution: C Statement 1 is incorrect. While the scheme is a centrally funded initiative, it is executed and managed by the State Governments, not directly by the Ministry of Tourism. Statement 2 is correct. The scheme explicitly sets a two-year (24 months) completion window for each project after it receives approval, ensuring timely implementation. Statement 3 is correct. The operational framework of SASCI is state-led. State governments are empowered to identify potential sites, propose development projects, and manage their execution, with the Centre providing financial assistance. Statement 4 is correct. The core objective of the scheme is to transform select iconic Indian tourism destinations into world-class attractions by focusing on capital investment, infrastructure upgrades, and enhancing the overall tourist experience to boost global competitiveness.
#### 4. Question
With reference to the Special Assistance to States for Capital Investment (SASCI) scheme for tourism, consider the following statements:
• It is a centrally funded initiative implemented directly by the Ministry of Tourism.
• The scheme mandates a project completion window of 24 months from the date of approval.
• State governments are responsible for proposing and managing the projects under this scheme.
• The primary objective is to develop iconic tourist centres to a global scale through capital investment.
How many of the above statements are correct?
• (a) Only one
• (b) Only two
• (c) Only three
• (d) All four
Solution: C
• Statement 1 is incorrect. While the scheme is a centrally funded initiative, it is executed and managed by the State Governments, not directly by the Ministry of Tourism.
• Statement 2 is correct. The scheme explicitly sets a two-year (24 months) completion window for each project after it receives approval, ensuring timely implementation.
• Statement 3 is correct. The operational framework of SASCI is state-led. State governments are empowered to identify potential sites, propose development projects, and manage their execution, with the Centre providing financial assistance.
Statement 4 is correct. The core objective of the scheme is to transform select iconic Indian tourism destinations into world-class attractions by focusing on capital investment, infrastructure upgrades, and enhancing the overall tourist experience to boost global competitiveness.
Solution: C
• Statement 1 is incorrect. While the scheme is a centrally funded initiative, it is executed and managed by the State Governments, not directly by the Ministry of Tourism.
• Statement 2 is correct. The scheme explicitly sets a two-year (24 months) completion window for each project after it receives approval, ensuring timely implementation.
• Statement 3 is correct. The operational framework of SASCI is state-led. State governments are empowered to identify potential sites, propose development projects, and manage their execution, with the Centre providing financial assistance.
Statement 4 is correct. The core objective of the scheme is to transform select iconic Indian tourism destinations into world-class attractions by focusing on capital investment, infrastructure upgrades, and enhancing the overall tourist experience to boost global competitiveness.
• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements about Bitra Island: It is the largest inhabited island of the Lakshadweep archipelago. The island is strategically significant due to its proximity to the Strait of Hormuz and the Malacca route. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. Bitra Island is the smallest inhabited island in Lakshadweep, not the largest. It has a land area of only 0.105 sq. km. Statement 2 is correct. The geostrategic location of Bitra Island is its primary value from a defence perspective. It lies along key international shipping lanes in the Arabian Sea, offering a vantage point for maritime surveillance over routes connecting the Strait of Hormuz and the Malacca Strait. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is incorrect. Bitra Island is the smallest inhabited island in Lakshadweep, not the largest. It has a land area of only 0.105 sq. km. Statement 2 is correct. The geostrategic location of Bitra Island is its primary value from a defence perspective. It lies along key international shipping lanes in the Arabian Sea, offering a vantage point for maritime surveillance over routes connecting the Strait of Hormuz and the Malacca Strait.
#### 5. Question
Consider the following statements about Bitra Island:
• It is the largest inhabited island of the Lakshadweep archipelago.
• The island is strategically significant due to its proximity to the Strait of Hormuz and the Malacca route.
Which of the above statements are correct?
• (a) 1 only
• (b) 2 only
• (c) Both 1 and 2
• (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
• Statement 1 is incorrect. Bitra Island is the smallest inhabited island in Lakshadweep, not the largest. It has a land area of only 0.105 sq. km.
Statement 2 is correct. The geostrategic location of Bitra Island is its primary value from a defence perspective. It lies along key international shipping lanes in the Arabian Sea, offering a vantage point for maritime surveillance over routes connecting the Strait of Hormuz and the Malacca Strait.
Solution: B
• Statement 1 is incorrect. Bitra Island is the smallest inhabited island in Lakshadweep, not the largest. It has a land area of only 0.105 sq. km.
Statement 2 is correct. The geostrategic location of Bitra Island is its primary value from a defence perspective. It lies along key international shipping lanes in the Arabian Sea, offering a vantage point for maritime surveillance over routes connecting the Strait of Hormuz and the Malacca Strait.
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