UPSC Editorials Quiz : 7 February 2025

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Which of the following conditions is most critical in determining whether a cyclone undergoes bombogenesis? a) The presence of a stationary high-pressure system nearby b) A rapid drop in temperature at the Earth’s surface c) A sharp temperature contrast between cold and warm air masses d) The presence of multiple storm systems merging over the ocean Correct Solution: c) Bombogenesis, or explosive cyclogenesis, occurs when a mid-latitude cyclone rapidly intensifies, with its central pressure dropping by at least 24 millibars within 24 hours. The most critical factor in this process is a sharp temperature contrast between cold and warm air masses. When frigid Arctic air clashes with warm, moisture-rich air, particularly over the ocean, it creates a highly unstable atmosphere. This contrast fuels the storm, intensifies wind speeds, and leads to rapid deepening of the cyclone. While a stationary high-pressure system (option a) may influence the cyclone’s path, it does not drive its intensification. A rapid drop in surface temperature (option b) is not as crucial as the upper-atmosphere dynamics in bombogenesis. The merging of multiple storm systems (option d) can contribute to storm strength but is not a requirement. Incorrect Solution: c) Bombogenesis, or explosive cyclogenesis, occurs when a mid-latitude cyclone rapidly intensifies, with its central pressure dropping by at least 24 millibars within 24 hours. The most critical factor in this process is a sharp temperature contrast between cold and warm air masses. When frigid Arctic air clashes with warm, moisture-rich air, particularly over the ocean, it creates a highly unstable atmosphere. This contrast fuels the storm, intensifies wind speeds, and leads to rapid deepening of the cyclone. While a stationary high-pressure system (option a) may influence the cyclone’s path, it does not drive its intensification. A rapid drop in surface temperature (option b) is not as crucial as the upper-atmosphere dynamics in bombogenesis. The merging of multiple storm systems (option d) can contribute to storm strength but is not a requirement.

#### 1. Question

Which of the following conditions is most critical in determining whether a cyclone undergoes bombogenesis?

• a) The presence of a stationary high-pressure system nearby

• b) A rapid drop in temperature at the Earth’s surface

• c) A sharp temperature contrast between cold and warm air masses

• d) The presence of multiple storm systems merging over the ocean

Solution: c)

Bombogenesis, or explosive cyclogenesis, occurs when a mid-latitude cyclone rapidly intensifies, with its central pressure dropping by at least 24 millibars within 24 hours. The most critical factor in this process is a sharp temperature contrast between cold and warm air masses. When frigid Arctic air clashes with warm, moisture-rich air, particularly over the ocean, it creates a highly unstable atmosphere. This contrast fuels the storm, intensifies wind speeds, and leads to rapid deepening of the cyclone.

While a stationary high-pressure system (option a) may influence the cyclone’s path, it does not drive its intensification. A rapid drop in surface temperature (option b) is not as crucial as the upper-atmosphere dynamics in bombogenesis. The merging of multiple storm systems (option d) can contribute to storm strength but is not a requirement.

Solution: c)

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Retinal diseases can be effectively treated using RNA-based therapeutics. Statement-II: RNA-based therapies modify the patient’s DNA permanently to correct genetic mutations causing retinal diseases. Which of the following is correct? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect. d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct. Correct Solution: c) RNA-based therapeutics have emerged as a promising treatment option for retinal diseases, particularly Inherited Retinal Diseases (IRDs) like Retinitis Pigmentosa and Leber Congenital Amaurosis. These therapies include Antisense Oligonucleotides (ASOs), RNA interference (RNAi), and messenger RNA (mRNA)-based treatments, which work by modifying gene expression, suppressing defective proteins, or restoring functional proteins. They offer a non-permanent yet effective approach to managing retinal diseases. However, Statement-II is incorrect because RNA-based therapies do not permanently modify a patient’s DNA. Unlike gene-editing techniques such as CRISPR, which introduce lasting genetic changes, RNA-based treatments work at the transcript level, influencing gene activity temporarily. This transient nature makes them a safer alternative, as they do not pose the risk of unintended genomic alterations. Incorrect Solution: c) RNA-based therapeutics have emerged as a promising treatment option for retinal diseases, particularly Inherited Retinal Diseases (IRDs) like Retinitis Pigmentosa and Leber Congenital Amaurosis. These therapies include Antisense Oligonucleotides (ASOs), RNA interference (RNAi), and messenger RNA (mRNA)-based treatments, which work by modifying gene expression, suppressing defective proteins, or restoring functional proteins. They offer a non-permanent yet effective approach to managing retinal diseases. However, Statement-II is incorrect because RNA-based therapies do not permanently modify a patient’s DNA. Unlike gene-editing techniques such as CRISPR, which introduce lasting genetic changes, RNA-based treatments work at the transcript level, influencing gene activity temporarily. This transient nature makes them a safer alternative, as they do not pose the risk of unintended genomic alterations.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Retinal diseases can be effectively treated using RNA-based therapeutics. Statement-II: RNA-based therapies modify the patient’s DNA permanently to correct genetic mutations causing retinal diseases.

Which of the following is correct?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

• d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

Solution: c)

RNA-based therapeutics have emerged as a promising treatment option for retinal diseases, particularly Inherited Retinal Diseases (IRDs) like Retinitis Pigmentosa and Leber Congenital Amaurosis. These therapies include Antisense Oligonucleotides (ASOs), RNA interference (RNAi), and messenger RNA (mRNA)-based treatments, which work by modifying gene expression, suppressing defective proteins, or restoring functional proteins. They offer a non-permanent yet effective approach to managing retinal diseases.

However, Statement-II is incorrect because RNA-based therapies do not permanently modify a patient’s DNA. Unlike gene-editing techniques such as CRISPR, which introduce lasting genetic changes, RNA-based treatments work at the transcript level, influencing gene activity temporarily. This transient nature makes them a safer alternative, as they do not pose the risk of unintended genomic alterations.

Solution: c)

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question The main challenge in achieving sustained nuclear fusion on Earth is: a) The difficulty in maintaining plasma at extremely high temperatures. b) The scarcity of deuterium and tritium as fuel sources. c) The unavailability of suitable fissionable material. d) The high greenhouse gas emissions from fusion reactors. Correct Solution: a) Sustained nuclear fusion on Earth requires maintaining plasma at temperatures exceeding 100 million Kelvin, which is hotter than the core of the Sun. At these extreme temperatures, atomic nuclei overcome electrostatic repulsion and fuse, releasing vast amounts of energy. However, plasma is highly unstable and tends to dissipate energy quickly, making it extremely difficult to confine and sustain. Magnetic confinement (in tokamaks like ITER) and inertial confinement (using lasers like at the National Ignition Facility) are the two main approaches to keeping plasma stable, but both face challenges such as turbulence, energy loss, and material limitations. Incorrect Solution: a) Sustained nuclear fusion on Earth requires maintaining plasma at temperatures exceeding 100 million Kelvin, which is hotter than the core of the Sun. At these extreme temperatures, atomic nuclei overcome electrostatic repulsion and fuse, releasing vast amounts of energy. However, plasma is highly unstable and tends to dissipate energy quickly, making it extremely difficult to confine and sustain. Magnetic confinement (in tokamaks like ITER) and inertial confinement (using lasers like at the National Ignition Facility) are the two main approaches to keeping plasma stable, but both face challenges such as turbulence, energy loss, and material limitations.

#### 3. Question

The main challenge in achieving sustained nuclear fusion on Earth is:

• a) The difficulty in maintaining plasma at extremely high temperatures.

• b) The scarcity of deuterium and tritium as fuel sources.

• c) The unavailability of suitable fissionable material.

• d) The high greenhouse gas emissions from fusion reactors.

Solution: a)

Sustained nuclear fusion on Earth requires maintaining plasma at temperatures exceeding 100 million Kelvin, which is hotter than the core of the Sun. At these extreme temperatures, atomic nuclei overcome electrostatic repulsion and fuse, releasing vast amounts of energy. However, plasma is highly unstable and tends to dissipate energy quickly, making it extremely difficult to confine and sustain.

Magnetic confinement (in tokamaks like ITER) and inertial confinement (using lasers like at the National Ignition Facility) are the two main approaches to keeping plasma stable, but both face challenges such as turbulence, energy loss, and material limitations.

Solution: a)

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements regarding Waqf Boards in India: Waqf Boards are statutory bodies established under the Waqf Act, 1995. The Central Waqf Council (CWC) functions as a regulatory body with enforcement powers over State Waqf Boards. The Ministry of Minority Affairs oversees the functioning of Waqf Boards in India. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct: Waqf Boards are statutory bodies created under the Waqf Act, 1954, which was later strengthened by the Waqf Act, 1995. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Central Waqf Council (CWC) is an advisory body, not a regulatory or enforcement authority. It monitors and advises State Waqf Boards but does not have direct enforcement powers. Statement 3 is correct: The Ministry of Minority Affairs oversees the functioning of Waqf Boards in India. What is a Waqf Board? Established in:The concept of Waqf Boards was formalized under the Waqf Act, 1954, and further strengthened by the Waqf Act, 1995. (It is statutory body) Governed by:The Ministry of Minority Affairs, Government of India, oversees the functioning of Waqf Boards. Functions and Powers: Administration:Manages and supervises Waqf properties. Recovery:Recovers lost or encroached Waqf properties. Transfer:Sanctions the transfer of immovable Waqf properties through sale, gift, mortgage, exchange, or lease. Appointment:Appoints custodians to ensure Waqf revenues are used for designated purposes. Legal Authority:Can sue and be sued in court. Board and Members: Chairperson:Appointed by the state government. Members:Include Muslim legislators, parliamentarians, members of the state Bar Council, Islamic scholars, and mutawalis (managers) of Waqfs with an annual income of ₹1 lakh and above. Central Waqf Council (CWC):Established in 1964 to oversee and advise state-level Waqf Boards. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct: Waqf Boards are statutory bodies created under the Waqf Act, 1954, which was later strengthened by the Waqf Act, 1995. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Central Waqf Council (CWC) is an advisory body, not a regulatory or enforcement authority. It monitors and advises State Waqf Boards but does not have direct enforcement powers. Statement 3 is correct: The Ministry of Minority Affairs oversees the functioning of Waqf Boards in India. What is a Waqf Board? Established in:The concept of Waqf Boards was formalized under the Waqf Act, 1954, and further strengthened by the Waqf Act, 1995. (It is statutory body) Governed by:The Ministry of Minority Affairs, Government of India, oversees the functioning of Waqf Boards. Functions and Powers: Administration:Manages and supervises Waqf properties. Recovery:Recovers lost or encroached Waqf properties. Transfer:Sanctions the transfer of immovable Waqf properties through sale, gift, mortgage, exchange, or lease. Appointment:Appoints custodians to ensure Waqf revenues are used for designated purposes. Legal Authority:Can sue and be sued in court. Board and Members: Chairperson:Appointed by the state government. Members:Include Muslim legislators, parliamentarians, members of the state Bar Council, Islamic scholars, and mutawalis (managers) of Waqfs with an annual income of ₹1 lakh and above. Central Waqf Council (CWC):Established in 1964 to oversee and advise state-level Waqf Boards.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Waqf Boards in India:

• Waqf Boards are statutory bodies established under the Waqf Act, 1995.

• The Central Waqf Council (CWC) functions as a regulatory body with enforcement powers over State Waqf Boards.

• The Ministry of Minority Affairs oversees the functioning of Waqf Boards in India.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is correct: Waqf Boards are statutory bodies created under the Waqf Act, 1954, which was later strengthened by the Waqf Act, 1995.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Central Waqf Council (CWC) is an advisory body, not a regulatory or enforcement authority. It monitors and advises State Waqf Boards but does not have direct enforcement powers.

Statement 3 is correct: The Ministry of Minority Affairs oversees the functioning of Waqf Boards in India.

What is a Waqf Board?

• Established in:The concept of Waqf Boards was formalized under the Waqf Act, 1954, and further strengthened by the Waqf Act, 1995. (It is statutory body)

• Governed by:The Ministry of Minority Affairs, Government of India, oversees the functioning of Waqf Boards.

Functions and Powers:

• Administration:Manages and supervises Waqf properties.

• Recovery:Recovers lost or encroached Waqf properties.

• Transfer:Sanctions the transfer of immovable Waqf properties through sale, gift, mortgage, exchange, or lease.

• Appointment:Appoints custodians to ensure Waqf revenues are used for designated purposes.

• Legal Authority:Can sue and be sued in court.

Board and Members:

• Chairperson:Appointed by the state government.

• Members:Include Muslim legislators, parliamentarians, members of the state Bar Council, Islamic scholars, and mutawalis (managers) of Waqfs with an annual income of ₹1 lakh and above.

• Central Waqf Council (CWC):Established in 1964 to oversee and advise state-level Waqf Boards.

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is correct: Waqf Boards are statutory bodies created under the Waqf Act, 1954, which was later strengthened by the Waqf Act, 1995.

Statement 3 is correct: The Ministry of Minority Affairs oversees the functioning of Waqf Boards in India.

What is a Waqf Board?

• Established in:The concept of Waqf Boards was formalized under the Waqf Act, 1954, and further strengthened by the Waqf Act, 1995. (It is statutory body)

• Governed by:The Ministry of Minority Affairs, Government of India, oversees the functioning of Waqf Boards.

Functions and Powers:

• Administration:Manages and supervises Waqf properties.

• Recovery:Recovers lost or encroached Waqf properties.

• Transfer:Sanctions the transfer of immovable Waqf properties through sale, gift, mortgage, exchange, or lease.

• Appointment:Appoints custodians to ensure Waqf revenues are used for designated purposes.

• Legal Authority:Can sue and be sued in court.

Board and Members:

• Chairperson:Appointed by the state government.

• Members:Include Muslim legislators, parliamentarians, members of the state Bar Council, Islamic scholars, and mutawalis (managers) of Waqfs with an annual income of ₹1 lakh and above.

• Central Waqf Council (CWC):Established in 1964 to oversee and advise state-level Waqf Boards.

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements regarding constitutional safeguards against manual scavenging in India: Article 14 ensures equality before the law, which applies to all citizens, including manual scavengers. Article 17 prohibits untouchability and any form of discrimination against former manual scavengers. Article 21 guarantees the right to life, but does not extend to protection from hazardous work conditions. Article 23 prohibits forced labor, which includes coercion into manual scavenging. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution: c) Statement 1 is correct: Article 14 guarantees “equality before the law” and “equal protection of the laws,” ensuring that no citizen, including manual scavengers, is discriminated against in legal matters. Statement 2 is correct: Article 17 abolishes untouchability in all forms, which is significant since manual scavenging has historically been associated with caste-based discrimination and untouchability. This provision reinforces legal protections for those engaged in such degrading work. Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 21 guarantees the right to life and personal liberty, which the Supreme Court has interpreted to include the right to live with dignity and protection from hazardous work conditions, such as manual scavenging. Thus, it does provide safeguards against unsafe labor. Statement 4 is correct: Article 23 prohibits forced labor, which includes coerced or bonded manual scavenging under exploitative conditions. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement 1 is correct: Article 14 guarantees “equality before the law” and “equal protection of the laws,” ensuring that no citizen, including manual scavengers, is discriminated against in legal matters. Statement 2 is correct: Article 17 abolishes untouchability in all forms, which is significant since manual scavenging has historically been associated with caste-based discrimination and untouchability. This provision reinforces legal protections for those engaged in such degrading work. Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 21 guarantees the right to life and personal liberty, which the Supreme Court has interpreted to include the right to live with dignity and protection from hazardous work conditions, such as manual scavenging. Thus, it does provide safeguards against unsafe labor. Statement 4 is correct: Article 23 prohibits forced labor, which includes coerced or bonded manual scavenging under exploitative conditions.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding constitutional safeguards against manual scavenging in India:

• Article 14 ensures equality before the law, which applies to all citizens, including manual scavengers.

• Article 17 prohibits untouchability and any form of discrimination against former manual scavengers.

• Article 21 guarantees the right to life, but does not extend to protection from hazardous work conditions.

• Article 23 prohibits forced labor, which includes coercion into manual scavenging.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) Only three

• d) All four

Solution: c)

Statement 1 is correct: Article 14 guarantees “equality before the law” and “equal protection of the laws,” ensuring that no citizen, including manual scavengers, is discriminated against in legal matters.

Statement 2 is correct: Article 17 abolishes untouchability in all forms, which is significant since manual scavenging has historically been associated with caste-based discrimination and untouchability. This provision reinforces legal protections for those engaged in such degrading work.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 21 guarantees the right to life and personal liberty, which the Supreme Court has interpreted to include the right to live with dignity and protection from hazardous work conditions, such as manual scavenging. Thus, it does provide safeguards against unsafe labor.

Statement 4 is correct: Article 23 prohibits forced labor, which includes coerced or bonded manual scavenging under exploitative conditions.

Solution: c)

Statement 4 is correct: Article 23 prohibits forced labor, which includes coerced or bonded manual scavenging under exploitative conditions.

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