UPSC Editorials Quiz : 6 November 2025

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements regarding India’s role in the Paris Agreement framework: India has achieved 50% of its installed electricity capacity from non-fossil fuel sources ahead of its 2030 target. India’s net-zero commitment is to be achieved by 2050, aligning with the timeline of developed nations. India co-launched the International Solar Alliance during COP21 along with France. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B India achieved a milestone in 2025 by reaching 50% installed power capacity from non-fossil sources, five years before its 2030 target. India’s Net-Zero pledge extends to 2070, recognising its developmental stage — unlike developed nations such as the EU or US targeting 2050. The International Solar Alliance (ISA), launched jointly by India and France at COP21 in Paris, aims to mobilise solar energy cooperation among tropical countries. Hence, statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: B India achieved a milestone in 2025 by reaching 50% installed power capacity from non-fossil sources, five years before its 2030 target. India’s Net-Zero pledge extends to 2070, recognising its developmental stage — unlike developed nations such as the EU or US targeting 2050. The International Solar Alliance (ISA), launched jointly by India and France at COP21 in Paris, aims to mobilise solar energy cooperation among tropical countries. Hence, statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding India’s role in the Paris Agreement framework:

• India has achieved 50% of its installed electricity capacity from non-fossil fuel sources ahead of its 2030 target.

• India’s net-zero commitment is to be achieved by 2050, aligning with the timeline of developed nations.

• India co-launched the International Solar Alliance during COP21 along with France.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

India achieved a milestone in 2025 by reaching 50% installed power capacity from non-fossil sources, five years before its 2030 target. India’s Net-Zero pledge extends to 2070, recognising its developmental stage — unlike developed nations such as the EU or US targeting 2050. The International Solar Alliance (ISA), launched jointly by India and France at COP21 in Paris, aims to mobilise solar energy cooperation among tropical countries. Hence, statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution: B

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements: Critical minerals are defined by their unique metallic and chemical properties, similar to the 17 elements in the Rare Earth Element (REE) group. The supply risk for all critical minerals is highly concentrated, with China being the primary source. Critical minerals are a broad economic category that includes Rare Earth Elements as one of its subsets. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. This statement incorrectly applies the definition of REEs to critical minerals. REEs are defined by their chemical and physical properties (17 specific elements). Critical minerals are defined by their economic importance and supply risk, a much broader classification. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the supply of REEs is highly concentrated in China, this is not true for all critical minerals. The list of critical minerals is diverse and includes elements like lithium, cobalt, and graphite. The supply risks for these are vulnerable and geographically varied (e.g., cobalt from DRC, lithium from South America and Australia), not solely concentrated in one country. Statement 3 is correct. “Critical Minerals” is the broad umbrella term. REEs are a specific group of elements that, due to their importance and supply risk, are included within the larger list of critical minerals. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. This statement incorrectly applies the definition of REEs to critical minerals. REEs are defined by their chemical and physical properties (17 specific elements). Critical minerals are defined by their economic importance and supply risk, a much broader classification. Statement 2 is incorrect. While the supply of REEs is highly concentrated in China, this is not true for all critical minerals. The list of critical minerals is diverse and includes elements like lithium, cobalt, and graphite. The supply risks for these are vulnerable and geographically varied (e.g., cobalt from DRC, lithium from South America and Australia), not solely concentrated in one country. Statement 3 is correct. “Critical Minerals” is the broad umbrella term. REEs are a specific group of elements that, due to their importance and supply risk, are included within the larger list of critical minerals.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Critical minerals are defined by their unique metallic and chemical properties, similar to the 17 elements in the Rare Earth Element (REE) group.

• The supply risk for all critical minerals is highly concentrated, with China being the primary source.

• Critical minerals are a broad economic category that includes Rare Earth Elements as one of its subsets.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. This statement incorrectly applies the definition of REEs to critical minerals. REEs are defined by their chemical and physical properties (17 specific elements). Critical minerals are defined by their economic importance and supply risk, a much broader classification.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. While the supply of REEs is highly concentrated in China, this is not true for all critical minerals. The list of critical minerals is diverse and includes elements like lithium, cobalt, and graphite. The supply risks for these are vulnerable and geographically varied (e.g., cobalt from DRC, lithium from South America and Australia), not solely concentrated in one country.

• Statement 3 is correct. “Critical Minerals” is the broad umbrella term. REEs are a specific group of elements that, due to their importance and supply risk, are included within the larger list of critical minerals.

Solution: A

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question A company failed to enrol 100 eligible employees in the EPF scheme between 2018 and 2023. The company also states that it never deducted the employee’s contribution from their salaries during this period. If the company opts for the Employee’s Enrolment Scheme 2025, what is its primary liability? (a) Both the employer's and the missed employee's share of contributions, plus heavy penalties under Section 7A. (b) Only the employer's share of contribution for the period and a nominal penalty of ₹100. (c) Only the missed employee's share of contribution, as the employer's share is waived under the scheme. (d) The scheme is not applicable as the non-compliance period extends beyond three years. Correct Solution: B The Employee’s Enrolment Scheme 2025 is designed for exactly this scenario: enrolling employees who were eligible but not covered between July 2017 and October 2025. A key feature is the waiver of the employee’s contribution if it was not deducted earlier, which applies in this case. Another key feature is the financial incentive. Instead of facing large penalties for past omissions (which would be determined under a Section 7A inquiry), the employer is required to pay only their own share of the contribution for the period and a nominal penalty of ₹100. The scheme explicitly states that EPFO will not take suo motu action for past omissions once this compliance is met. Therefore, (b) is the correct answer. Incorrect Solution: B The Employee’s Enrolment Scheme 2025 is designed for exactly this scenario: enrolling employees who were eligible but not covered between July 2017 and October 2025. A key feature is the waiver of the employee’s contribution if it was not deducted earlier, which applies in this case. Another key feature is the financial incentive. Instead of facing large penalties for past omissions (which would be determined under a Section 7A inquiry), the employer is required to pay only their own share of the contribution for the period and a nominal penalty of ₹100. The scheme explicitly states that EPFO will not take suo motu action for past omissions once this compliance is met. Therefore, (b) is the correct answer.

#### 3. Question

A company failed to enrol 100 eligible employees in the EPF scheme between 2018 and 2023. The company also states that it never deducted the employee’s contribution from their salaries during this period. If the company opts for the Employee’s Enrolment Scheme 2025, what is its primary liability?

• (a) Both the employer's and the missed employee's share of contributions, plus heavy penalties under Section 7A.

• (b) Only the employer's share of contribution for the period and a nominal penalty of ₹100.

• (c) Only the missed employee's share of contribution, as the employer's share is waived under the scheme.

• (d) The scheme is not applicable as the non-compliance period extends beyond three years.

Solution: B

The Employee’s Enrolment Scheme 2025 is designed for exactly this scenario: enrolling employees who were eligible but not covered between July 2017 and October 2025. A key feature is the waiver of the employee’s contribution if it was not deducted earlier, which applies in this case. Another key feature is the financial incentive. Instead of facing large penalties for past omissions (which would be determined under a Section 7A inquiry), the employer is required to pay only their own share of the contribution for the period and a nominal penalty of ₹100. The scheme explicitly states that EPFO will not take suo motu action for past omissions once this compliance is met. Therefore, (b) is the correct answer.

Solution: B

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements: Statement I: Project Cheetah is aimed at restoring grassland ecosystems and enhancing biodiversity in India. Statement II: The cheetah, as an indicator species, plays a crucial role in maintaining the health and balance of grassland ecosystems. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I (Assertion) is correct. The aim of Project Cheetah is “To restore grassland ecosystems, enhance biodiversity, and strengthen prey–predator balance.” Statement-II (Reason) is correct. Cheetah’s ecological role: “Serves as an indicator species for grassland health and ecosystem balance.” An indicator species’ presence, absence, or health reflects the overall condition of its ecosystem. Statement-II provides the ecological rationale why reintroducing the cheetah (as described in Statement-I’s aim) helps restore the ecosystem. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I (Assertion) is correct. The aim of Project Cheetah is “To restore grassland ecosystems, enhance biodiversity, and strengthen prey–predator balance.” Statement-II (Reason) is correct. Cheetah’s ecological role: “Serves as an indicator species for grassland health and ecosystem balance.” An indicator species’ presence, absence, or health reflects the overall condition of its ecosystem. Statement-II provides the ecological rationale why reintroducing the cheetah (as described in Statement-I’s aim) helps restore the ecosystem.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Project Cheetah is aimed at restoring grassland ecosystems and enhancing biodiversity in India.

Statement II: The cheetah, as an indicator species, plays a crucial role in maintaining the health and balance of grassland ecosystems.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I (Assertion) is correct. The aim of Project Cheetah is “To restore grassland ecosystems, enhance biodiversity, and strengthen prey–predator balance.”

• Statement-II (Reason) is correct. Cheetah’s ecological role: “Serves as an indicator species for grassland health and ecosystem balance.” An indicator species’ presence, absence, or health reflects the overall condition of its ecosystem.

• Statement-II provides the ecological rationale why reintroducing the cheetah (as described in Statement-I’s aim) helps restore the ecosystem.

Solution: A

• Statement-I (Assertion) is correct. The aim of Project Cheetah is “To restore grassland ecosystems, enhance biodiversity, and strengthen prey–predator balance.”

• Statement-II provides the ecological rationale why reintroducing the cheetah (as described in Statement-I’s aim) helps restore the ecosystem.

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Which of the following factors is identified as having a determining influence on the frequency and intensity of Western Disturbances? (a) The position and strength of the subtropical westerly jet stream (b) The onset velocity of the Bay of Bengal branch of the southwest monsoon (c) The periodic warming of the equatorial Pacific Ocean (El Niño) (d) The extent of winter snow cover in the Tibetan Plateau Correct Solution: A Western Disturbances (WDs) are extratropical storms originating in the Mediterranean region that travel eastward across West and Central Asia to India, bringing winter rainfall, snowfall, and cold weather conditions, particularly over northwestern India. Their frequency and intensity are primarily determined by the position, strength, and oscillations of the subtropical westerly jet stream (STWJ), which acts as a steering current for these systems. When the STWJ is strong and located southward (near 25°N latitude), WDs are more frequent and intense, leading to significant precipitation over the Indo-Gangetic plains and western Himalayas. Conversely, when the jet shifts northward or weakens, WD activity diminishes. Other factors like El Niño or Tibetan snow cover may have secondary or indirect influences, but the dominant control remains the mid-latitude upper-air circulation pattern associated with the westerly jet. Incorrect Solution: A Western Disturbances (WDs) are extratropical storms originating in the Mediterranean region that travel eastward across West and Central Asia to India, bringing winter rainfall, snowfall, and cold weather conditions, particularly over northwestern India. Their frequency and intensity are primarily determined by the position, strength, and oscillations of the subtropical westerly jet stream (STWJ), which acts as a steering current for these systems. When the STWJ is strong and located southward (near 25°N latitude), WDs are more frequent and intense, leading to significant precipitation over the Indo-Gangetic plains and western Himalayas. Conversely, when the jet shifts northward or weakens, WD activity diminishes. Other factors like El Niño or Tibetan snow cover may have secondary or indirect influences, but the dominant control remains the mid-latitude upper-air circulation pattern associated with the westerly jet.

#### 5. Question

Which of the following factors is identified as having a determining influence on the frequency and intensity of Western Disturbances?

• (a) The position and strength of the subtropical westerly jet stream

• (b) The onset velocity of the Bay of Bengal branch of the southwest monsoon

• (c) The periodic warming of the equatorial Pacific Ocean (El Niño)

• (d) The extent of winter snow cover in the Tibetan Plateau

Solution: A

• Western Disturbances (WDs) are extratropical storms originating in the Mediterranean region that travel eastward across West and Central Asia to India, bringing winter rainfall, snowfall, and cold weather conditions, particularly over northwestern India. Their frequency and intensity are primarily determined by the position, strength, and oscillations of the subtropical westerly jet stream (STWJ), which acts as a steering current for these systems.

• When the STWJ is strong and located southward (near 25°N latitude), WDs are more frequent and intense, leading to significant precipitation over the Indo-Gangetic plains and western Himalayas. Conversely, when the jet shifts northward or weakens, WD activity diminishes.

• Other factors like El Niño or Tibetan snow cover may have secondary or indirect influences, but the dominant control remains the mid-latitude upper-air circulation pattern associated with the westerly jet.

Solution: A

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