UPSC Editorials Quiz : 6 January 2026

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

#### Quiz-summary

0 of 5 questions completed

Questions:

#### Information

Best of luck! 🙂

You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.

Quiz is loading...

You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:

0 of 5 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)

#### Categories

• Not categorized 0%

• Question 1 of 5 1. Question The ‘Mithila Makhana’ (Fox Nut) has recently gained prominence as a global superfood. Which of the following conditions are most conducive for its cultivation? Stagnant perennial water bodies with a depth of 4-6 feet. Tropical to subtropical climate with temperatures between 20°C to 35°C. Sandy desert soil with high porosity and low water retention. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: A With the GI Tag and the new “Makhana Board” announced in 2025, the cultivation of this crop is a focus area. Statement 1 is correct: Makhana (Euryale ferox) is an aquatic crop. It requires stagnant perennial water bodies (ponds, oxbow lakes, swamps) with a water depth of roughly 0.2 to 2 meters (4-6 feet). It cannot grow in flowing rivers or dry land. Statement 2 is correct: It is a plant of tropical and subtropical climates. It requires an optimum temperature range of 20°C to 35°C, high relative humidity (50-90%), and substantial annual rainfall (100-250 cm). Statement 3 is incorrect: The crop requires a smooth loamy or clayey soil bottom in the water body to anchor its rhizomes. Sandy desert soil is highly porous and cannot retain the water necessary for a wetland ecosystem, making it completely unsuitable. Incorrect Solution: A With the GI Tag and the new “Makhana Board” announced in 2025, the cultivation of this crop is a focus area. Statement 1 is correct: Makhana (Euryale ferox) is an aquatic crop. It requires stagnant perennial water bodies (ponds, oxbow lakes, swamps) with a water depth of roughly 0.2 to 2 meters (4-6 feet). It cannot grow in flowing rivers or dry land. Statement 2 is correct: It is a plant of tropical and subtropical climates. It requires an optimum temperature range of 20°C to 35°C, high relative humidity (50-90%), and substantial annual rainfall (100-250 cm). Statement 3 is incorrect: The crop requires a smooth loamy or clayey soil bottom in the water body to anchor its rhizomes. Sandy desert soil is highly porous and cannot retain the water necessary for a wetland ecosystem, making it completely unsuitable.

#### 1. Question

The ‘Mithila Makhana’ (Fox Nut) has recently gained prominence as a global superfood. Which of the following conditions are most conducive for its cultivation?

• Stagnant perennial water bodies with a depth of 4-6 feet.

• Tropical to subtropical climate with temperatures between 20°C to 35°C.

• Sandy desert soil with high porosity and low water retention.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 2 only

• (b) 2 and 3 only

• (c) 1 and 3 only

• (d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

• With the GI Tag and the new “Makhana Board” announced in 2025, the cultivation of this crop is a focus area.

• Statement 1 is correct: Makhana (Euryale ferox) is an aquatic crop. It requires stagnant perennial water bodies (ponds, oxbow lakes, swamps) with a water depth of roughly 0.2 to 2 meters (4-6 feet). It cannot grow in flowing rivers or dry land.

• Statement 2 is correct: It is a plant of tropical and subtropical climates. It requires an optimum temperature range of 20°C to 35°C, high relative humidity (50-90%), and substantial annual rainfall (100-250 cm).

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The crop requires a smooth loamy or clayey soil bottom in the water body to anchor its rhizomes. Sandy desert soil is highly porous and cannot retain the water necessary for a wetland ecosystem, making it completely unsuitable.

Solution: A

• With the GI Tag and the new “Makhana Board” announced in 2025, the cultivation of this crop is a focus area.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question An ‘Earthquake Swarm’ was observed in the Kamchatka peninsula following the M 8.8 event in 2025. How does a swarm differ from a typical Mainshock-Aftershock sequence? (a) Swarms always precede a volcanic eruption, whereas aftershocks do not. (b) Swarms have no distinct mainshock; they consist of numerous quakes of similar magnitude over a period. (c) Swarms only occur at divergent plate boundaries, whereas aftershocks occur at convergent boundaries. (d) Swarms are caused by human activity (induced seismicity) only. Correct Solution: B An earthquake swarm is fundamentally different from the classical mainshock–aftershock sequence in terms of energy release and temporal hierarchy. In a typical sequence, one dominant large earthquake (the mainshock) releases most of the accumulated strain energy, followed by smaller aftershocks whose magnitudes decay with time, as described by Omori’s Law. In contrast, an earthquake swarm lacks a clearly identifiable mainshock. Instead, it comprises a cluster of earthquakes occurring over days to months, with magnitudes that are often similar and without a systematic decrease. Swarms are commonly associated with fluid movements in the crust, such as magma intrusion, hydrothermal circulation, or pore-fluid pressure changes along faults, but they do not always precede volcanic eruptions. They can occur in subduction zones, transform settings, and even intraplate regions. Incorrect Solution: B An earthquake swarm is fundamentally different from the classical mainshock–aftershock sequence in terms of energy release and temporal hierarchy. In a typical sequence, one dominant large earthquake (the mainshock) releases most of the accumulated strain energy, followed by smaller aftershocks whose magnitudes decay with time, as described by Omori’s Law. In contrast, an earthquake swarm lacks a clearly identifiable mainshock. Instead, it comprises a cluster of earthquakes occurring over days to months, with magnitudes that are often similar and without a systematic decrease. Swarms are commonly associated with fluid movements in the crust, such as magma intrusion, hydrothermal circulation, or pore-fluid pressure changes along faults, but they do not always precede volcanic eruptions. They can occur in subduction zones, transform settings, and even intraplate regions.

#### 2. Question

An ‘Earthquake Swarm’ was observed in the Kamchatka peninsula following the M 8.8 event in 2025. How does a swarm differ from a typical Mainshock-Aftershock sequence?

• (a) Swarms always precede a volcanic eruption, whereas aftershocks do not.

• (b) Swarms have no distinct mainshock; they consist of numerous quakes of similar magnitude over a period.

• (c) Swarms only occur at divergent plate boundaries, whereas aftershocks occur at convergent boundaries.

• (d) Swarms are caused by human activity (induced seismicity) only.

Solution: B

• An earthquake swarm is fundamentally different from the classical mainshock–aftershock sequence in terms of energy release and temporal hierarchy.

• In a typical sequence, one dominant large earthquake (the mainshock) releases most of the accumulated strain energy, followed by smaller aftershocks whose magnitudes decay with time, as described by Omori’s Law.

• In contrast, an earthquake swarm lacks a clearly identifiable mainshock. Instead, it comprises a cluster of earthquakes occurring over days to months, with magnitudes that are often similar and without a systematic decrease.

• Swarms are commonly associated with fluid movements in the crust, such as magma intrusion, hydrothermal circulation, or pore-fluid pressure changes along faults, but they do not always precede volcanic eruptions. They can occur in subduction zones, transform settings, and even intraplate regions.

Solution: B

• An earthquake swarm is fundamentally different from the classical mainshock–aftershock sequence in terms of energy release and temporal hierarchy.

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question The “JAIMEX-25” exercise, recently conducted in October 2025, involved the navies of: (a) India and Japan (b) India and Jordan (c) Japan and Mexico (d) India and Jamaica Correct Solution: A JAIMEX-25 stands for Japan-India Maritime Exercise. It was conducted off the coast of Yokosuka, Japan. The Indian naval ship INS Sahyadri participated in the exercise alongside Japanese vessels. Incorrect Solution: A JAIMEX-25 stands for Japan-India Maritime Exercise. It was conducted off the coast of Yokosuka, Japan. The Indian naval ship INS Sahyadri participated in the exercise alongside Japanese vessels.

#### 3. Question

The “JAIMEX-25” exercise, recently conducted in October 2025, involved the navies of:

• (a) India and Japan

• (b) India and Jordan

• (c) Japan and Mexico

• (d) India and Jamaica

Solution: A

JAIMEX-25 stands for Japan-India Maritime Exercise. It was conducted off the coast of Yokosuka, Japan. The Indian naval ship INS Sahyadri participated in the exercise alongside Japanese vessels.

Solution: A

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question The Critical Mineral Recycling Incentive Scheme primarily targets the recovery of which of the following minerals from waste streams? (a) Coal and Iron Ore (b) Lithium, Cobalt, and Nickel (c) Gold and Silver only (d) Uranium and Thorium Correct Solution: B The Critical Mineral Recycling Incentive Scheme is aligned with India’s broader strategy to secure access to minerals that are essential for the energy transition, advanced manufacturing, and strategic technologies. Lithium, cobalt, and nickel are core inputs for lithium-ion batteries used in electric vehicles, grid-scale energy storage systems, consumer electronics, and emerging clean-energy applications. India has very limited domestic geological reserves of these minerals and is heavily dependent on imports, which exposes it to global supply chain disruptions, geopolitical risks, and price volatility. Recycling from waste streams—such as end-of-life batteries, electronic waste, and industrial scrap—offers a secondary, more secure source of these critical minerals. The scheme therefore incentivizes the development of recycling infrastructure, advanced hydrometallurgical and pyrometallurgical processes, and circular economy models to recover these materials efficiently. Incorrect Solution: B The Critical Mineral Recycling Incentive Scheme is aligned with India’s broader strategy to secure access to minerals that are essential for the energy transition, advanced manufacturing, and strategic technologies. Lithium, cobalt, and nickel are core inputs for lithium-ion batteries used in electric vehicles, grid-scale energy storage systems, consumer electronics, and emerging clean-energy applications. India has very limited domestic geological reserves of these minerals and is heavily dependent on imports, which exposes it to global supply chain disruptions, geopolitical risks, and price volatility. Recycling from waste streams—such as end-of-life batteries, electronic waste, and industrial scrap—offers a secondary, more secure source of these critical minerals. The scheme therefore incentivizes the development of recycling infrastructure, advanced hydrometallurgical and pyrometallurgical processes, and circular economy models to recover these materials efficiently.

#### 4. Question

The Critical Mineral Recycling Incentive Scheme primarily targets the recovery of which of the following minerals from waste streams?

• (a) Coal and Iron Ore

• (b) Lithium, Cobalt, and Nickel

• (c) Gold and Silver only

• (d) Uranium and Thorium

Solution: B

• The Critical Mineral Recycling Incentive Scheme is aligned with India’s broader strategy to secure access to minerals that are essential for the energy transition, advanced manufacturing, and strategic technologies.

• Lithium, cobalt, and nickel are core inputs for lithium-ion batteries used in electric vehicles, grid-scale energy storage systems, consumer electronics, and emerging clean-energy applications.

• India has very limited domestic geological reserves of these minerals and is heavily dependent on imports, which exposes it to global supply chain disruptions, geopolitical risks, and price volatility.

• Recycling from waste streams—such as end-of-life batteries, electronic waste, and industrial scrap—offers a secondary, more secure source of these critical minerals.

• The scheme therefore incentivizes the development of recycling infrastructure, advanced hydrometallurgical and pyrometallurgical processes, and circular economy models to recover these materials efficiently.

Solution: B

• Lithium, cobalt, and nickel are core inputs for lithium-ion batteries used in electric vehicles, grid-scale energy storage systems, consumer electronics, and emerging clean-energy applications.

• Recycling from waste streams—such as end-of-life batteries, electronic waste, and industrial scrap—offers a secondary, more secure source of these critical minerals.

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Classical Languages’ of India: Statement I: The Union Cabinet recently conferred the status of Classical Language to Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese, and Bengali, bringing the total number of such languages to eleven. Statement II: The Linguistic Expert Committee revised the criteria for this status, removing the mandatory requirement that the literary tradition must be “original and not borrowed from another speech community.” Statement III: The inclusion of Pali and Prakrit is significant as they are the primary languages of the ancient Buddhist and Jain canons respectively. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain the context for Statement I (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct Correct Solution: A Statement I is Correct: In October 2024, the government granted Classical Status to five new languages: Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese, and Bengali. This brings the total to 11 (adding to Tamil, Sanskrit, Kannada, Telugu, Malayalam, Odia). Statement II is Correct: The criteria were revised. The earlier strict requirement for “original literary tradition not borrowed” was dropped. The committee acknowledged that ancient languages (like Pali, Prakrit, and early vernaculars) often shared and reconstructed themes from each other (e.g., Sanskrit/Pali interactions). Retaining the strict “originality” clause would have disqualified languages like Marathi or Assamese which have deep roots but interconnected histories. Statement III is Correct: Pali is the language of the Theravada Buddhist canon (Tripitaka), and Prakrit is the language of the Jain Agamas and many Ashokan inscriptions. Their inclusion recognizes their contribution to India’s intellectual heritage. Both II and III explain Statement I. The revision of criteria (Statement II) was the procedural enabler that allowed these specific languages to qualify. The historical significance of Pali/Prakrit (Statement III) provided the cultural justification for the Cabinet’s decision in Statement I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is Correct: In October 2024, the government granted Classical Status to five new languages: Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese, and Bengali. This brings the total to 11 (adding to Tamil, Sanskrit, Kannada, Telugu, Malayalam, Odia). Statement II is Correct: The criteria were revised. The earlier strict requirement for “original literary tradition not borrowed” was dropped. The committee acknowledged that ancient languages (like Pali, Prakrit, and early vernaculars) often shared and reconstructed themes from each other (e.g., Sanskrit/Pali interactions). Retaining the strict “originality” clause would have disqualified languages like Marathi or Assamese which have deep roots but interconnected histories. Statement III is Correct: Pali is the language of the Theravada Buddhist canon (Tripitaka), and Prakrit is the language of the Jain Agamas and many Ashokan inscriptions. Their inclusion recognizes their contribution to India’s intellectual heritage. Both II and III explain Statement I. The revision of criteria (Statement II) was the procedural enabler that allowed these specific languages to qualify. The historical significance of Pali/Prakrit (Statement III) provided the cultural justification for the Cabinet’s decision in Statement I.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Classical Languages’ of India:

Statement I: The Union Cabinet recently conferred the status of Classical Language to Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese, and Bengali, bringing the total number of such languages to eleven.

Statement II: The Linguistic Expert Committee revised the criteria for this status, removing the mandatory requirement that the literary tradition must be “original and not borrowed from another speech community.”

Statement III: The inclusion of Pali and Prakrit is significant as they are the primary languages of the ancient Buddhist and Jain canons respectively.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain the context for Statement I

• (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

• (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Solution: A

• Statement I is Correct: In October 2024, the government granted Classical Status to five new languages: Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese, and Bengali. This brings the total to 11 (adding to Tamil, Sanskrit, Kannada, Telugu, Malayalam, Odia).

• Statement II is Correct: The criteria were revised. The earlier strict requirement for “original literary tradition not borrowed” was dropped. The committee acknowledged that ancient languages (like Pali, Prakrit, and early vernaculars) often shared and reconstructed themes from each other (e.g., Sanskrit/Pali interactions). Retaining the strict “originality” clause would have disqualified languages like Marathi or Assamese which have deep roots but interconnected histories.

• Statement III is Correct: Pali is the language of the Theravada Buddhist canon (Tripitaka), and Prakrit is the language of the Jain Agamas and many Ashokan inscriptions. Their inclusion recognizes their contribution to India’s intellectual heritage.

• Both II and III explain Statement I. The revision of criteria (Statement II) was the procedural enabler that allowed these specific languages to qualify. The historical significance of Pali/Prakrit (Statement III) provided the cultural justification for the Cabinet’s decision in Statement I.

Solution: A

Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE for Motivation and Fast Updates

Join our Twitter Channel HERE

Follow our Instagram Channel HERE