UPSC Editorials Quiz : 6 August 2025

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements about India’s Ethanol Blending Policy: Statement I: India has advanced its target for achieving 20% ethanol blending in petrol to 2025. Statement II: The National Policy on Biofuels, 2018, expanded the feedstock for ethanol production to include damaged food grains and other agricultural produce. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement I is correct. India has successfully preponed its target for E20 (20% ethanol blending) to 2025, from the earlier target of 2030, reflecting the accelerated progress in the Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme. Statement II is also correct. The National Policy on Biofuels, 2018, was a crucial enabler for this acceleration. By expanding the list of permissible feedstocks beyond just sugarcane molasses to include sugarcane juice, damaged food grains (like wheat and rice from FCI), and other biomass, the policy significantly increased the potential for ethanol production. This diversification of raw materials directly contributed to the enhanced production capacity, making the advanced E20 target achievable. Thus, Statement II provides the correct explanation for the achievement mentioned in Statement I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is correct. India has successfully preponed its target for E20 (20% ethanol blending) to 2025, from the earlier target of 2030, reflecting the accelerated progress in the Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme. Statement II is also correct. The National Policy on Biofuels, 2018, was a crucial enabler for this acceleration. By expanding the list of permissible feedstocks beyond just sugarcane molasses to include sugarcane juice, damaged food grains (like wheat and rice from FCI), and other biomass, the policy significantly increased the potential for ethanol production. This diversification of raw materials directly contributed to the enhanced production capacity, making the advanced E20 target achievable. Thus, Statement II provides the correct explanation for the achievement mentioned in Statement I.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements about India’s Ethanol Blending Policy:

Statement I: India has advanced its target for achieving 20% ethanol blending in petrol to 2025.

Statement II: The National Policy on Biofuels, 2018, expanded the feedstock for ethanol production to include damaged food grains and other agricultural produce.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement I is correct. India has successfully preponed its target for E20 (20% ethanol blending) to 2025, from the earlier target of 2030, reflecting the accelerated progress in the Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme.

• Statement II is also correct. The National Policy on Biofuels, 2018, was a crucial enabler for this acceleration. By expanding the list of permissible feedstocks beyond just sugarcane molasses to include sugarcane juice, damaged food grains (like wheat and rice from FCI), and other biomass, the policy significantly increased the potential for ethanol production. This diversification of raw materials directly contributed to the enhanced production capacity, making the advanced E20 target achievable.

Thus, Statement II provides the correct explanation for the achievement mentioned in Statement I.

Solution: A

Thus, Statement II provides the correct explanation for the achievement mentioned in Statement I.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Which one of the following statements best explains why the Kyoto Protocol was considered increasingly obsolete in the post-2015 period? (a) The ICJ rendered it legally void upon the enforcement of the Paris Agreement. (b) All its flexible mechanisms, such as the CDM, failed to generate any carbon credits. (c) Its top-down structure with binding targets for only developed nations was supplanted by the Paris Agreement's universal, bottom-up approach. (d) The UNFCCC officially suspended the protocol due to a lack of consensus on a third commitment period. Correct Solution: C (c) is correct. The Kyoto Protocol’s top-down approach, which legally bound only a subset of countries (Annex-I), was seen as inadequate. The Paris Agreement introduced a new paradigm with a universal “bottom-up” structure where all countries (developed and developing) submit their own voluntary targets (NDCs). This universal and more flexible approach made the Kyoto model seem outdated and was a key reason for its operational decline. Incorrect Solution: C (c) is correct. The Kyoto Protocol’s top-down approach, which legally bound only a subset of countries (Annex-I), was seen as inadequate. The Paris Agreement introduced a new paradigm with a universal “bottom-up” structure where all countries (developed and developing) submit their own voluntary targets (NDCs). This universal and more flexible approach made the Kyoto model seem outdated and was a key reason for its operational decline.

#### 2. Question

Which one of the following statements best explains why the Kyoto Protocol was considered increasingly obsolete in the post-2015 period?

• (a) The ICJ rendered it legally void upon the enforcement of the Paris Agreement.

• (b) All its flexible mechanisms, such as the CDM, failed to generate any carbon credits.

• (c) Its top-down structure with binding targets for only developed nations was supplanted by the Paris Agreement's universal, bottom-up approach.

• (d) The UNFCCC officially suspended the protocol due to a lack of consensus on a third commitment period.

Solution: C

• (c) is correct. The Kyoto Protocol’s top-down approach, which legally bound only a subset of countries (Annex-I), was seen as inadequate. The Paris Agreement introduced a new paradigm with a universal “bottom-up” structure where all countries (developed and developing) submit their own voluntary targets (NDCs). This universal and more flexible approach made the Kyoto model seem outdated and was a key reason for its operational decline.

Solution: C

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Regarding the Airbus C-295 aircraft, consider the following statements: Statement I: The project represents the first instance of a private sector company in India undertaking the final assembly of a military aircraft. Statement II: The indigenous manufacturing process involves a near-total technology transfer, aiming to build a domestic aerospace ecosystem. Statement III: The primary role of the C-295 in the Indian Air Force will be strategic bombing and deep-strike missions. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Statement I and Statement II are correct b) Statement II and Statement III are correct c) Statement I and Statement III are correct d) All statements are correct Correct Solution: A Statement I is correct. The manufacturing of 40 C-295 aircraft by Tata Advanced Systems Limited (TASL) in Vadodara marks a significant milestone. It is the first time a private sector company will establish a Final Assembly Line (FAL) for a military aircraft in India, a domain historically dominated by Public Sector Undertakings like Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL). Statement II is correct. A crucial aspect of the deal is the commitment to Make in India, which includes a substantial technology transfer (stated as 90%). The project aims to indigenize over 13,000 parts, involving not just TASL but also other PSUs and numerous private MSMEs. This is intended to build a self-reliant defence-industrial base and a robust aerospace ecosystem within the country. Statement III is incorrect. The Airbus C-295 is a medium tactical transport aircraft. Its designated roles include troop and logistics movement, paratroop drops, disaster relief, medical evacuation (MEDEVAC), and maritime surveillance. It is not designed for offensive combat roles like strategic bombing or deep-strike missions, which are performed by fighter jets and bombers. Incorrect Solution: A Statement I is correct. The manufacturing of 40 C-295 aircraft by Tata Advanced Systems Limited (TASL) in Vadodara marks a significant milestone. It is the first time a private sector company will establish a Final Assembly Line (FAL) for a military aircraft in India, a domain historically dominated by Public Sector Undertakings like Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL). Statement II is correct. A crucial aspect of the deal is the commitment to Make in India, which includes a substantial technology transfer (stated as 90%). The project aims to indigenize over 13,000 parts, involving not just TASL but also other PSUs and numerous private MSMEs. This is intended to build a self-reliant defence-industrial base and a robust aerospace ecosystem within the country. Statement III is incorrect. The Airbus C-295 is a medium tactical transport aircraft. Its designated roles include troop and logistics movement, paratroop drops, disaster relief, medical evacuation (MEDEVAC), and maritime surveillance. It is not designed for offensive combat roles like strategic bombing or deep-strike missions, which are performed by fighter jets and bombers.

#### 3. Question

Regarding the Airbus C-295 aircraft, consider the following statements:

Statement I: The project represents the first instance of a private sector company in India undertaking the final assembly of a military aircraft.

Statement II: The indigenous manufacturing process involves a near-total technology transfer, aiming to build a domestic aerospace ecosystem.

Statement III: The primary role of the C-295 in the Indian Air Force will be strategic bombing and deep-strike missions.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Statement I and Statement II are correct

• b) Statement II and Statement III are correct

• c) Statement I and Statement III are correct

• d) All statements are correct

Solution: A

• Statement I is correct. The manufacturing of 40 C-295 aircraft by Tata Advanced Systems Limited (TASL) in Vadodara marks a significant milestone. It is the first time a private sector company will establish a Final Assembly Line (FAL) for a military aircraft in India, a domain historically dominated by Public Sector Undertakings like Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL).

• Statement II is correct. A crucial aspect of the deal is the commitment to Make in India, which includes a substantial technology transfer (stated as 90%). The project aims to indigenize over 13,000 parts, involving not just TASL but also other PSUs and numerous private MSMEs. This is intended to build a self-reliant defence-industrial base and a robust aerospace ecosystem within the country.

Statement III is incorrect. The Airbus C-295 is a medium tactical transport aircraft. Its designated roles include troop and logistics movement, paratroop drops, disaster relief, medical evacuation (MEDEVAC), and maritime surveillance. It is not designed for offensive combat roles like strategic bombing or deep-strike missions, which are performed by fighter jets and bombers.

Solution: A

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question With reference to the FSSAI’s “Definitive list of Ayurveda Aahara Products”, consider the following statements: This initiative is mainly focused on exporting traditional Indian foods to the global market. The regulations cover food products intended for infants up to 24 months of age. The list provides regulatory certainty, which is expected to boost the Ayurveda food sector, including startups. The primary textual basis for the list is a newly created compendium co-authored by FSSAI and the Ministry of Ayush. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. While the standardization may help in exports, the primary objective is to mainstream traditional dietary knowledge within India, enhance public trust, and promote preventive healthcare among the domestic population. The focus is on both domestic consumption and regulatory clarity for Indian businesses. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Food Safety and Standards (Ayurveda Aahara) Regulations, 2022 explicitly exclude products intended for infants up to the age of 24 months. The regulations clearly state that manufacturers are not allowed to manufacture or sell Ayurveda Aahara targeted at this age group. Statement 3 is correct. By creating a definitive list and a clear regulatory framework, the initiative reduces ambiguity for Food Business Operators (FBOs). This regulatory certainty is significant as it provides a clear pathway for manufacturing and marketing these products, thereby empowering FBOs and boosting the Ayurveda food sector, including encouraging innovation and growth for startups in this space. Statement 4 is incorrect. The definitive list is not based on a newly created compendium. It is sourced directly from classical Ayurvedic texts that are listed in Schedule A of the regulations. The process involves validating existing, time-tested recipes from ancient scriptures, not creating new ones. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. While the standardization may help in exports, the primary objective is to mainstream traditional dietary knowledge within India, enhance public trust, and promote preventive healthcare among the domestic population. The focus is on both domestic consumption and regulatory clarity for Indian businesses. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Food Safety and Standards (Ayurveda Aahara) Regulations, 2022 explicitly exclude products intended for infants up to the age of 24 months. The regulations clearly state that manufacturers are not allowed to manufacture or sell Ayurveda Aahara targeted at this age group. Statement 3 is correct. By creating a definitive list and a clear regulatory framework, the initiative reduces ambiguity for Food Business Operators (FBOs). This regulatory certainty is significant as it provides a clear pathway for manufacturing and marketing these products, thereby empowering FBOs and boosting the Ayurveda food sector, including encouraging innovation and growth for startups in this space. Statement 4 is incorrect. The definitive list is not based on a newly created compendium. It is sourced directly from classical Ayurvedic texts that are listed in Schedule A of the regulations. The process involves validating existing, time-tested recipes from ancient scriptures, not creating new ones.

#### 4. Question

With reference to the FSSAI’s “Definitive list of Ayurveda Aahara Products”, consider the following statements:

• This initiative is mainly focused on exporting traditional Indian foods to the global market.

• The regulations cover food products intended for infants up to 24 months of age.

• The list provides regulatory certainty, which is expected to boost the Ayurveda food sector, including startups.

• The primary textual basis for the list is a newly created compendium co-authored by FSSAI and the Ministry of Ayush.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While the standardization may help in exports, the primary objective is to mainstream traditional dietary knowledge within India, enhance public trust, and promote preventive healthcare among the domestic population. The focus is on both domestic consumption and regulatory clarity for Indian businesses.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Food Safety and Standards (Ayurveda Aahara) Regulations, 2022 explicitly exclude products intended for infants up to the age of 24 months. The regulations clearly state that manufacturers are not allowed to manufacture or sell Ayurveda Aahara targeted at this age group.

• Statement 3 is correct. By creating a definitive list and a clear regulatory framework, the initiative reduces ambiguity for Food Business Operators (FBOs). This regulatory certainty is significant as it provides a clear pathway for manufacturing and marketing these products, thereby empowering FBOs and boosting the Ayurveda food sector, including encouraging innovation and growth for startups in this space.

Statement 4 is incorrect. The definitive list is not based on a newly created compendium. It is sourced directly from classical Ayurvedic texts that are listed in Schedule A of the regulations. The process involves validating existing, time-tested recipes from ancient scriptures, not creating new ones.

Solution: A

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements regarding the India Electric Mobility Index (IEMI) 2024: Statement I: The IEMI is a national benchmarking framework launched by the Ministry of Power to rank States and UTs on their EV transition progress. Statement II: The index assesses states based on transport electrification, charging infrastructure readiness, and the EV research and innovation ecosystem. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: D Statement I is incorrect because the India Electric Mobility Index (IEMI) 2024 was launched by NITI Aayog, not the Ministry of Power. NITI Aayog, as the government’s premier policy think tank, is responsible for driving various strategic initiatives, including the transition to electric mobility. Statement II is correct as it accurately describes the three core themes under which the IEMI evaluates the performance of states and Union Territories. These are: Transport Electrification Progress, which tracks the adoption of EVs; Charging Infrastructure Readiness, which assesses the availability of charging stations and supporting policies; and the EV Research and Innovation Ecosystem, which looks at R&D and manufacturing capabilities. Incorrect Solution: D Statement I is incorrect because the India Electric Mobility Index (IEMI) 2024 was launched by NITI Aayog, not the Ministry of Power. NITI Aayog, as the government’s premier policy think tank, is responsible for driving various strategic initiatives, including the transition to electric mobility. Statement II is correct as it accurately describes the three core themes under which the IEMI evaluates the performance of states and Union Territories. These are: Transport Electrification Progress, which tracks the adoption of EVs; Charging Infrastructure Readiness, which assesses the availability of charging stations and supporting policies; and the EV Research and Innovation Ecosystem, which looks at R&D and manufacturing capabilities.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the India Electric Mobility Index (IEMI) 2024:

Statement I: The IEMI is a national benchmarking framework launched by the Ministry of Power to rank States and UTs on their EV transition progress.

Statement II: The index assesses states based on transport electrification, charging infrastructure readiness, and the EV research and innovation ecosystem.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: D

• Statement I is incorrect because the India Electric Mobility Index (IEMI) 2024 was launched by NITI Aayog, not the Ministry of Power. NITI Aayog, as the government’s premier policy think tank, is responsible for driving various strategic initiatives, including the transition to electric mobility.

• Statement II is correct as it accurately describes the three core themes under which the IEMI evaluates the performance of states and Union Territories. These are: Transport Electrification Progress, which tracks the adoption of EVs; Charging Infrastructure Readiness, which assesses the availability of charging stations and supporting policies; and the EV Research and Innovation Ecosystem, which looks at R&D and manufacturing capabilities.

Solution: D

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