UPSC Editorials Quiz : 4 September 2024

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements about groundwater rights and regulation in India: The Indian Easement Act, 1882, historically links groundwater rights to land ownership. The National Green Tribunal has no role in regulating groundwater extraction. The Central Ground Water Board was established to develop groundwater policies and programs in India. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 only d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct as the Indian Easement Act, 1882, historically linked groundwater rights to land ownership, meaning landowners had the right to use the groundwater beneath their land. Statement 2 is incorrect because the National Green Tribunal (NGT) plays a significant role in regulating groundwater extraction. The NGT directs the Central Ground Water Authority to oversee and manage groundwater extraction, particularly in areas where overexploitation is a concern. Statement 3 is correct as the Central Ground Water Board, established in 1970, is responsible for developing policies and programs to manage groundwater resources in India. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct as the Indian Easement Act, 1882, historically linked groundwater rights to land ownership, meaning landowners had the right to use the groundwater beneath their land. Statement 2 is incorrect because the National Green Tribunal (NGT) plays a significant role in regulating groundwater extraction. The NGT directs the Central Ground Water Authority to oversee and manage groundwater extraction, particularly in areas where overexploitation is a concern. Statement 3 is correct as the Central Ground Water Board, established in 1970, is responsible for developing policies and programs to manage groundwater resources in India.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements about groundwater rights and regulation in India:

• The Indian Easement Act, 1882, historically links groundwater rights to land ownership.

• The National Green Tribunal has no role in regulating groundwater extraction.

• The Central Ground Water Board was established to develop groundwater policies and programs in India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• b) 1 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is correct as the Indian Easement Act, 1882, historically linked groundwater rights to land ownership, meaning landowners had the right to use the groundwater beneath their land.

Statement 2 is incorrect because the National Green Tribunal (NGT) plays a significant role in regulating groundwater extraction. The NGT directs the Central Ground Water Authority to oversee and manage groundwater extraction, particularly in areas where overexploitation is a concern.

Statement 3 is correct as the Central Ground Water Board, established in 1970, is responsible for developing policies and programs to manage groundwater resources in India.

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is correct as the Indian Easement Act, 1882, historically linked groundwater rights to land ownership, meaning landowners had the right to use the groundwater beneath their land.

Statement 3 is correct as the Central Ground Water Board, established in 1970, is responsible for developing policies and programs to manage groundwater resources in India.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Which of the following is the primary reason for the extinction of cheetahs in India? a) Climate change b) Competition with other predators c) Overhunting and habitat loss d) Disease outbreak Correct Solution: c) Cheetahs in India went extinct primarily due to overhunting and habitat loss. The cheetah, being a large carnivore, required extensive areas of suitable habitat to survive. The combination of these two factors—intense hunting by humans and the destruction of their natural habitat—led to the rapid decline of the cheetah population in India, culminating in its extinction by 1952. Incorrect Solution: c) Cheetahs in India went extinct primarily due to overhunting and habitat loss. The cheetah, being a large carnivore, required extensive areas of suitable habitat to survive. The combination of these two factors—intense hunting by humans and the destruction of their natural habitat—led to the rapid decline of the cheetah population in India, culminating in its extinction by 1952.

#### 2. Question

Which of the following is the primary reason for the extinction of cheetahs in India?

• a) Climate change

• b) Competition with other predators

• c) Overhunting and habitat loss

• d) Disease outbreak

Solution: c)

Cheetahs in India went extinct primarily due to overhunting and habitat loss. The cheetah, being a large carnivore, required extensive areas of suitable habitat to survive. The combination of these two factors—intense hunting by humans and the destruction of their natural habitat—led to the rapid decline of the cheetah population in India, culminating in its extinction by 1952.

Solution: c)

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question What is the main criterion for deregistering private vehicles under the Voluntary Vehicle-Fleet Modernization Program (V-VMP) starting June 1, 2024? a) Emission levels exceeding the norm b) Age of the vehicle c) Non-payment of road tax d) Failure to pass fitness tests or non-renewal of registration certificate Correct Solution: d) Under the V-VMP, private vehicles older than 20 years will be deregistered starting June 1, 2024, if they fail their fitness tests or if their registration certificates are not renewed. This is part of the policy’s broader goal to remove unfit and polluting vehicles from the roads, thereby improving safety and reducing environmental impacts. The focus is on ensuring that vehicles in operation are both fit and compliant with regulatory standards. Incorrect Solution: d) Under the V-VMP, private vehicles older than 20 years will be deregistered starting June 1, 2024, if they fail their fitness tests or if their registration certificates are not renewed. This is part of the policy’s broader goal to remove unfit and polluting vehicles from the roads, thereby improving safety and reducing environmental impacts. The focus is on ensuring that vehicles in operation are both fit and compliant with regulatory standards.

#### 3. Question

What is the main criterion for deregistering private vehicles under the Voluntary Vehicle-Fleet Modernization Program (V-VMP) starting June 1, 2024?

• a) Emission levels exceeding the norm

• b) Age of the vehicle

• c) Non-payment of road tax

• d) Failure to pass fitness tests or non-renewal of registration certificate

Solution: d)

Under the V-VMP, private vehicles older than 20 years will be deregistered starting June 1, 2024, if they fail their fitness tests or if their registration certificates are not renewed. This is part of the policy’s broader goal to remove unfit and polluting vehicles from the roads, thereby improving safety and reducing environmental impacts. The focus is on ensuring that vehicles in operation are both fit and compliant with regulatory standards.

Solution: d)

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Which of the following is a requirement for a Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE) to attain Navratna status? a) Must have been profitable for at least 10 years b) Must have an average annual net worth exceeding ₹15,000 crore c) Must have a Miniratna Category-I or Schedule 'A' CPSE status d) Must have a significant global presence Correct Solution: c) To attain Navratna status, a CPSE must first be classified as a Miniratna Category-I or Schedule ‘A’ CPSE. This is a key eligibility criterion that enables the enterprise to be considered for Navratna status, which grants increased financial and operational autonomy. Incorrect Solution: c) To attain Navratna status, a CPSE must first be classified as a Miniratna Category-I or Schedule ‘A’ CPSE. This is a key eligibility criterion that enables the enterprise to be considered for Navratna status, which grants increased financial and operational autonomy.

#### 4. Question

Which of the following is a requirement for a Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE) to attain Navratna status?

• a) Must have been profitable for at least 10 years

• b) Must have an average annual net worth exceeding ₹15,000 crore

• c) Must have a Miniratna Category-I or Schedule 'A' CPSE status

• d) Must have a significant global presence

Solution: c)

To attain Navratna status, a CPSE must first be classified as a Miniratna Category-I or Schedule ‘A’ CPSE. This is a key eligibility criterion that enables the enterprise to be considered for Navratna status, which grants increased financial and operational autonomy.

Solution: c)

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements about the formation of tropical storms: High humidity and ocean temperatures above 26°C are necessary for the formation of tropical storms. The interaction between evaporating warm water and a mass of cold air leads to the formation of clouds and a low-pressure column. As the pressure in the eye of the storm increases, the speed of the surrounding winds increases. How many of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct; high humidity and ocean temperatures above 26°C are essential factors in the formation of tropical storms. These conditions provide the necessary heat and moisture to fuel the storm. Statement 2 is also correct; the process begins with the evaporation of warm water, which rises and interacts with cooler air, forming clouds and creating a low-pressure column at the center of the developing storm. Statement 3 is incorrect because, as the pressure in the eye of the storm decreases (not increases), the speed of the surrounding winds increases. This intensification of wind speed around the low-pressure eye is a defining characteristic of tropical storms. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is correct; high humidity and ocean temperatures above 26°C are essential factors in the formation of tropical storms. These conditions provide the necessary heat and moisture to fuel the storm. Statement 2 is also correct; the process begins with the evaporation of warm water, which rises and interacts with cooler air, forming clouds and creating a low-pressure column at the center of the developing storm. Statement 3 is incorrect because, as the pressure in the eye of the storm decreases (not increases), the speed of the surrounding winds increases. This intensification of wind speed around the low-pressure eye is a defining characteristic of tropical storms.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements about the formation of tropical storms:

• High humidity and ocean temperatures above 26°C are necessary for the formation of tropical storms.

• The interaction between evaporating warm water and a mass of cold air leads to the formation of clouds and a low-pressure column.

• As the pressure in the eye of the storm increases, the speed of the surrounding winds increases.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is correct; high humidity and ocean temperatures above 26°C are essential factors in the formation of tropical storms. These conditions provide the necessary heat and moisture to fuel the storm.

Statement 2 is also correct; the process begins with the evaporation of warm water, which rises and interacts with cooler air, forming clouds and creating a low-pressure column at the center of the developing storm.

Statement 3 is incorrect because, as the pressure in the eye of the storm decreases (not increases), the speed of the surrounding winds increases. This intensification of wind speed around the low-pressure eye is a defining characteristic of tropical storms.

Solution: b)

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