UPSC Editorials Quiz : 4 June 2025

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements regarding WHO Pandemic Agreement. Statement-I: The WHO Pandemic Agreement allows the WHO to mandate national laws and impose health restrictions on member countries. Statement-II: Countries retain their sovereignty over domestic health decisions even after ratifying the WHO Pandemic Agreement. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: d) Statement-I is incorrect. A key clarification regarding the WHO Pandemic Agreement is that countries retain sovereignty over their domestic health decisions. The WHO cannot mandate national laws or impose health restrictions like lockdowns or vaccine mandates on member states. The agreement focuses on international cooperation, information sharing, and equitable access frameworks. Statement-II is correct. The agreement explicitly respects national sovereignty. Its purpose is to establish a framework for better global coordination and preparedness, not to cede national authority over public health policymaking to the WHO. This distinction is vital for understanding the scope and limitations of the agreement and addresses concerns about potential overreach by international bodies in national health matters. Therefore, the WHO’s role is facilitative and coordinative, rather than prescriptive at the national level. About WHO Pandemic Agreement: What is the WHO Pandemic Agreement? A legally binding international treaty under Article 19 of the WHO Constitution — only the second such treaty after the 2003 Framework Convention on Tobacco Control. Aim: To ensure equitable access to vaccines, diagnostics, and therapeutics, and build a coordinated global response mechanism during future pandemics. Binding Nature: Becomes enforceable once 60 countries ratify Countries retain sovereignty over domestic health decisions and WHO cannot mandate laws or restrictions. Members Involved: Adopted by 124 countries, with 11 abstentions. The US withdrew from negotiations following policy shifts under President Trump. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement-I is incorrect. A key clarification regarding the WHO Pandemic Agreement is that countries retain sovereignty over their domestic health decisions. The WHO cannot mandate national laws or impose health restrictions like lockdowns or vaccine mandates on member states. The agreement focuses on international cooperation, information sharing, and equitable access frameworks. Statement-II is correct. The agreement explicitly respects national sovereignty. Its purpose is to establish a framework for better global coordination and preparedness, not to cede national authority over public health policymaking to the WHO. This distinction is vital for understanding the scope and limitations of the agreement and addresses concerns about potential overreach by international bodies in national health matters. Therefore, the WHO’s role is facilitative and coordinative, rather than prescriptive at the national level. About WHO Pandemic Agreement: What is the WHO Pandemic Agreement? A legally binding international treaty under Article 19 of the WHO Constitution — only the second such treaty after the 2003 Framework Convention on Tobacco Control. Aim: To ensure equitable access to vaccines, diagnostics, and therapeutics, and build a coordinated global response mechanism during future pandemics. Binding Nature: Becomes enforceable once 60 countries ratify Countries retain sovereignty over domestic health decisions and WHO cannot mandate laws or restrictions. Members Involved: Adopted by 124 countries, with 11 abstentions. The US withdrew from negotiations following policy shifts under President Trump.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding WHO Pandemic Agreement.

Statement-I: The WHO Pandemic Agreement allows the WHO to mandate national laws and impose health restrictions on member countries.

Statement-II: Countries retain their sovereignty over domestic health decisions even after ratifying the WHO Pandemic Agreement.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: d)

• Statement-I is incorrect. A key clarification regarding the WHO Pandemic Agreement is that countries retain sovereignty over their domestic health decisions. The WHO cannot mandate national laws or impose health restrictions like lockdowns or vaccine mandates on member states. The agreement focuses on international cooperation, information sharing, and equitable access frameworks.

• Statement-II is correct. The agreement explicitly respects national sovereignty. Its purpose is to establish a framework for better global coordination and preparedness, not to cede national authority over public health policymaking to the WHO. This distinction is vital for understanding the scope and limitations of the agreement and addresses concerns about potential overreach by international bodies in national health matters. Therefore, the WHO’s role is facilitative and coordinative, rather than prescriptive at the national level.

About WHO Pandemic Agreement:

• What is the WHO Pandemic Agreement?

• A legally binding international treaty under Article 19 of the WHO Constitution — only the second such treaty after the 2003 Framework Convention on Tobacco Control.

• Aim: To ensure equitable access to vaccines, diagnostics, and therapeutics, and build a coordinated global response mechanism during future pandemics.

• Binding Nature: Becomes enforceable once 60 countries ratify Countries retain sovereignty over domestic health decisions and WHO cannot mandate laws or restrictions.

• Countries retain sovereignty over domestic health decisions and WHO cannot mandate laws or restrictions.

• Members Involved: Adopted by 124 countries, with 11 abstentions. The US withdrew from negotiations following policy shifts under President Trump.

Solution: d)

About WHO Pandemic Agreement:

• What is the WHO Pandemic Agreement?

• A legally binding international treaty under Article 19 of the WHO Constitution — only the second such treaty after the 2003 Framework Convention on Tobacco Control.

• Aim: To ensure equitable access to vaccines, diagnostics, and therapeutics, and build a coordinated global response mechanism during future pandemics.

• Binding Nature: Becomes enforceable once 60 countries ratify Countries retain sovereignty over domestic health decisions and WHO cannot mandate laws or restrictions.

• Countries retain sovereignty over domestic health decisions and WHO cannot mandate laws or restrictions.

• Members Involved: Adopted by 124 countries, with 11 abstentions. The US withdrew from negotiations following policy shifts under President Trump.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question The Financial Fraud Risk Indicator (FRI) tool was launched by which of the following entities? a) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) b) Ministry of Finance c) Department of Telecommunications (DoT) d) National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) Correct Solution: c) The Financial Fraud Risk Indicator (FRI) is an analytical tool developed and introduced by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT), which operates under the Ministry of Communications. This initiative is part of the government’s efforts to combat the rising tide of cyber-enabled financial frauds. About Financial Fraud Risk Indicator (FRI): What is FRI? FRI is a multi-dimensional analytical tool that flags mobile numbers based on their likelihood of being involved in financial fraud. Launched By: Developed and introduced by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) under the Ministry of Communications. Objective: To provide advance intelligence to financial institutions and prevent cyber-enabled financial frauds. Key Features: Risk Classification: Categorizes mobile numbers as Medium, High, or Very High risk. Integration with Digital Payments: Alerts banks and UPI platforms when a flagged number is involved in a transaction. Stakeholder Empowerment: Enables banks, NBFCs, and payment service providers to take additional customer protection measures. Proactive Cyber Shield: Acts as a pre-transaction validation tool to reduce fraud attempts. Real-time Application: Works in coordination with fraud detection systems and verification protocols. Which of the following activities requires an OCI cardholder to obtain special permission from the competent authority in India, as per the 2021 notification? Pursuing a career as a chartered accountant. Undertaking research activities. Visiting national monuments and parks. Interning with a foreign diplomatic mission in India. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) All of the above Solution: b) As per the latest rules and restrictions (including the 2021 notification): Pursuing professions like doctors, lawyers, architects, and Chartered Accountants (CAs) is a benefit where OCI cardholders have parity with NRIs and generally does not require special permission for practice once registered with relevant professional bodies. OCI cardholders must take special permission for research activities. This is a specified restricted activity. OCI cardholders have parity with Indian citizens in domestic airfares and ticket fees for national monuments and parks. This implies they do not need special permission for such visits beyond standard entry requirements applicable to citizens. OCI cardholders must take special permission for interning with or working in foreign diplomatic missions in India. Incorrect Solution: c) The Financial Fraud Risk Indicator (FRI) is an analytical tool developed and introduced by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT), which operates under the Ministry of Communications. This initiative is part of the government’s efforts to combat the rising tide of cyber-enabled financial frauds. About Financial Fraud Risk Indicator (FRI): What is FRI? FRI is a multi-dimensional analytical tool that flags mobile numbers based on their likelihood of being involved in financial fraud. Launched By: Developed and introduced by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) under the Ministry of Communications. Objective: To provide advance intelligence to financial institutions and prevent cyber-enabled financial frauds. Key Features: Risk Classification: Categorizes mobile numbers as Medium, High, or Very High risk. Integration with Digital Payments: Alerts banks and UPI platforms when a flagged number is involved in a transaction. Stakeholder Empowerment: Enables banks, NBFCs, and payment service providers to take additional customer protection measures. Proactive Cyber Shield: Acts as a pre-transaction validation tool to reduce fraud attempts. Real-time Application: Works in coordination with fraud detection systems and verification protocols. Which of the following activities requires an OCI cardholder to obtain special permission from the competent authority in India, as per the 2021 notification? Pursuing a career as a chartered accountant. Undertaking research activities. Visiting national monuments and parks. Interning with a foreign diplomatic mission in India. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) All of the above Solution: b) As per the latest rules and restrictions (including the 2021 notification): Pursuing professions like doctors, lawyers, architects, and Chartered Accountants (CAs) is a benefit where OCI cardholders have parity with NRIs and generally does not require special permission for practice once registered with relevant professional bodies. OCI cardholders must take special permission for research activities. This is a specified restricted activity. OCI cardholders have parity with Indian citizens in domestic airfares and ticket fees for national monuments and parks. This implies they do not need special permission for such visits beyond standard entry requirements applicable to citizens. OCI cardholders must take special permission for interning with or working in foreign diplomatic missions in India.

#### 2. Question

The Financial Fraud Risk Indicator (FRI) tool was launched by which of the following entities?

• a) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

• b) Ministry of Finance

• c) Department of Telecommunications (DoT)

• d) National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)

Solution: c)

The Financial Fraud Risk Indicator (FRI) is an analytical tool developed and introduced by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT), which operates under the Ministry of Communications. This initiative is part of the government’s efforts to combat the rising tide of cyber-enabled financial frauds.

About Financial Fraud Risk Indicator (FRI):

• What is FRI?

• FRI is a multi-dimensional analytical tool that flags mobile numbers based on their likelihood of being involved in financial fraud.

• Launched By: Developed and introduced by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) under the Ministry of Communications.

• Objective: To provide advance intelligence to financial institutions and prevent cyber-enabled financial frauds.

• Key Features:

• Risk Classification: Categorizes mobile numbers as Medium, High, or Very High risk. Integration with Digital Payments: Alerts banks and UPI platforms when a flagged number is involved in a transaction. Stakeholder Empowerment: Enables banks, NBFCs, and payment service providers to take additional customer protection measures. Proactive Cyber Shield: Acts as a pre-transaction validation tool to reduce fraud attempts. Real-time Application: Works in coordination with fraud detection systems and verification protocols.

• Risk Classification: Categorizes mobile numbers as Medium, High, or Very High risk.

• Integration with Digital Payments: Alerts banks and UPI platforms when a flagged number is involved in a transaction.

• Stakeholder Empowerment: Enables banks, NBFCs, and payment service providers to take additional customer protection measures.

• Proactive Cyber Shield: Acts as a pre-transaction validation tool to reduce fraud attempts.

• Real-time Application: Works in coordination with fraud detection systems and verification protocols.

• Which of the following activities requires an OCI cardholder to obtain special permission from the competent authority in India, as per the 2021 notification?

• Pursuing a career as a chartered accountant.

• Undertaking research activities.

• Visiting national monuments and parks.

• Interning with a foreign diplomatic mission in India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) All of the above

Solution: b)

As per the latest rules and restrictions (including the 2021 notification):

• Pursuing professions like doctors, lawyers, architects, and Chartered Accountants (CAs) is a benefit where OCI cardholders have parity with NRIs and generally does not require special permission for practice once registered with relevant professional bodies.

• OCI cardholders must take special permission for research activities. This is a specified restricted activity.

• OCI cardholders have parity with Indian citizens in domestic airfares and ticket fees for national monuments and parks. This implies they do not need special permission for such visits beyond standard entry requirements applicable to citizens.

• OCI cardholders must take special permission for interning with or working in foreign diplomatic missions in India.

Solution: c)

About Financial Fraud Risk Indicator (FRI):

• What is FRI?

• FRI is a multi-dimensional analytical tool that flags mobile numbers based on their likelihood of being involved in financial fraud.

• Launched By: Developed and introduced by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) under the Ministry of Communications.

• Objective: To provide advance intelligence to financial institutions and prevent cyber-enabled financial frauds.

• Key Features:

• Risk Classification: Categorizes mobile numbers as Medium, High, or Very High risk.

• Integration with Digital Payments: Alerts banks and UPI platforms when a flagged number is involved in a transaction.

• Stakeholder Empowerment: Enables banks, NBFCs, and payment service providers to take additional customer protection measures.

• Proactive Cyber Shield: Acts as a pre-transaction validation tool to reduce fraud attempts.

• Real-time Application: Works in coordination with fraud detection systems and verification protocols.

• Which of the following activities requires an OCI cardholder to obtain special permission from the competent authority in India, as per the 2021 notification?

• Pursuing a career as a chartered accountant.

• Undertaking research activities.

• Visiting national monuments and parks.

• Interning with a foreign diplomatic mission in India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) All of the above

Solution: b)

As per the latest rules and restrictions (including the 2021 notification):

• OCI cardholders must take special permission for research activities. This is a specified restricted activity.

• OCI cardholders must take special permission for interning with or working in foreign diplomatic missions in India.

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Which of the following activities requires an OCI cardholder to obtain special permission from the competent authority in India, as per the 2021 notification? Pursuing a career as a chartered accountant. Undertaking research activities. Visiting national monuments and parks. Interning with a foreign diplomatic mission in India. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) All of the above Correct Solution: b) As per the latest rules and restrictions (including the 2021 notification): Pursuing professions like doctors, lawyers, architects, and Chartered Accountants (CAs) is a benefit where OCI cardholders have parity with NRIs and generally does not require special permission for practice once registered with relevant professional bodies. OCI cardholders must take special permission for research activities. This is a specified restricted activity. OCI cardholders have parity with Indian citizens in domestic airfares and ticket fees for national monuments and parks. This implies they do not need special permission for such visits beyond standard entry requirements applicable to citizens. OCI cardholders must take special permission for interning with or working in foreign diplomatic missions in India. Incorrect Solution: b) As per the latest rules and restrictions (including the 2021 notification): Pursuing professions like doctors, lawyers, architects, and Chartered Accountants (CAs) is a benefit where OCI cardholders have parity with NRIs and generally does not require special permission for practice once registered with relevant professional bodies. OCI cardholders must take special permission for research activities. This is a specified restricted activity. OCI cardholders have parity with Indian citizens in domestic airfares and ticket fees for national monuments and parks. This implies they do not need special permission for such visits beyond standard entry requirements applicable to citizens. OCI cardholders must take special permission for interning with or working in foreign diplomatic missions in India.

#### 3. Question

Which of the following activities requires an OCI cardholder to obtain special permission from the competent authority in India, as per the 2021 notification?

• Pursuing a career as a chartered accountant.

• Undertaking research activities.

• Visiting national monuments and parks.

• Interning with a foreign diplomatic mission in India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

• (a) 1 and 3 only

• (b) 2 and 4 only

• (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

• (d) All of the above

Solution: b)

As per the latest rules and restrictions (including the 2021 notification):

• OCI cardholders must take special permission for research activities. This is a specified restricted activity.

• OCI cardholders must take special permission for interning with or working in foreign diplomatic missions in India.

Solution: b)

As per the latest rules and restrictions (including the 2021 notification):

• OCI cardholders must take special permission for research activities. This is a specified restricted activity.

• OCI cardholders must take special permission for interning with or working in foreign diplomatic missions in India.

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements about the global and Indian scenario of Prostate Cancer: Prostate cancer is the most diagnosed cancer overall in men globally, surpassing lung cancer. In India, prostate cancer incidence is declining rapidly due to effective public health interventions. Prostate cancer predominantly affects men of Asian ancestry, with the lowest rates observed in men of African ancestry. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. According to GLOBOCAN 2022 data, prostate cancer is the 2nd most diagnosed cancer in men globally, with over 1.4 million new cases. Lung cancer typically holds the top position for cancer incidence in men globally when considering all cancers. Statement 2 is incorrect. In India, prostate cancer ranks among the top 10 cancers in men. There is a rising incidence in urban areas in India, not a rapid decline. Factors like increased life expectancy, lifestyle changes, and improved detection may contribute to this trend. Statement 3 is incorrect. Men of African ancestry have a higher risk and often greater severity of prostate cancer. While it affects men of all races, the incidence and mortality rates are not predominantly highest in Asian ancestry with the lowest in African ancestry; the opposite is true concerning African ancestry. Incorrect Solution: d) Statement 1 is incorrect. According to GLOBOCAN 2022 data, prostate cancer is the 2nd most diagnosed cancer in men globally, with over 1.4 million new cases. Lung cancer typically holds the top position for cancer incidence in men globally when considering all cancers. Statement 2 is incorrect. In India, prostate cancer ranks among the top 10 cancers in men. There is a rising incidence in urban areas in India, not a rapid decline. Factors like increased life expectancy, lifestyle changes, and improved detection may contribute to this trend. Statement 3 is incorrect. Men of African ancestry have a higher risk and often greater severity of prostate cancer. While it affects men of all races, the incidence and mortality rates are not predominantly highest in Asian ancestry with the lowest in African ancestry; the opposite is true concerning African ancestry.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements about the global and Indian scenario of Prostate Cancer:

• Prostate cancer is the most diagnosed cancer overall in men globally, surpassing lung cancer.

• In India, prostate cancer incidence is declining rapidly due to effective public health interventions.

• Prostate cancer predominantly affects men of Asian ancestry, with the lowest rates observed in men of African ancestry.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: d)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. According to GLOBOCAN 2022 data, prostate cancer is the 2nd most diagnosed cancer in men globally, with over 1.4 million new cases. Lung cancer typically holds the top position for cancer incidence in men globally when considering all cancers.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. In India, prostate cancer ranks among the top 10 cancers in men. There is a rising incidence in urban areas in India, not a rapid decline. Factors like increased life expectancy, lifestyle changes, and improved detection may contribute to this trend.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. Men of African ancestry have a higher risk and often greater severity of prostate cancer. While it affects men of all races, the incidence and mortality rates are not predominantly highest in Asian ancestry with the lowest in African ancestry; the opposite is true concerning African ancestry.

Solution: d)

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Regarding the elimination of Trachoma and its characteristics, consider the following statements: Trachoma is primarily transmitted through contaminated water sources, similar to cholera. Children are generally immune to Trachoma, with adults being the main reservoir of infection. Papua New Guinea and Mauritania were recently validated by the WHO for eliminating trachoma as a public health problem. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. Trachoma is a contagious bacterial eye disease caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It spreads via direct contact (hands, clothes, bedding) and vectors like flies carrying discharge from infected eyes/nose. While poor sanitation and lack of clean water are risk factors that facilitate spread by hindering hygiene, the primary transmission is not waterborne in the same way as cholera. Statement 2 is incorrect. Children are the main reservoir of transmission for Trachoma in endemic communities. Young children are frequent carriers due to repeated infections and close interactions. Adults, especially women (due to caregiving roles), suffer the blinding consequences but children are key to the transmission cycle. Statement 3 is correct. Papua New Guinea (PNG) and Mauritania have recently been validated by the WHO for eliminating trachoma as a public health problem. India was certified in May 2025, after being declared trachoma-free in October 2023. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is incorrect. Trachoma is a contagious bacterial eye disease caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It spreads via direct contact (hands, clothes, bedding) and vectors like flies carrying discharge from infected eyes/nose. While poor sanitation and lack of clean water are risk factors that facilitate spread by hindering hygiene, the primary transmission is not waterborne in the same way as cholera. Statement 2 is incorrect. Children are the main reservoir of transmission for Trachoma in endemic communities. Young children are frequent carriers due to repeated infections and close interactions. Adults, especially women (due to caregiving roles), suffer the blinding consequences but children are key to the transmission cycle. Statement 3 is correct. Papua New Guinea (PNG) and Mauritania have recently been validated by the WHO for eliminating trachoma as a public health problem. India was certified in May 2025, after being declared trachoma-free in October 2023.

#### 5. Question

Regarding the elimination of Trachoma and its characteristics, consider the following statements:

• Trachoma is primarily transmitted through contaminated water sources, similar to cholera.

• Children are generally immune to Trachoma, with adults being the main reservoir of infection.

• Papua New Guinea and Mauritania were recently validated by the WHO for eliminating trachoma as a public health problem.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: a)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Trachoma is a contagious bacterial eye disease caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It spreads via direct contact (hands, clothes, bedding) and vectors like flies carrying discharge from infected eyes/nose. While poor sanitation and lack of clean water are risk factors that facilitate spread by hindering hygiene, the primary transmission is not waterborne in the same way as cholera.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Children are the main reservoir of transmission for Trachoma in endemic communities. Young children are frequent carriers due to repeated infections and close interactions. Adults, especially women (due to caregiving roles), suffer the blinding consequences but children are key to the transmission cycle.

• Statement 3 is correct. Papua New Guinea (PNG) and Mauritania have recently been validated by the WHO for eliminating trachoma as a public health problem. India was certified in May 2025, after being declared trachoma-free in October 2023.

Solution: a)

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