UPSC Editorials Quiz : 4 July 2025

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements regarding the committees on Western Ghats conservation: Statement-I: The Kasturirangan Committee recommended a more development-friendly approach compared to the Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel (WGEEP). Statement-II: The WGEEP, led by Madhav Gadgil, proposed the designation of the entire Western Ghats as an Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA) and advocated for a bottom-up conservation model involving Gram Sabhas. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct. The Kasturirangan Committee (High-Level Working Group) was constituted to review the WGEEP report. It adopted a more pragmatic and “development-friendly” stance by significantly reducing the proposed area under the Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA) designation. It identified about 37% of the Western Ghats as ESA, as opposed to the more comprehensive coverage suggested by the WGEEP. Statement-II is correct. The Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel (WGEEP), chaired by Prof. Madhav Gadgil, took a strong conservationist position. It recommended classifying the entire Western Ghats landscape into different ESA zones with varying degrees of regulation and emphasized a decentralized governance model where local communities, through their Gram Sabhas, would have a major say in conservation and development decisions. Statement-II provides the direct explanation for Statement-I. Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct. The Kasturirangan Committee (High-Level Working Group) was constituted to review the WGEEP report. It adopted a more pragmatic and “development-friendly” stance by significantly reducing the proposed area under the Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA) designation. It identified about 37% of the Western Ghats as ESA, as opposed to the more comprehensive coverage suggested by the WGEEP. Statement-II is correct. The Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel (WGEEP), chaired by Prof. Madhav Gadgil, took a strong conservationist position. It recommended classifying the entire Western Ghats landscape into different ESA zones with varying degrees of regulation and emphasized a decentralized governance model where local communities, through their Gram Sabhas, would have a major say in conservation and development decisions. Statement-II provides the direct explanation for Statement-I.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the committees on Western Ghats conservation:

Statement-I: The Kasturirangan Committee recommended a more development-friendly approach compared to the Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel (WGEEP).

Statement-II: The WGEEP, led by Madhav Gadgil, proposed the designation of the entire Western Ghats as an Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA) and advocated for a bottom-up conservation model involving Gram Sabhas.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. The Kasturirangan Committee (High-Level Working Group) was constituted to review the WGEEP report. It adopted a more pragmatic and “development-friendly” stance by significantly reducing the proposed area under the Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA) designation. It identified about 37% of the Western Ghats as ESA, as opposed to the more comprehensive coverage suggested by the WGEEP.

• Statement-II is correct. The Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel (WGEEP), chaired by Prof. Madhav Gadgil, took a strong conservationist position. It recommended classifying the entire Western Ghats landscape into different ESA zones with varying degrees of regulation and emphasized a decentralized governance model where local communities, through their Gram Sabhas, would have a major say in conservation and development decisions.

• Statement-II provides the direct explanation for Statement-I.

Solution: A

• Statement-II provides the direct explanation for Statement-I.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements about Mission Karmayogi: The program encompasses all civil servants, including contractual employees, across all central government ministries and departments. The iGOT Karmayogi platform is implemented by a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) named Karmayogi Bharat. The mission’s framework includes the creation of an Electronic Human Resource Management System (e-HRMS) to streamline personnel management. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: C Mission Karmayogi, or the National Programme for Civil Services Capacity Building (NPCSCB), has a well-defined institutional and operational framework. Statement 1 is correct. The scope of Mission Karmayogi is comprehensive. It is designed to cover approximately 3 million government employees, including all civil servants from the level of Assistant Section Officer to Secretary, and importantly, it also includes contractual employees across various government ministries, departments, organizations, and agencies. This wide scope ensures a uniform approach to capacity building across the government machinery. Statement 2 is correct. The implementation of the mission, particularly the iGOT Karmayogi digital platform, is not handled directly by a government department. It is managed by Karmayogi Bharat, a not-for-profit Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) set up under Section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013. This SPV is responsible for owning, managing, and operating the digital platform and its associated infrastructure. Statement 3 is correct. Mission Karmayogi is built on six key pillars. One of these is the Electronic Human Resource Management System (e-HRMS). The e-HRMS is intended to be the central repository for all data related to government officials, including their competencies, training history, and performance. It is meant to integrate with the iGOT platform to create a seamless system for competency-based training, deployment, and career progression, thereby streamlining the entire personnel management process. Incorrect Solution: C Mission Karmayogi, or the National Programme for Civil Services Capacity Building (NPCSCB), has a well-defined institutional and operational framework. Statement 1 is correct. The scope of Mission Karmayogi is comprehensive. It is designed to cover approximately 3 million government employees, including all civil servants from the level of Assistant Section Officer to Secretary, and importantly, it also includes contractual employees across various government ministries, departments, organizations, and agencies. This wide scope ensures a uniform approach to capacity building across the government machinery. Statement 2 is correct. The implementation of the mission, particularly the iGOT Karmayogi digital platform, is not handled directly by a government department. It is managed by Karmayogi Bharat, a not-for-profit Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) set up under Section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013. This SPV is responsible for owning, managing, and operating the digital platform and its associated infrastructure. Statement 3 is correct. Mission Karmayogi is built on six key pillars. One of these is the Electronic Human Resource Management System (e-HRMS). The e-HRMS is intended to be the central repository for all data related to government officials, including their competencies, training history, and performance. It is meant to integrate with the iGOT platform to create a seamless system for competency-based training, deployment, and career progression, thereby streamlining the entire personnel management process.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements about Mission Karmayogi:

• The program encompasses all civil servants, including contractual employees, across all central government ministries and departments.

• The iGOT Karmayogi platform is implemented by a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) named Karmayogi Bharat.

• The mission’s framework includes the creation of an Electronic Human Resource Management System (e-HRMS) to streamline personnel management.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: C

Mission Karmayogi, or the National Programme for Civil Services Capacity Building (NPCSCB), has a well-defined institutional and operational framework.

• Statement 1 is correct. The scope of Mission Karmayogi is comprehensive. It is designed to cover approximately 3 million government employees, including all civil servants from the level of Assistant Section Officer to Secretary, and importantly, it also includes contractual employees across various government ministries, departments, organizations, and agencies. This wide scope ensures a uniform approach to capacity building across the government machinery.

• Statement 2 is correct. The implementation of the mission, particularly the iGOT Karmayogi digital platform, is not handled directly by a government department. It is managed by Karmayogi Bharat, a not-for-profit Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) set up under Section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013. This SPV is responsible for owning, managing, and operating the digital platform and its associated infrastructure.

• Statement 3 is correct. Mission Karmayogi is built on six key pillars. One of these is the Electronic Human Resource Management System (e-HRMS). The e-HRMS is intended to be the central repository for all data related to government officials, including their competencies, training history, and performance. It is meant to integrate with the iGOT platform to create a seamless system for competency-based training, deployment, and career progression, thereby streamlining the entire personnel management process.

Solution: C

Mission Karmayogi, or the National Programme for Civil Services Capacity Building (NPCSCB), has a well-defined institutional and operational framework.

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Goods and Services Tax (GST) regime in India: It is a destination-based tax, which means the tax revenue accrues to the state where the consumption of the good or service occurs. The Constitution (101st Amendment) Act, 2016, provides the legal framework for the implementation of GST. Under the dual GST model, the tax is levied concurrently by the Centre and the States, but the rate for a specific good is solely determined by the GST Council without the need for legislative approval. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. GST is a destination-based tax, meaning the tax is levied at the point of consumption. This is a fundamental shift from the earlier origin-based taxation systems where tax was collected at the point of production. This principle ensures that the SGST component of the tax revenue goes to the state where the final consumer is located, not the state where the goods are manufactured. Statement 2 is correct. The introduction of GST required a constitutional amendment to grant concurrent powers to both the Union and State governments to levy this tax. The Constitution (101st Amendment) Act, 2016, was enacted for this purpose, inserting new articles like 246A, 269A, and 279A, and amending others to create a unified indirect tax system. Statement 3 is incorrect. While the GST Council, a constitutional body, recommends the tax rates, these rates are given effect through legislation passed by the Parliament (for CGST) and respective State Legislatures (for SGST). The Council’s recommendations are not automatically binding law; they form the basis for the CGST Act and SGST Acts, Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. GST is a destination-based tax, meaning the tax is levied at the point of consumption. This is a fundamental shift from the earlier origin-based taxation systems where tax was collected at the point of production. This principle ensures that the SGST component of the tax revenue goes to the state where the final consumer is located, not the state where the goods are manufactured. Statement 2 is correct. The introduction of GST required a constitutional amendment to grant concurrent powers to both the Union and State governments to levy this tax. The Constitution (101st Amendment) Act, 2016, was enacted for this purpose, inserting new articles like 246A, 269A, and 279A, and amending others to create a unified indirect tax system. Statement 3 is incorrect. While the GST Council, a constitutional body, recommends the tax rates, these rates are given effect through legislation passed by the Parliament (for CGST) and respective State Legislatures (for SGST). The Council’s recommendations are not automatically binding law; they form the basis for the CGST Act and SGST Acts,

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Goods and Services Tax (GST) regime in India:

• It is a destination-based tax, which means the tax revenue accrues to the state where the consumption of the good or service occurs.

• The Constitution (101st Amendment) Act, 2016, provides the legal framework for the implementation of GST.

• Under the dual GST model, the tax is levied concurrently by the Centre and the States, but the rate for a specific good is solely determined by the GST Council without the need for legislative approval.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. GST is a destination-based tax, meaning the tax is levied at the point of consumption. This is a fundamental shift from the earlier origin-based taxation systems where tax was collected at the point of production. This principle ensures that the SGST component of the tax revenue goes to the state where the final consumer is located, not the state where the goods are manufactured.

• Statement 2 is correct. The introduction of GST required a constitutional amendment to grant concurrent powers to both the Union and State governments to levy this tax. The Constitution (101st Amendment) Act, 2016, was enacted for this purpose, inserting new articles like 246A, 269A, and 279A, and amending others to create a unified indirect tax system.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. While the GST Council, a constitutional body, recommends the tax rates, these rates are given effect through legislation passed by the Parliament (for CGST) and respective State Legislatures (for SGST). The Council’s recommendations are not automatically binding law; they form the basis for the CGST Act and SGST Acts,

Solution: B

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The formation of secondary pollutants like ammonium sulphate is a significant environmental concern in India. Statement-II: India has high emissions of primary pollutants such as sulphur dioxide (SO₂) from coal combustion and ammonia (NH₃) from agricultural activities. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A Statement-I is correct. Secondary pollutants are atmospheric pollutants that are not directly emitted from a source. They form when primary pollutants react in the atmosphere. Ammonium sulphate ((NH₄)₂SO₄) is a key component of particulate matter (PM2.5) and contributes significantly to haze and acid rain, posing risks to human health and ecosystems. Its presence is a notable environmental issue. Statement-II is correct. India’s energy and agricultural sectors are major sources of primary pollutants. The heavy reliance on coal for power generation leads to substantial emissions of sulphur dioxide (SO₂). Simultaneously, the extensive use of nitrogen-based fertilizers, particularly urea, in agriculture results in significant emissions of ammonia (NH₃). Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I because ammonium sulphate is formed in the atmosphere through the chemical reaction between the primary pollutants ammonia (NH₃) and sulphur dioxide (SO₂). Incorrect Solution: A Statement-I is correct. Secondary pollutants are atmospheric pollutants that are not directly emitted from a source. They form when primary pollutants react in the atmosphere. Ammonium sulphate ((NH₄)₂SO₄) is a key component of particulate matter (PM2.5) and contributes significantly to haze and acid rain, posing risks to human health and ecosystems. Its presence is a notable environmental issue. Statement-II is correct. India’s energy and agricultural sectors are major sources of primary pollutants. The heavy reliance on coal for power generation leads to substantial emissions of sulphur dioxide (SO₂). Simultaneously, the extensive use of nitrogen-based fertilizers, particularly urea, in agriculture results in significant emissions of ammonia (NH₃). Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I because ammonium sulphate is formed in the atmosphere through the chemical reaction between the primary pollutants ammonia (NH₃) and sulphur dioxide (SO₂).

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The formation of secondary pollutants like ammonium sulphate is a significant environmental concern in India.

Statement-II: India has high emissions of primary pollutants such as sulphur dioxide (SO₂) from coal combustion and ammonia (NH₃) from agricultural activities.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. Secondary pollutants are atmospheric pollutants that are not directly emitted from a source. They form when primary pollutants react in the atmosphere. Ammonium sulphate ((NH₄)₂SO₄) is a key component of particulate matter (PM2.5) and contributes significantly to haze and acid rain, posing risks to human health and ecosystems. Its presence is a notable environmental issue.

• Statement-II is correct. India’s energy and agricultural sectors are major sources of primary pollutants. The heavy reliance on coal for power generation leads to substantial emissions of sulphur dioxide (SO₂). Simultaneously, the extensive use of nitrogen-based fertilizers, particularly urea, in agriculture results in significant emissions of ammonia (NH₃).

• Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I because ammonium sulphate is formed in the atmosphere through the chemical reaction between the primary pollutants ammonia (NH₃) and sulphur dioxide (SO₂).

Solution: A

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Which of the following statements best describes the legal status of a Geographical Indication (GI) tag in India? a) It is a private intellectual property right that can be sold or licensed by an individual producer to others for a royalty. b) It is a collective right, registered in the name of a community or an association of producers, and is not transferable. c) It is granted for a period of 20 years, after which it enters the public domain and can be used by anyone. d) It is granted by the Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks to any product with a unique regional characteristic. Correct Solution: B A Geographical Indication (GI) in India is fundamentally a collective or public property. It is not granted to an individual or a single company. Instead, it is registered in the name of an association of persons, producers, organization, or any authority established by or under the law representing the interests of the producers of the concerned goods. This ensures that the benefits of the GI tag are shared by the entire community of producers from that specific geographical region. A key feature of a GI, distinguishing it from a trademark, is that it cannot be sold, transferred, licensed, pledged, or mortgaged. This prevents the commercial exploitation of a region’s collective heritage by a single entity. The registration is valid for 10 years and can be renewed indefinitely, not 20 years. While the office of the Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks administers it, the registration is handled by the Geographical Indications Registry. Incorrect Solution: B A Geographical Indication (GI) in India is fundamentally a collective or public property. It is not granted to an individual or a single company. Instead, it is registered in the name of an association of persons, producers, organization, or any authority established by or under the law representing the interests of the producers of the concerned goods. This ensures that the benefits of the GI tag are shared by the entire community of producers from that specific geographical region. A key feature of a GI, distinguishing it from a trademark, is that it cannot be sold, transferred, licensed, pledged, or mortgaged. This prevents the commercial exploitation of a region’s collective heritage by a single entity. The registration is valid for 10 years and can be renewed indefinitely, not 20 years. While the office of the Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks administers it, the registration is handled by the Geographical Indications Registry.

#### 5. Question

Which of the following statements best describes the legal status of a Geographical Indication (GI) tag in India?

• a) It is a private intellectual property right that can be sold or licensed by an individual producer to others for a royalty.

• b) It is a collective right, registered in the name of a community or an association of producers, and is not transferable.

• c) It is granted for a period of 20 years, after which it enters the public domain and can be used by anyone.

• d) It is granted by the Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks to any product with a unique regional characteristic.

Solution: B

• A Geographical Indication (GI) in India is fundamentally a collective or public property. It is not granted to an individual or a single company. Instead, it is registered in the name of an association of persons, producers, organization, or any authority established by or under the law representing the interests of the producers of the concerned goods. This ensures that the benefits of the GI tag are shared by the entire community of producers from that specific geographical region.

• A key feature of a GI, distinguishing it from a trademark, is that it cannot be sold, transferred, licensed, pledged, or mortgaged. This prevents the commercial exploitation of a region’s collective heritage by a single entity.

• The registration is valid for 10 years and can be renewed indefinitely, not 20 years. While the office of the Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks administers it, the registration is handled by the Geographical Indications Registry.

Solution: B

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