UPSC Editorials Quiz : 30 January 2026

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements regarding the ultrasound-based cancer detection technique: The technique uses high-energy ultrasound to create tissue droplets that release RNA, DNA, and proteins into the bloodstream. It is highly invasive and requires a tissue biopsy for detecting cancer. The technique has the potential to increase biomarker detection sensitivity by more than 100 times. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1, 2, and 3 b) 2 only c) 1 only d) 1 and 3 only Correct Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. The new technique employs high-energy ultrasound to break off small portions of tissue and turn them into droplets that contain molecular markers like RNA, DNA, and proteins. These droplets are released into the bloodstream, where they can be analyzed to identify cancer types. Statement 2 is incorrect because the technique is non-invasive, reducing the need for procedures like biopsies. It detects cancer through the biomarkers found in the blood, rather than requiring direct tissue samples. Statement 3 is correct. The method increases the concentration of detectable biomarkers by over 100 times, improving the sensitivity and accuracy of early cancer detection. Incorrect Solution: D Statement 1 is correct. The new technique employs high-energy ultrasound to break off small portions of tissue and turn them into droplets that contain molecular markers like RNA, DNA, and proteins. These droplets are released into the bloodstream, where they can be analyzed to identify cancer types. Statement 2 is incorrect because the technique is non-invasive, reducing the need for procedures like biopsies. It detects cancer through the biomarkers found in the blood, rather than requiring direct tissue samples. Statement 3 is correct. The method increases the concentration of detectable biomarkers by over 100 times, improving the sensitivity and accuracy of early cancer detection.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the ultrasound-based cancer detection technique:

• The technique uses high-energy ultrasound to create tissue droplets that release RNA, DNA, and proteins into the bloodstream.

• It is highly invasive and requires a tissue biopsy for detecting cancer.

• The technique has the potential to increase biomarker detection sensitivity by more than 100 times.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• a) 1, 2, and 3

• d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: D

Statement 1 is correct. The new technique employs high-energy ultrasound to break off small portions of tissue and turn them into droplets that contain molecular markers like RNA, DNA, and proteins. These droplets are released into the bloodstream, where they can be analyzed to identify cancer types.

Statement 2 is incorrect because the technique is non-invasive, reducing the need for procedures like biopsies. It detects cancer through the biomarkers found in the blood, rather than requiring direct tissue samples.

Statement 3 is correct. The method increases the concentration of detectable biomarkers by over 100 times, improving the sensitivity and accuracy of early cancer detection.

Solution: D

Statement 1 is correct. The new technique employs high-energy ultrasound to break off small portions of tissue and turn them into droplets that contain molecular markers like RNA, DNA, and proteins. These droplets are released into the bloodstream, where they can be analyzed to identify cancer types.

Statement 2 is incorrect because the technique is non-invasive, reducing the need for procedures like biopsies. It detects cancer through the biomarkers found in the blood, rather than requiring direct tissue samples.

Statement 3 is correct. The method increases the concentration of detectable biomarkers by over 100 times, improving the sensitivity and accuracy of early cancer detection.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements: Minicoy Island is the southernmost island in the Lakshadweep group. The Eight Degree Channel separates Minicoy Island from the Maldives. The Nine Degree Channel separates Minicoy Island from the Lakshadweep Islands. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: D Minicoy Island is indeed the southernmost island in the Lakshadweep group, making Statement 1 correct. The Eight Degree Channel separates Minicoy from the Maldives, and the Nine Degree Channel separates Minicoy from the rest of the Lakshadweep Islands, making Statements 2 and 3 correct. These channels play an important role in maritime trade and the strategic positioning of India in the Indian Ocean. Additionally, Minicoy is culturally unique within the Lakshadweep group, with its distinct language and traditions, highlighting the diverse nature of India’s island territories. Incorrect Solution: D Minicoy Island is indeed the southernmost island in the Lakshadweep group, making Statement 1 correct. The Eight Degree Channel separates Minicoy from the Maldives, and the Nine Degree Channel separates Minicoy from the rest of the Lakshadweep Islands, making Statements 2 and 3 correct. These channels play an important role in maritime trade and the strategic positioning of India in the Indian Ocean. Additionally, Minicoy is culturally unique within the Lakshadweep group, with its distinct language and traditions, highlighting the diverse nature of India’s island territories.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements:

• Minicoy Island is the southernmost island in the Lakshadweep group.

• The Eight Degree Channel separates Minicoy Island from the Maldives.

• The Nine Degree Channel separates Minicoy Island from the Lakshadweep Islands.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: D

Minicoy Island is indeed the southernmost island in the Lakshadweep group, making Statement 1 correct.

The Eight Degree Channel separates Minicoy from the Maldives, and the Nine Degree Channel separates Minicoy from the rest of the Lakshadweep Islands, making Statements 2 and 3 correct.

These channels play an important role in maritime trade and the strategic positioning of India in the Indian Ocean. Additionally, Minicoy is culturally unique within the Lakshadweep group, with its distinct language and traditions, highlighting the diverse nature of India’s island territories.

Solution: D

Minicoy Island is indeed the southernmost island in the Lakshadweep group, making Statement 1 correct.

The Eight Degree Channel separates Minicoy from the Maldives, and the Nine Degree Channel separates Minicoy from the rest of the Lakshadweep Islands, making Statements 2 and 3 correct.

These channels play an important role in maritime trade and the strategic positioning of India in the Indian Ocean. Additionally, Minicoy is culturally unique within the Lakshadweep group, with its distinct language and traditions, highlighting the diverse nature of India’s island territories.

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements. Assertion (A): An MP who is absent for 60 consecutive sittings without permission automatically loses their seat under Article 101(4). Reason (R): The Constitution mandates that all absentee cases must be decided by the Election Commission of India. Which one of the following is correct? (a) Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation for A (b) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation for A (c) A is correct, but R is incorrect (d) Both A are R are incorrect Correct Solution: D Assertion (A) is incorrect because an MP’s seat is not automatically vacated after 60 sittings of absence. The House must formally declare it vacant. Reason (R) is also incorrect because the Election Commission (ECI) has no role in deciding Article 101(4) cases—it is a matter for Parliament and the Speaker/Chairman. What is Article 101(4)? States that an MP’s seat may be declared vacantif absent for 60 consecutive sittings without permission. The House must formally declarethe seat vacant; it is not an automatic process. Constitutional Provisions & Governing Law: Article 101 of the Indian Constitutiondeals with vacation of seats, disqualifications, and dual membership. Rules of Procedureand Conduct of Business in Parliament regulate MP attendance. Committee on Members’ Absencereviews requests and recommends action. Procedure for Seeking Leave: MPs must write to the Committee on Members’ Absencerequesting permission. The committee evaluates reasons(illness, detention, emergencies) and sends a report to the House. The House votes to approve or reject the requestbased on the report. Limitations on Leave Approval: The committee grants leave for a maximum of 59 daysat a time. If an MP needs additional leave, they must submit a fresh request. Power to Expel MPsfor Absence: If an MP fails to seek permissionor is denied leave, the House may declare the seat vacant. The decision must be approved by a majority vote in the House. Incorrect Solution: D Assertion (A) is incorrect because an MP’s seat is not automatically vacated after 60 sittings of absence. The House must formally declare it vacant. Reason (R) is also incorrect because the Election Commission (ECI) has no role in deciding Article 101(4) cases—it is a matter for Parliament and the Speaker/Chairman. What is Article 101(4)? States that an MP’s seat may be declared vacantif absent for 60 consecutive sittings without permission. The House must formally declarethe seat vacant; it is not an automatic process. Constitutional Provisions & Governing Law: Article 101 of the Indian Constitutiondeals with vacation of seats, disqualifications, and dual membership. Rules of Procedureand Conduct of Business in Parliament regulate MP attendance. Committee on Members’ Absencereviews requests and recommends action. Procedure for Seeking Leave: MPs must write to the Committee on Members’ Absencerequesting permission. The committee evaluates reasons(illness, detention, emergencies) and sends a report to the House. The House votes to approve or reject the requestbased on the report. Limitations on Leave Approval: The committee grants leave for a maximum of 59 daysat a time. If an MP needs additional leave, they must submit a fresh request. Power to Expel MPsfor Absence: If an MP fails to seek permissionor is denied leave, the House may declare the seat vacant. The decision must be approved by a majority vote in the House.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements.

Assertion (A): An MP who is absent for 60 consecutive sittings without permission automatically loses their seat under Article 101(4).

Reason (R): The Constitution mandates that all absentee cases must be decided by the Election Commission of India.

Which one of the following is correct?

• (a) Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation for A

• (b) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation for A

• (c) A is correct, but R is incorrect

• (d) Both A are R are incorrect

Solution: D

Assertion (A) is incorrect because an MP’s seat is not automatically vacated after 60 sittings of absence. The House must formally declare it vacant. Reason (R) is also incorrect because the Election Commission (ECI) has no role in deciding Article 101(4) cases—it is a matter for Parliament and the Speaker/Chairman.

• What is Article 101(4)? States that an MP’s seat may be declared vacantif absent for 60 consecutive sittings without permission. The House must formally declarethe seat vacant; it is not an automatic process.

• States that an MP’s seat may be declared vacantif absent for 60 consecutive sittings without permission.

• The House must formally declarethe seat vacant; it is not an automatic process.

• Constitutional Provisions & Governing Law: Article 101 of the Indian Constitutiondeals with vacation of seats, disqualifications, and dual membership. Rules of Procedureand Conduct of Business in Parliament regulate MP attendance. Committee on Members’ Absencereviews requests and recommends action.

• Article 101 of the Indian Constitutiondeals with vacation of seats, disqualifications, and dual membership.

• Rules of Procedureand Conduct of Business in Parliament regulate MP attendance.

• Committee on Members’ Absencereviews requests and recommends action.

• Procedure for Seeking Leave: MPs must write to the Committee on Members’ Absencerequesting permission. The committee evaluates reasons(illness, detention, emergencies) and sends a report to the House. The House votes to approve or reject the requestbased on the report.

• MPs must write to the Committee on Members’ Absencerequesting permission.

• The committee evaluates reasons(illness, detention, emergencies) and sends a report to the House.

• The House votes to approve or reject the requestbased on the report.

• Limitations on Leave Approval: The committee grants leave for a maximum of 59 daysat a time. If an MP needs additional leave, they must submit a fresh request.

• The committee grants leave for a maximum of 59 daysat a time.

• If an MP needs additional leave, they must submit a fresh request.

• Power to Expel MPsfor Absence: If an MP fails to seek permissionor is denied leave, the House may declare the seat vacant. The decision must be approved by a majority vote in the House.

• If an MP fails to seek permissionor is denied leave, the House may declare the seat vacant.

• The decision must be approved by a majority vote in the House.

Solution: D

Assertion (A) is incorrect because an MP’s seat is not automatically vacated after 60 sittings of absence. The House must formally declare it vacant. Reason (R) is also incorrect because the Election Commission (ECI) has no role in deciding Article 101(4) cases—it is a matter for Parliament and the Speaker/Chairman.

• What is Article 101(4)? States that an MP’s seat may be declared vacantif absent for 60 consecutive sittings without permission. The House must formally declarethe seat vacant; it is not an automatic process.

• States that an MP’s seat may be declared vacantif absent for 60 consecutive sittings without permission.

• The House must formally declarethe seat vacant; it is not an automatic process.

• Constitutional Provisions & Governing Law: Article 101 of the Indian Constitutiondeals with vacation of seats, disqualifications, and dual membership. Rules of Procedureand Conduct of Business in Parliament regulate MP attendance. Committee on Members’ Absencereviews requests and recommends action.

• Article 101 of the Indian Constitutiondeals with vacation of seats, disqualifications, and dual membership.

• Rules of Procedureand Conduct of Business in Parliament regulate MP attendance.

• Committee on Members’ Absencereviews requests and recommends action.

• Procedure for Seeking Leave: MPs must write to the Committee on Members’ Absencerequesting permission. The committee evaluates reasons(illness, detention, emergencies) and sends a report to the House. The House votes to approve or reject the requestbased on the report.

• MPs must write to the Committee on Members’ Absencerequesting permission.

• The committee evaluates reasons(illness, detention, emergencies) and sends a report to the House.

• The House votes to approve or reject the requestbased on the report.

• Limitations on Leave Approval: The committee grants leave for a maximum of 59 daysat a time. If an MP needs additional leave, they must submit a fresh request.

• The committee grants leave for a maximum of 59 daysat a time.

• If an MP needs additional leave, they must submit a fresh request.

• Power to Expel MPsfor Absence: If an MP fails to seek permissionor is denied leave, the House may declare the seat vacant. The decision must be approved by a majority vote in the House.

• If an MP fails to seek permissionor is denied leave, the House may declare the seat vacant.

• The decision must be approved by a majority vote in the House.

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements regarding remission in India: The Supreme Court has ruled that remission cannot be granted suo motu and requires a formal application from the convict. A life convict is automatically entitled to release after 14 years of imprisonment if eligible for remission. The power of remission under Article 161 of the Constitution is subject to judicial review. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect: The Supreme Court’s 2025 judgment now allows remission to be considered suo motu by the state, eliminating the requirement of a formal application. Statement 2 is incorrect: Life imprisonment means imprisonment for life unless remitted by the government. There is no automatic release after 14 years—remission is at the discretion of the state. Statement 3 is correct: The power of remission under Article 161 (Governor’s power) is subject to judicial review to ensure it is exercised lawfully. What is Remission? Remission is the reduction of a convict’s sentencebefore the completion of the full term. It does not erase the convictionbut shortens the duration of imprisonment. Laws Governing Remission: Section 473 of BNSS, 2023 & Section 432 of CrPC, 1973empower state governments to grant remission. Articles 72 & 161 of the Constitutionallow the President & Governor to remit sentences. Section 475 of BNSS & Section 433A of CrPCimpose a 14-year minimum term for life convicts. Procedure for Granting Remission: Prison authorities review casesand recommend eligible convicts. State governments consider applicationsand grant remission based on predefined policies. If conditions are violated, remission can be revoked, and the convict can be re-arrested. Past SC Judgments on Remission: Sangeet & Anr. v State of Haryana (2013):SC ruled that remission cannot be suo motu, requiring an application from the convict. Mohinder Singh v State of Punjab (2013):Reaffirmed that remission must be initiated through an application, not by courts or the government automatically. Mafabhai Motibhai Sagar v. State of Gujarat (2024):Held that remission conditions must be reasonable and cannot be arbitrarily stringent or vague. Supreme Court’s 2025 Judgment & Guidelines Suo motu remission allowed:If a remission policy exists, states must proactively consider eligible convicts without waiting for applications. Mandatory remission policy:States without a remission policy must formulate one within two months. Conditions for remission:Must be based on crime motive, criminal record, and public safety, ensuring rehabilitation. Protection against arbitrary cancellation:Remission cannot be revoked for minor breaches, and convicts must get a notice and a chance to respond before cancellation. Transparency in remission decisions:Legal aid authorities must track remission cases and maintain real-time data on a digital portal. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect: The Supreme Court’s 2025 judgment now allows remission to be considered suo motu by the state, eliminating the requirement of a formal application. Statement 2 is incorrect: Life imprisonment means imprisonment for life unless remitted by the government. There is no automatic release after 14 years—remission is at the discretion of the state. Statement 3 is correct: The power of remission under Article 161 (Governor’s power) is subject to judicial review to ensure it is exercised lawfully. What is Remission? Remission is the reduction of a convict’s sentencebefore the completion of the full term. It does not erase the convictionbut shortens the duration of imprisonment. Laws Governing Remission: Section 473 of BNSS, 2023 & Section 432 of CrPC, 1973empower state governments to grant remission. Articles 72 & 161 of the Constitutionallow the President & Governor to remit sentences. Section 475 of BNSS & Section 433A of CrPCimpose a 14-year minimum term for life convicts. Procedure for Granting Remission: Prison authorities review casesand recommend eligible convicts. State governments consider applicationsand grant remission based on predefined policies. If conditions are violated, remission can be revoked, and the convict can be re-arrested. Past SC Judgments on Remission: Sangeet & Anr. v State of Haryana (2013):SC ruled that remission cannot be suo motu, requiring an application from the convict. Mohinder Singh v State of Punjab (2013):Reaffirmed that remission must be initiated through an application, not by courts or the government automatically. Mafabhai Motibhai Sagar v. State of Gujarat (2024):Held that remission conditions must be reasonable and cannot be arbitrarily stringent or vague. Supreme Court’s 2025 Judgment & Guidelines Suo motu remission allowed:If a remission policy exists, states must proactively consider eligible convicts without waiting for applications. Mandatory remission policy:States without a remission policy must formulate one within two months. Conditions for remission:Must be based on crime motive, criminal record, and public safety, ensuring rehabilitation. Protection against arbitrary cancellation:Remission cannot be revoked for minor breaches, and convicts must get a notice and a chance to respond before cancellation. Transparency in remission decisions:Legal aid authorities must track remission cases and maintain real-time data on a digital portal.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding remission in India:

• The Supreme Court has ruled that remission cannot be granted suo motu and requires a formal application from the convict.

• A life convict is automatically entitled to release after 14 years of imprisonment if eligible for remission.

• The power of remission under Article 161 of the Constitution is subject to judicial review.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Supreme Court’s 2025 judgment now allows remission to be considered suo motu by the state, eliminating the requirement of a formal application.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: Life imprisonment means imprisonment for life unless remitted by the government. There is no automatic release after 14 years—remission is at the discretion of the state.

• Statement 3 is correct: The power of remission under Article 161 (Governor’s power) is subject to judicial review to ensure it is exercised lawfully.

• What is Remission? Remission is the reduction of a convict’s sentencebefore the completion of the full term. It does not erase the convictionbut shortens the duration of imprisonment.

• Remission is the reduction of a convict’s sentencebefore the completion of the full term.

• It does not erase the convictionbut shortens the duration of imprisonment.

• Laws Governing Remission: Section 473 of BNSS, 2023 & Section 432 of CrPC, 1973empower state governments to grant remission. Articles 72 & 161 of the Constitutionallow the President & Governor to remit sentences. Section 475 of BNSS & Section 433A of CrPCimpose a 14-year minimum term for life convicts.

• Section 473 of BNSS, 2023 & Section 432 of CrPC, 1973empower state governments to grant remission.

• Articles 72 & 161 of the Constitutionallow the President & Governor to remit sentences.

• Section 475 of BNSS & Section 433A of CrPCimpose a 14-year minimum term for life convicts.

• Procedure for Granting Remission: Prison authorities review casesand recommend eligible convicts. State governments consider applicationsand grant remission based on predefined policies. If conditions are violated, remission can be revoked, and the convict can be re-arrested.

• Prison authorities review casesand recommend eligible convicts.

• State governments consider applicationsand grant remission based on predefined policies.

• If conditions are violated, remission can be revoked, and the convict can be re-arrested.

• Past SC Judgments on Remission: Sangeet & Anr. v State of Haryana (2013):SC ruled that remission cannot be suo motu, requiring an application from the convict. Mohinder Singh v State of Punjab (2013):Reaffirmed that remission must be initiated through an application, not by courts or the government automatically. Mafabhai Motibhai Sagar v. State of Gujarat (2024):Held that remission conditions must be reasonable and cannot be arbitrarily stringent or vague.

• Sangeet & Anr. v State of Haryana (2013):SC ruled that remission cannot be suo motu, requiring an application from the convict.

• Mohinder Singh v State of Punjab (2013):Reaffirmed that remission must be initiated through an application, not by courts or the government automatically.

• Mafabhai Motibhai Sagar v. State of Gujarat (2024):Held that remission conditions must be reasonable and cannot be arbitrarily stringent or vague.

• Supreme Court’s 2025 Judgment & Guidelines Suo motu remission allowed:If a remission policy exists, states must proactively consider eligible convicts without waiting for applications. Mandatory remission policy:States without a remission policy must formulate one within two months. Conditions for remission:Must be based on crime motive, criminal record, and public safety, ensuring rehabilitation. Protection against arbitrary cancellation:Remission cannot be revoked for minor breaches, and convicts must get a notice and a chance to respond before cancellation. Transparency in remission decisions:Legal aid authorities must track remission cases and maintain real-time data on a digital portal.

• Suo motu remission allowed:If a remission policy exists, states must proactively consider eligible convicts without waiting for applications.

• Mandatory remission policy:States without a remission policy must formulate one within two months.

• Conditions for remission:Must be based on crime motive, criminal record, and public safety, ensuring rehabilitation.

• Protection against arbitrary cancellation:Remission cannot be revoked for minor breaches, and convicts must get a notice and a chance to respond before cancellation.

• Transparency in remission decisions:Legal aid authorities must track remission cases and maintain real-time data on a digital portal.

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Supreme Court’s 2025 judgment now allows remission to be considered suo motu by the state, eliminating the requirement of a formal application.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: Life imprisonment means imprisonment for life unless remitted by the government. There is no automatic release after 14 years—remission is at the discretion of the state.

• Statement 3 is correct: The power of remission under Article 161 (Governor’s power) is subject to judicial review to ensure it is exercised lawfully.

• What is Remission? Remission is the reduction of a convict’s sentencebefore the completion of the full term. It does not erase the convictionbut shortens the duration of imprisonment.

• Remission is the reduction of a convict’s sentencebefore the completion of the full term.

• It does not erase the convictionbut shortens the duration of imprisonment.

• Laws Governing Remission: Section 473 of BNSS, 2023 & Section 432 of CrPC, 1973empower state governments to grant remission. Articles 72 & 161 of the Constitutionallow the President & Governor to remit sentences. Section 475 of BNSS & Section 433A of CrPCimpose a 14-year minimum term for life convicts.

• Section 473 of BNSS, 2023 & Section 432 of CrPC, 1973empower state governments to grant remission.

• Articles 72 & 161 of the Constitutionallow the President & Governor to remit sentences.

• Section 475 of BNSS & Section 433A of CrPCimpose a 14-year minimum term for life convicts.

• Procedure for Granting Remission: Prison authorities review casesand recommend eligible convicts. State governments consider applicationsand grant remission based on predefined policies. If conditions are violated, remission can be revoked, and the convict can be re-arrested.

• Prison authorities review casesand recommend eligible convicts.

• State governments consider applicationsand grant remission based on predefined policies.

• If conditions are violated, remission can be revoked, and the convict can be re-arrested.

• Past SC Judgments on Remission: Sangeet & Anr. v State of Haryana (2013):SC ruled that remission cannot be suo motu, requiring an application from the convict. Mohinder Singh v State of Punjab (2013):Reaffirmed that remission must be initiated through an application, not by courts or the government automatically. Mafabhai Motibhai Sagar v. State of Gujarat (2024):Held that remission conditions must be reasonable and cannot be arbitrarily stringent or vague.

• Sangeet & Anr. v State of Haryana (2013):SC ruled that remission cannot be suo motu, requiring an application from the convict.

• Mohinder Singh v State of Punjab (2013):Reaffirmed that remission must be initiated through an application, not by courts or the government automatically.

• Mafabhai Motibhai Sagar v. State of Gujarat (2024):Held that remission conditions must be reasonable and cannot be arbitrarily stringent or vague.

• Supreme Court’s 2025 Judgment & Guidelines Suo motu remission allowed:If a remission policy exists, states must proactively consider eligible convicts without waiting for applications. Mandatory remission policy:States without a remission policy must formulate one within two months. Conditions for remission:Must be based on crime motive, criminal record, and public safety, ensuring rehabilitation. Protection against arbitrary cancellation:Remission cannot be revoked for minor breaches, and convicts must get a notice and a chance to respond before cancellation. Transparency in remission decisions:Legal aid authorities must track remission cases and maintain real-time data on a digital portal.

• Suo motu remission allowed:If a remission policy exists, states must proactively consider eligible convicts without waiting for applications.

• Mandatory remission policy:States without a remission policy must formulate one within two months.

• Conditions for remission:Must be based on crime motive, criminal record, and public safety, ensuring rehabilitation.

• Protection against arbitrary cancellation:Remission cannot be revoked for minor breaches, and convicts must get a notice and a chance to respond before cancellation.

• Transparency in remission decisions:Legal aid authorities must track remission cases and maintain real-time data on a digital portal.

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Andaman Sea: It is entirely surrounded by Indian territorial waters. The sea has an active tectonic plate boundary, making it prone to earthquakes and tsunamis. The Irrawaddy River from Myanmar drains into the Andaman Sea. How many of the above statements is/are incorrect? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect: The Andaman Sea is not entirely surrounded by Indian waters. It borders Myanmar, Thailand, Malaysia, and Indonesia along with India. Statement 2 is correct: The Sunda Trench and Andaman-Nicobar Subduction Zone make the Andaman Sea seismically active, leading to frequent earthquakes and tsunamis (e.g., the 2004 Indian Ocean Tsunami). Statement 3 is correct: The Irrawaddy River, Myanmar’s largest river, empties into the Andaman Sea. About Andaman Sea: Location and Neighbouring Nations Located in the northeastern Indian Ocean, between latitudes 4°N to 20°N and longitudes 92°E to 100°E. Bordered by Myanmar to the north and east, Thailand and Malaysia to the east, and Indonesia’s Sumatra to the south. Separated from the Bay of Bengal by the Andaman and Nicobar Islands (India) to the west. Rivers Flowing into the Andaman Sea: The Irrawaddy River (Myanmar) is the major river, depositing vast amounts of silt into the sea. Key Features: Major Islands:Andaman and Nicobar Islands (India), Breueh Island (north of Sumatra). Trench:Andaman-Nicobar Trench, with depths exceeding 14,500 feet (4,400 metres). Volcanic Activity:Barren Island, India’s only active volcano, is located here. Coral Reefs:Rich biodiversity with extensive coral reefs, popular for tourism. Strategic Importance: Major shipping route between India and China via the Strait of Malacca. Key sea link for Myanmar through ports like Yangon, Bassein, and Mergui. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect: The Andaman Sea is not entirely surrounded by Indian waters. It borders Myanmar, Thailand, Malaysia, and Indonesia along with India. Statement 2 is correct: The Sunda Trench and Andaman-Nicobar Subduction Zone make the Andaman Sea seismically active, leading to frequent earthquakes and tsunamis (e.g., the 2004 Indian Ocean Tsunami). Statement 3 is correct: The Irrawaddy River, Myanmar’s largest river, empties into the Andaman Sea. About Andaman Sea: Location and Neighbouring Nations Located in the northeastern Indian Ocean, between latitudes 4°N to 20°N and longitudes 92°E to 100°E. Bordered by Myanmar to the north and east, Thailand and Malaysia to the east, and Indonesia’s Sumatra to the south. Separated from the Bay of Bengal by the Andaman and Nicobar Islands (India) to the west. Rivers Flowing into the Andaman Sea: The Irrawaddy River (Myanmar) is the major river, depositing vast amounts of silt into the sea. Key Features: Major Islands:Andaman and Nicobar Islands (India), Breueh Island (north of Sumatra). Trench:Andaman-Nicobar Trench, with depths exceeding 14,500 feet (4,400 metres). Volcanic Activity:Barren Island, India’s only active volcano, is located here. Coral Reefs:Rich biodiversity with extensive coral reefs, popular for tourism. Strategic Importance: Major shipping route between India and China via the Strait of Malacca. Key sea link for Myanmar through ports like Yangon, Bassein, and Mergui.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Andaman Sea:

• It is entirely surrounded by Indian territorial waters.

• The sea has an active tectonic plate boundary, making it prone to earthquakes and tsunamis.

• The Irrawaddy River from Myanmar drains into the Andaman Sea.

How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Andaman Sea is not entirely surrounded by Indian waters. It borders Myanmar, Thailand, Malaysia, and Indonesia along with India.

• Statement 2 is correct: The Sunda Trench and Andaman-Nicobar Subduction Zone make the Andaman Sea seismically active, leading to frequent earthquakes and tsunamis (e.g., the 2004 Indian Ocean Tsunami).

• Statement 3 is correct: The Irrawaddy River, Myanmar’s largest river, empties into the Andaman Sea.

About Andaman Sea:

• Location and Neighbouring Nations Located in the northeastern Indian Ocean, between latitudes 4°N to 20°N and longitudes 92°E to 100°E. Bordered by Myanmar to the north and east, Thailand and Malaysia to the east, and Indonesia’s Sumatra to the south. Separated from the Bay of Bengal by the Andaman and Nicobar Islands (India) to the west.

• Located in the northeastern Indian Ocean, between latitudes 4°N to 20°N and longitudes 92°E to 100°E.

• Bordered by Myanmar to the north and east, Thailand and Malaysia to the east, and Indonesia’s Sumatra to the south.

• Separated from the Bay of Bengal by the Andaman and Nicobar Islands (India) to the west.

• Rivers Flowing into the Andaman Sea: The Irrawaddy River (Myanmar) is the major river, depositing vast amounts of silt into the sea.

• The Irrawaddy River (Myanmar) is the major river, depositing vast amounts of silt into the sea.

• Key Features: Major Islands:Andaman and Nicobar Islands (India), Breueh Island (north of Sumatra). Trench:Andaman-Nicobar Trench, with depths exceeding 14,500 feet (4,400 metres). Volcanic Activity:Barren Island, India’s only active volcano, is located here. Coral Reefs:Rich biodiversity with extensive coral reefs, popular for tourism.

• Major Islands:Andaman and Nicobar Islands (India), Breueh Island (north of Sumatra).

• Trench:Andaman-Nicobar Trench, with depths exceeding 14,500 feet (4,400 metres).

• Volcanic Activity:Barren Island, India’s only active volcano, is located here.

• Coral Reefs:Rich biodiversity with extensive coral reefs, popular for tourism.

• Strategic Importance: Major shipping route between India and China via the Strait of Malacca. Key sea link for Myanmar through ports like Yangon, Bassein, and Mergui.

• Major shipping route between India and China via the Strait of Malacca.

• Key sea link for Myanmar through ports like Yangon, Bassein, and Mergui.

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Andaman Sea is not entirely surrounded by Indian waters. It borders Myanmar, Thailand, Malaysia, and Indonesia along with India.

• Statement 2 is correct: The Sunda Trench and Andaman-Nicobar Subduction Zone make the Andaman Sea seismically active, leading to frequent earthquakes and tsunamis (e.g., the 2004 Indian Ocean Tsunami).

• Statement 3 is correct: The Irrawaddy River, Myanmar’s largest river, empties into the Andaman Sea.

About Andaman Sea:

• Location and Neighbouring Nations Located in the northeastern Indian Ocean, between latitudes 4°N to 20°N and longitudes 92°E to 100°E. Bordered by Myanmar to the north and east, Thailand and Malaysia to the east, and Indonesia’s Sumatra to the south. Separated from the Bay of Bengal by the Andaman and Nicobar Islands (India) to the west.

• Located in the northeastern Indian Ocean, between latitudes 4°N to 20°N and longitudes 92°E to 100°E.

• Bordered by Myanmar to the north and east, Thailand and Malaysia to the east, and Indonesia’s Sumatra to the south.

• Separated from the Bay of Bengal by the Andaman and Nicobar Islands (India) to the west.

• Rivers Flowing into the Andaman Sea: The Irrawaddy River (Myanmar) is the major river, depositing vast amounts of silt into the sea.

• The Irrawaddy River (Myanmar) is the major river, depositing vast amounts of silt into the sea.

• Key Features: Major Islands:Andaman and Nicobar Islands (India), Breueh Island (north of Sumatra). Trench:Andaman-Nicobar Trench, with depths exceeding 14,500 feet (4,400 metres). Volcanic Activity:Barren Island, India’s only active volcano, is located here. Coral Reefs:Rich biodiversity with extensive coral reefs, popular for tourism.

• Major Islands:Andaman and Nicobar Islands (India), Breueh Island (north of Sumatra).

• Trench:Andaman-Nicobar Trench, with depths exceeding 14,500 feet (4,400 metres).

• Volcanic Activity:Barren Island, India’s only active volcano, is located here.

• Coral Reefs:Rich biodiversity with extensive coral reefs, popular for tourism.

• Strategic Importance: Major shipping route between India and China via the Strait of Malacca. Key sea link for Myanmar through ports like Yangon, Bassein, and Mergui.

• Major shipping route between India and China via the Strait of Malacca.

• Key sea link for Myanmar through ports like Yangon, Bassein, and Mergui.

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