UPSC Editorials Quiz : 3 March 2026

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements regarding the update of India’s national accounts data series: Statement I: The Central Government has revised the base year for Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and Gross Value Added (GVA) calculation to 2022-23 to incorporate updated data from the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) and Goods and Services Tax (GST) records. Statement II: The introduction of the “double-deflator” method ensures that the value of intermediate inputs and the value of final output are deflated separately, providing a more accurate measurement of real growth by isolating sectoral inflation impacts. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: B Both statements are accurate reflections of the economic policy shift announced in early March 2026. Statement I is correct because the new series of national accounts data has shifted the base year from 2011-12 to 2022-23. This update is essential to reflect the current structure of the economy and to integrate high-quality, high-frequency data sources like GST data and the Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises (ASUSE). Statement II is also correct as it describes the double-deflator approach, a major methodological improvement that deflates the value of gross output and intermediate inputs independently. This prevents the distortion of “real” value added that occurs when a single price index is applied to the entire sector despite different inflation rates for inputs and final goods. However, Statement II is not the explanation for Statement I. The update of the base year is driven by the need for longitudinal representativeness (accounting for shifts in consumer behavior and industry composition over a decade), while the adoption of the double-deflator is a methodological refinement within that series. Source Incorrect Solution: B Both statements are accurate reflections of the economic policy shift announced in early March 2026. Statement I is correct because the new series of national accounts data has shifted the base year from 2011-12 to 2022-23. This update is essential to reflect the current structure of the economy and to integrate high-quality, high-frequency data sources like GST data and the Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises (ASUSE). Statement II is also correct as it describes the double-deflator approach, a major methodological improvement that deflates the value of gross output and intermediate inputs independently. This prevents the distortion of “real” value added that occurs when a single price index is applied to the entire sector despite different inflation rates for inputs and final goods. However, Statement II is not the explanation for Statement I. The update of the base year is driven by the need for longitudinal representativeness (accounting for shifts in consumer behavior and industry composition over a decade), while the adoption of the double-deflator is a methodological refinement within that series. Source

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the update of India’s national accounts data series:

Statement I: The Central Government has revised the base year for Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and Gross Value Added (GVA) calculation to 2022-23 to incorporate updated data from the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) and Goods and Services Tax (GST) records.

Statement II: The introduction of the “double-deflator” method ensures that the value of intermediate inputs and the value of final output are deflated separately, providing a more accurate measurement of real growth by isolating sectoral inflation impacts.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: B

• Both statements are accurate reflections of the economic policy shift announced in early March 2026.

• Statement I is correct because the new series of national accounts data has shifted the base year from 2011-12 to 2022-23. This update is essential to reflect the current structure of the economy and to integrate high-quality, high-frequency data sources like GST data and the Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises (ASUSE).

• Statement II is also correct as it describes the double-deflator approach, a major methodological improvement that deflates the value of gross output and intermediate inputs independently. This prevents the distortion of “real” value added that occurs when a single price index is applied to the entire sector despite different inflation rates for inputs and final goods.

• However, Statement II is not the explanation for Statement I. The update of the base year is driven by the need for longitudinal representativeness (accounting for shifts in consumer behavior and industry composition over a decade), while the adoption of the double-deflator is a methodological refinement within that series.

Solution: B

• Both statements are accurate reflections of the economic policy shift announced in early March 2026.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Regarding the nationwide Human Papillomavirus (HPV) vaccination programme launched in 2026, consider the following statements: The programme primarily targets girls aged 14 to prevent the development of cervical cancer in later life. India has adopted a single-dose vaccination schedule, aligning with current World Health Organization (WHO) recommendations. The vaccine is being administered at both private clinics and designated government health facilities to maximize coverage. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct as the national drive specifically targets 14-year-old girls as a preventive measure against cervical cancer, which is the only cancer largely preventable by vaccination. Statement 2 is correct because the Centre has opted for a single-dose schedule, a strategy proven effective in over 90 countries and recommended by the WHO to reduce infection incidence while managing logistical costs. Statement 3 is incorrect. To ensure safety, proper monitoring, and standardized reporting of Adverse Events Following Immunisation (AEFI), the programme stipulates that the vaccine will be administered only at designated government health facilities in the presence of trained medical staff. This restriction is a response to past concerns (such as the 2009-10 trials) and aims to build public trust by centralizing monitoring and management of any post-vaccination complications. Source Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct as the national drive specifically targets 14-year-old girls as a preventive measure against cervical cancer, which is the only cancer largely preventable by vaccination. Statement 2 is correct because the Centre has opted for a single-dose schedule, a strategy proven effective in over 90 countries and recommended by the WHO to reduce infection incidence while managing logistical costs. Statement 3 is incorrect. To ensure safety, proper monitoring, and standardized reporting of Adverse Events Following Immunisation (AEFI), the programme stipulates that the vaccine will be administered only at designated government health facilities in the presence of trained medical staff. This restriction is a response to past concerns (such as the 2009-10 trials) and aims to build public trust by centralizing monitoring and management of any post-vaccination complications. Source

#### 2. Question

Regarding the nationwide Human Papillomavirus (HPV) vaccination programme launched in 2026, consider the following statements:

• The programme primarily targets girls aged 14 to prevent the development of cervical cancer in later life.

• India has adopted a single-dose vaccination schedule, aligning with current World Health Organization (WHO) recommendations.

• The vaccine is being administered at both private clinics and designated government health facilities to maximize coverage.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: B

Statement 1 is correct as the national drive specifically targets 14-year-old girls as a preventive measure against cervical cancer, which is the only cancer largely preventable by vaccination.

Statement 2 is correct because the Centre has opted for a single-dose schedule, a strategy proven effective in over 90 countries and recommended by the WHO to reduce infection incidence while managing logistical costs.

Statement 3 is incorrect. To ensure safety, proper monitoring, and standardized reporting of Adverse Events Following Immunisation (AEFI), the programme stipulates that the vaccine will be administered only at designated government health facilities in the presence of trained medical staff. This restriction is a response to past concerns (such as the 2009-10 trials) and aims to build public trust by centralizing monitoring and management of any post-vaccination complications.

Solution: B

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements regarding global energy geography and the West Asia crisis: The Strait of Hormuz is the world’s most important oil transit chokepoint, located between the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman. Disruption in the Strait of Hormuz primarily affects global oil supply, while liquefied natural gas (LNG) flows remain largely insulated due to separate pipeline networks. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct as the Strait of Hormuz is a critical maritime passage between the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman, facilitating the transit of approximately one-fifth of the world’s daily oil consumption. Statement 2 is incorrect. Disruption in the Strait of Hormuz does not just affect oil; it is also a major route for liquefied natural gas (LNG). A significant share of the world’s gas flows through this chokepoint, and its closure would have catastrophic effects on both the global oil and gas markets. Therefore, the energy sector’s vulnerability extends to all maritime hydrocarbon transport in the region. Source Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct as the Strait of Hormuz is a critical maritime passage between the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman, facilitating the transit of approximately one-fifth of the world’s daily oil consumption. Statement 2 is incorrect. Disruption in the Strait of Hormuz does not just affect oil; it is also a major route for liquefied natural gas (LNG). A significant share of the world’s gas flows through this chokepoint, and its closure would have catastrophic effects on both the global oil and gas markets. Therefore, the energy sector’s vulnerability extends to all maritime hydrocarbon transport in the region. Source

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding global energy geography and the West Asia crisis:

• The Strait of Hormuz is the world’s most important oil transit chokepoint, located between the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman.

• Disruption in the Strait of Hormuz primarily affects global oil supply, while liquefied natural gas (LNG) flows remain largely insulated due to separate pipeline networks.

Which of the above statements are correct?

• (a) 1 only

• (b) 2 only

• (c) Both 1 and 2

• (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

Statement 1 is correct as the Strait of Hormuz is a critical maritime passage between the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman, facilitating the transit of approximately one-fifth of the world’s daily oil consumption.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Disruption in the Strait of Hormuz does not just affect oil; it is also a major route for liquefied natural gas (LNG). A significant share of the world’s gas flows through this chokepoint, and its closure would have catastrophic effects on both the global oil and gas markets. Therefore, the energy sector’s vulnerability extends to all maritime hydrocarbon transport in the region.

Solution: A

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question With reference to the powers and procedures of a Privilege Notice in India, consider the following: The Constitution specifically lists all the types of breaches that constitute a contempt of the House. The Speaker or Chairman has the absolute discretion to either admit the notice or refer it to the Committee of Privileges. The House has the power to expel a member as a punishment for a grave breach of privilege. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The legal framework for privileges in India is a mix of constitutional provisions and parliamentary conventions. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Constitution (Articles 105 and 194) does not provide an exhaustive list of what constitutes a “breach of privilege” or “contempt.” Instead, it states that these powers shall be such as may from time to time be defined by Parliament by law, and until so defined, shall be those of the House and its members at the commencement of the Constitution (referencing British conventions). Statement 2 is correct; the Presiding Officer acts as the first gatekeeper. They decide if the matter is admissible. If admitted, the Speaker/Chairman can either allow the House to debate it immediately or refer it to the Committee of Privileges for a detailed examination of evidence. Statement 3 is correct; the House possesses the penal jurisdiction to protect its own dignity. Punishments range from simple admonition and reprimand to more severe measures like imprisonment, suspension, or even expulsion for members. These powers ensure accountability and maintain discipline within the legislative chamber, ensuring that the LoP or any other member remains truthful and respectful during proceedings like the Budget discussion. Incorrect Solution: B The legal framework for privileges in India is a mix of constitutional provisions and parliamentary conventions. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Constitution (Articles 105 and 194) does not provide an exhaustive list of what constitutes a “breach of privilege” or “contempt.” Instead, it states that these powers shall be such as may from time to time be defined by Parliament by law, and until so defined, shall be those of the House and its members at the commencement of the Constitution (referencing British conventions). Statement 2 is correct; the Presiding Officer acts as the first gatekeeper. They decide if the matter is admissible. If admitted, the Speaker/Chairman can either allow the House to debate it immediately or refer it to the Committee of Privileges for a detailed examination of evidence. Statement 3 is correct; the House possesses the penal jurisdiction to protect its own dignity. Punishments range from simple admonition and reprimand to more severe measures like imprisonment, suspension, or even expulsion for members. These powers ensure accountability and maintain discipline within the legislative chamber, ensuring that the LoP or any other member remains truthful and respectful during proceedings like the Budget discussion.

#### 4. Question

With reference to the powers and procedures of a Privilege Notice in India, consider the following:

• The Constitution specifically lists all the types of breaches that constitute a contempt of the House.

• The Speaker or Chairman has the absolute discretion to either admit the notice or refer it to the Committee of Privileges.

• The House has the power to expel a member as a punishment for a grave breach of privilege.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• The legal framework for privileges in India is a mix of constitutional provisions and parliamentary conventions.

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the Constitution (Articles 105 and 194) does not provide an exhaustive list of what constitutes a “breach of privilege” or “contempt.” Instead, it states that these powers shall be such as may from time to time be defined by Parliament by law, and until so defined, shall be those of the House and its members at the commencement of the Constitution (referencing British conventions).

• Statement 2 is correct; the Presiding Officer acts as the first gatekeeper. They decide if the matter is admissible. If admitted, the Speaker/Chairman can either allow the House to debate it immediately or refer it to the Committee of Privileges for a detailed examination of evidence.

• Statement 3 is correct; the House possesses the penal jurisdiction to protect its own dignity. Punishments range from simple admonition and reprimand to more severe measures like imprisonment, suspension, or even expulsion for members. These powers ensure accountability and maintain discipline within the legislative chamber, ensuring that the LoP or any other member remains truthful and respectful during proceedings like the Budget discussion.

Solution: B

• The legal framework for privileges in India is a mix of constitutional provisions and parliamentary conventions.

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements about APEDA’s history and structure: Statement I: APEDA was established as a statutory authority replacing the Processed Food Export Promotion Council (PFEPC). Statement II: It functions under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry to promote the export of scheduled agricultural products. Statement III: Its mandate is limited to providing market intelligence and does not include fixing quality standards. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement III is incorrect (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct Correct Solution: B Statement I and II are correct, while Statement III is incorrect. APEDA was born out of the APEDA Act of 1985 and became effective in February 1986. It took over the functions of the Processed Food Export Promotion Council (PFEPC) to provide a more powerful statutory basis for export growth (Statement I). It resides within the Ministry of Commerce and Industry because agricultural exports are a vital component of India’s international trade balance (Statement II). Statement III is incorrect because fixing quality standards is one of APEDA’s most critical functions. It doesn’t just provide market data; it actively monitors the quality of meat and processed products through inspections and sets the benchmarks that exporters must meet. This is essential because if Indian products fail quality tests abroad, it damages the “Brand India” reputation. APEDA’s 40-year journey has seen it evolve from a simple promotion council into a comprehensive authority that manages everything from Registration-cum-Membership (RCMC) to organic certification (NPOP) and even sugar import monitoring. This multi-layered approach has been fundamental in helping Indian farmers reach global dining tables. Incorrect Solution: B Statement I and II are correct, while Statement III is incorrect. APEDA was born out of the APEDA Act of 1985 and became effective in February 1986. It took over the functions of the Processed Food Export Promotion Council (PFEPC) to provide a more powerful statutory basis for export growth (Statement I). It resides within the Ministry of Commerce and Industry because agricultural exports are a vital component of India’s international trade balance (Statement II). Statement III is incorrect because fixing quality standards is one of APEDA’s most critical functions. It doesn’t just provide market data; it actively monitors the quality of meat and processed products through inspections and sets the benchmarks that exporters must meet. This is essential because if Indian products fail quality tests abroad, it damages the “Brand India” reputation. APEDA’s 40-year journey has seen it evolve from a simple promotion council into a comprehensive authority that manages everything from Registration-cum-Membership (RCMC) to organic certification (NPOP) and even sugar import monitoring. This multi-layered approach has been fundamental in helping Indian farmers reach global dining tables.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements about APEDA’s history and structure:

Statement I: APEDA was established as a statutory authority replacing the Processed Food Export Promotion Council (PFEPC).

Statement II: It functions under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry to promote the export of scheduled agricultural products.

Statement III: Its mandate is limited to providing market intelligence and does not include fixing quality standards.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement III is incorrect

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

• (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Solution: B

• Statement I and II are correct, while Statement III is incorrect.

• APEDA was born out of the APEDA Act of 1985 and became effective in February 1986. It took over the functions of the Processed Food Export Promotion Council (PFEPC) to provide a more powerful statutory basis for export growth (Statement I).

• It resides within the Ministry of Commerce and Industry because agricultural exports are a vital component of India’s international trade balance (Statement II).

• Statement III is incorrect because fixing quality standards is one of APEDA’s most critical functions. It doesn’t just provide market data; it actively monitors the quality of meat and processed products through inspections and sets the benchmarks that exporters must meet. This is essential because if Indian products fail quality tests abroad, it damages the “Brand India” reputation.

• APEDA’s 40-year journey has seen it evolve from a simple promotion council into a comprehensive authority that manages everything from Registration-cum-Membership (RCMC) to organic certification (NPOP) and even sugar import monitoring. This multi-layered approach has been fundamental in helping Indian farmers reach global dining tables.

Solution: B

• Statement I and II are correct, while Statement III is incorrect.

• It resides within the Ministry of Commerce and Industry because agricultural exports are a vital component of India’s international trade balance (Statement II).

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