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UPSC Editorials Quiz : 3 February 2026

Kartavya Desk Staff

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements regarding the independence of the Election Commission of India (ECI): The salaries and allowances of the CEC and ECs are charged directly from the Consolidated Fund of India. The government has the power to remove Election Commissioners through an executive order without parliamentary approval. The Election Commission can independently amend the Representation of the People Act, 1951, without Parliament’s approval. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is correct because the salaries and allowances of the Chief Election Commissioner and the Election Commissioners are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India, which ensures financial independence and protects them from executive pressure through budgetary control. Statement 2 is incorrect. Election Commissioners cannot be removed by a simple executive order. While the Chief Election Commissioner enjoys the same security of tenure as a Supreme Court judge and can be removed only through a parliamentary process of impeachment, the Election Commissioners can be removed only on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner, not unilaterally by the executive. Statement 3 is also incorrect. The Election Commission does not have legislative powers. It can issue directions, guidelines, and instructions to ensure free and fair elections, but it cannot amend the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Any amendment to this law requires approval by Parliament. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is correct because the salaries and allowances of the Chief Election Commissioner and the Election Commissioners are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India, which ensures financial independence and protects them from executive pressure through budgetary control. Statement 2 is incorrect. Election Commissioners cannot be removed by a simple executive order. While the Chief Election Commissioner enjoys the same security of tenure as a Supreme Court judge and can be removed only through a parliamentary process of impeachment, the Election Commissioners can be removed only on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner, not unilaterally by the executive. Statement 3 is also incorrect. The Election Commission does not have legislative powers. It can issue directions, guidelines, and instructions to ensure free and fair elections, but it cannot amend the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Any amendment to this law requires approval by Parliament.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the independence of the Election Commission of India (ECI):

• The salaries and allowances of the CEC and ECs are charged directly from the Consolidated Fund of India.

• The government has the power to remove Election Commissioners through an executive order without parliamentary approval.

• The Election Commission can independently amend the Representation of the People Act, 1951, without Parliament’s approval.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• a) Only one

• b) Only two

• c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct because the salaries and allowances of the Chief Election Commissioner and the Election Commissioners are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India, which ensures financial independence and protects them from executive pressure through budgetary control.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Election Commissioners cannot be removed by a simple executive order. While the Chief Election Commissioner enjoys the same security of tenure as a Supreme Court judge and can be removed only through a parliamentary process of impeachment, the Election Commissioners can be removed only on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner, not unilaterally by the executive.

Statement 3 is also incorrect. The Election Commission does not have legislative powers. It can issue directions, guidelines, and instructions to ensure free and fair elections, but it cannot amend the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Any amendment to this law requires approval by Parliament.

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct because the salaries and allowances of the Chief Election Commissioner and the Election Commissioners are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India, which ensures financial independence and protects them from executive pressure through budgetary control.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Election Commissioners cannot be removed by a simple executive order. While the Chief Election Commissioner enjoys the same security of tenure as a Supreme Court judge and can be removed only through a parliamentary process of impeachment, the Election Commissioners can be removed only on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner, not unilaterally by the executive.

Statement 3 is also incorrect. The Election Commission does not have legislative powers. It can issue directions, guidelines, and instructions to ensure free and fair elections, but it cannot amend the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Any amendment to this law requires approval by Parliament.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Which of the following measures can prevent an MP from losing their seat under Article 101(4)? a) Challenging the decision in the Supreme Court before the 60-day mark b) Requesting an exemption from the Election Commission of India c) Seeking permission from the Prime Minister’s Office d) Applying for leave of absence from the Committee on Members’ Absence Correct Solution: D Article 101(4) of the Constitution of India provides that if a Member of Parliament is absent from all meetings of the House for a period of sixty days without permission, the House may declare the seat vacant. The key constitutional safeguard lies in the phrase “without permission of the House.” The authority to grant such permission does not rest with the judiciary, the executive, or the Election Commission of India. Instead, parliamentary procedure empowers the Committee on Members’ Absence to examine applications for leave and place its recommendations before the House. If the House grants leave of absence on this basis, the constitutional condition for declaring the seat vacant is not fulfilled. Challenging the matter in the Supreme Court does not automatically suspend Article 101(4), and neither the Prime Minister’s Office nor the Election Commission has any constitutional role in granting attendance-related exemptions to sitting Members of Parliament. Incorrect Solution: D Article 101(4) of the Constitution of India provides that if a Member of Parliament is absent from all meetings of the House for a period of sixty days without permission, the House may declare the seat vacant. The key constitutional safeguard lies in the phrase “without permission of the House.” The authority to grant such permission does not rest with the judiciary, the executive, or the Election Commission of India. Instead, parliamentary procedure empowers the Committee on Members’ Absence to examine applications for leave and place its recommendations before the House. If the House grants leave of absence on this basis, the constitutional condition for declaring the seat vacant is not fulfilled. Challenging the matter in the Supreme Court does not automatically suspend Article 101(4), and neither the Prime Minister’s Office nor the Election Commission has any constitutional role in granting attendance-related exemptions to sitting Members of Parliament.

#### 2. Question

Which of the following measures can prevent an MP from losing their seat under Article 101(4)?

• a) Challenging the decision in the Supreme Court before the 60-day mark

• b) Requesting an exemption from the Election Commission of India

• c) Seeking permission from the Prime Minister’s Office

• d) Applying for leave of absence from the Committee on Members’ Absence

Solution: D

• Article 101(4) of the Constitution of India provides that if a Member of Parliament is absent from all meetings of the House for a period of sixty days without permission, the House may declare the seat vacant. The key constitutional safeguard lies in the phrase “without permission of the House.” The authority to grant such permission does not rest with the judiciary, the executive, or the Election Commission of India.

• Instead, parliamentary procedure empowers the Committee on Members’ Absence to examine applications for leave and place its recommendations before the House. If the House grants leave of absence on this basis, the constitutional condition for declaring the seat vacant is not fulfilled.

• Challenging the matter in the Supreme Court does not automatically suspend Article 101(4), and neither the Prime Minister’s Office nor the Election Commission has any constitutional role in granting attendance-related exemptions to sitting Members of Parliament.

Solution: D

• Article 101(4) of the Constitution of India provides that if a Member of Parliament is absent from all meetings of the House for a period of sixty days without permission, the House may declare the seat vacant. The key constitutional safeguard lies in the phrase “without permission of the House.” The authority to grant such permission does not rest with the judiciary, the executive, or the Election Commission of India.

• Instead, parliamentary procedure empowers the Committee on Members’ Absence to examine applications for leave and place its recommendations before the House. If the House grants leave of absence on this basis, the constitutional condition for declaring the seat vacant is not fulfilled.

• Challenging the matter in the Supreme Court does not automatically suspend Article 101(4), and neither the Prime Minister’s Office nor the Election Commission has any constitutional role in granting attendance-related exemptions to sitting Members of Parliament.

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question What is the main source of power in Wave Energy Conversion systems? a) Temperature difference between surface and deep water b) Salt concentration difference between freshwater and seawater c) Gravitational pull from the Moon d) Kinetic energy from ocean waves Correct Solution: D Wave Energy Conversion systems primarily harness the kinetic and potential energy of ocean surface waves, which are generated due to wind blowing over the sea surface. As wind transfers energy to water, waves are formed, and their continuous motion carries usable mechanical energy. Wave energy devices—such as oscillating water columns, point absorbers, and attenuators—convert this wave-induced motion into electricity through turbines or hydraulic systems. Option (a) refers to Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion, which relies on temperature gradients, not waves. Option (b) describes salinity gradient (blue) energy, generated from differences in salt concentration. Option (c) is incorrect because although the Moon’s gravitational pull influences tides, wave energy is wind-driven rather than tide-driven. Incorrect Solution: D Wave Energy Conversion systems primarily harness the kinetic and potential energy of ocean surface waves, which are generated due to wind blowing over the sea surface. As wind transfers energy to water, waves are formed, and their continuous motion carries usable mechanical energy. Wave energy devices—such as oscillating water columns, point absorbers, and attenuators—convert this wave-induced motion into electricity through turbines or hydraulic systems. Option (a) refers to Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion, which relies on temperature gradients, not waves. Option (b) describes salinity gradient (blue) energy, generated from differences in salt concentration. Option (c) is incorrect because although the Moon’s gravitational pull influences tides, wave energy is wind-driven rather than tide-driven.

#### 3. Question

What is the main source of power in Wave Energy Conversion systems?

• a) Temperature difference between surface and deep water

• b) Salt concentration difference between freshwater and seawater

• c) Gravitational pull from the Moon

• d) Kinetic energy from ocean waves

Solution: D

• Wave Energy Conversion systems primarily harness the kinetic and potential energy of ocean surface waves, which are generated due to wind blowing over the sea surface. As wind transfers energy to water, waves are formed, and their continuous motion carries usable mechanical energy. Wave energy devices—such as oscillating water columns, point absorbers, and attenuators—convert this wave-induced motion into electricity through turbines or hydraulic systems.

• Option (a) refers to Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion, which relies on temperature gradients, not waves.

• Option (b) describes salinity gradient (blue) energy, generated from differences in salt concentration.

• Option (c) is incorrect because although the Moon’s gravitational pull influences tides, wave energy is wind-driven rather than tide-driven.

Solution: D

• Wave Energy Conversion systems primarily harness the kinetic and potential energy of ocean surface waves, which are generated due to wind blowing over the sea surface. As wind transfers energy to water, waves are formed, and their continuous motion carries usable mechanical energy. Wave energy devices—such as oscillating water columns, point absorbers, and attenuators—convert this wave-induced motion into electricity through turbines or hydraulic systems.

• Option (a) refers to Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion, which relies on temperature gradients, not waves.

• Option (b) describes salinity gradient (blue) energy, generated from differences in salt concentration.

• Option (c) is incorrect because although the Moon’s gravitational pull influences tides, wave energy is wind-driven rather than tide-driven.

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Which of the following ocean currents influence the Andaman Sea’s climate and marine ecosystem? a) Humboldt Current b) North Equatorial Current c) Benguela Current d) Agulhas Current Correct Solution: B The Andaman Sea is part of the eastern Indian Ocean and is primarily influenced by currents associated with the North Equatorial Current This current flows westward across the tropical Pacific and Indian Oceans and plays a significant role in transporting warm surface waters toward the Bay of Bengal and adjoining regions, including the Andaman Sea. Its seasonal variability, driven by the monsoon system, affects sea surface temperatures, nutrient distribution, and marine biodiversity in the region. The Humboldt Current and Benguela Current are cold currents located along the western coasts of South America and southern Africa respectively, and have no influence on the Indian Ocean region. The Agulhas Current, though part of the Indian Ocean circulation, flows along the southeast coast of Africa and does not directly affect the Andaman Sea. Incorrect Solution: B The Andaman Sea is part of the eastern Indian Ocean and is primarily influenced by currents associated with the North Equatorial Current This current flows westward across the tropical Pacific and Indian Oceans and plays a significant role in transporting warm surface waters toward the Bay of Bengal and adjoining regions, including the Andaman Sea. Its seasonal variability, driven by the monsoon system, affects sea surface temperatures, nutrient distribution, and marine biodiversity in the region. The Humboldt Current and Benguela Current are cold currents located along the western coasts of South America and southern Africa respectively, and have no influence on the Indian Ocean region. The Agulhas Current, though part of the Indian Ocean circulation, flows along the southeast coast of Africa and does not directly affect the Andaman Sea.

#### 4. Question

Which of the following ocean currents influence the Andaman Sea’s climate and marine ecosystem?

• a) Humboldt Current

• b) North Equatorial Current

• c) Benguela Current

• d) Agulhas Current

Solution: B

• The Andaman Sea is part of the eastern Indian Ocean and is primarily influenced by currents associated with the North Equatorial Current This current flows westward across the tropical Pacific and Indian Oceans and plays a significant role in transporting warm surface waters toward the Bay of Bengal and adjoining regions, including the Andaman Sea. Its seasonal variability, driven by the monsoon system, affects sea surface temperatures, nutrient distribution, and marine biodiversity in the region.

• The Humboldt Current and Benguela Current are cold currents located along the western coasts of South America and southern Africa respectively, and have no influence on the Indian Ocean region. The Agulhas Current, though part of the Indian Ocean circulation, flows along the southeast coast of Africa and does not directly affect the Andaman Sea.

Solution: B

• The Andaman Sea is part of the eastern Indian Ocean and is primarily influenced by currents associated with the North Equatorial Current This current flows westward across the tropical Pacific and Indian Oceans and plays a significant role in transporting warm surface waters toward the Bay of Bengal and adjoining regions, including the Andaman Sea. Its seasonal variability, driven by the monsoon system, affects sea surface temperatures, nutrient distribution, and marine biodiversity in the region.

• The Humboldt Current and Benguela Current are cold currents located along the western coasts of South America and southern Africa respectively, and have no influence on the Indian Ocean region. The Agulhas Current, though part of the Indian Ocean circulation, flows along the southeast coast of Africa and does not directly affect the Andaman Sea.

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements about the role of slag in artificial ground: Slag can mimic natural geological processes by forming sedimentary rock through lithification. The process of slag lithification can sequester carbon dioxide, reducing atmospheric greenhouse gas levels. Slag use in artificial ground contributes to increased soil acidity, hindering plant growth. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 2 and 3 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: C Industrial slag, especially steel and blast furnace slag, can undergo lithification, a process similar to natural sedimentary rock formation, where loose granular material hardens over time due to compaction and cementation. This allows slag-based artificial ground to mimic geological processes seen in nature, making statement 1 correct. Statement 2 is also correct because slag contains calcium- and magnesium-rich minerals that can react with atmospheric carbon dioxide through carbonation, forming stable carbonate minerals. This process effectively locks carbon dioxide into solid form, contributing to long-term carbon sequestration and offering potential climate mitigation benefits. Statement 3 is incorrect because slag is generally alkaline, not acidic. When used in artificial ground or soil conditioning, slag often raises soil pH rather than increasing acidity. In many cases, this alkalinity can actually improve soil conditions, particularly in acidic soils, and may enhance plant growth instead of hindering it. Incorrect Solution: C Industrial slag, especially steel and blast furnace slag, can undergo lithification, a process similar to natural sedimentary rock formation, where loose granular material hardens over time due to compaction and cementation. This allows slag-based artificial ground to mimic geological processes seen in nature, making statement 1 correct. Statement 2 is also correct because slag contains calcium- and magnesium-rich minerals that can react with atmospheric carbon dioxide through carbonation, forming stable carbonate minerals. This process effectively locks carbon dioxide into solid form, contributing to long-term carbon sequestration and offering potential climate mitigation benefits. Statement 3 is incorrect because slag is generally alkaline, not acidic. When used in artificial ground or soil conditioning, slag often raises soil pH rather than increasing acidity. In many cases, this alkalinity can actually improve soil conditions, particularly in acidic soils, and may enhance plant growth instead of hindering it.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements about the role of slag in artificial ground:

• Slag can mimic natural geological processes by forming sedimentary rock through lithification.

• The process of slag lithification can sequester carbon dioxide, reducing atmospheric greenhouse gas levels.

• Slag use in artificial ground contributes to increased soil acidity, hindering plant growth.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

• a) 2 and 3 only

• b) 1 and 3 only

• c) 1 and 2 only

• d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

• Industrial slag, especially steel and blast furnace slag, can undergo lithification, a process similar to natural sedimentary rock formation, where loose granular material hardens over time due to compaction and cementation. This allows slag-based artificial ground to mimic geological processes seen in nature, making statement 1 correct.

• Statement 2 is also correct because slag contains calcium- and magnesium-rich minerals that can react with atmospheric carbon dioxide through carbonation, forming stable carbonate minerals. This process effectively locks carbon dioxide into solid form, contributing to long-term carbon sequestration and offering potential climate mitigation benefits.

• Statement 3 is incorrect because slag is generally alkaline, not acidic. When used in artificial ground or soil conditioning, slag often raises soil pH rather than increasing acidity. In many cases, this alkalinity can actually improve soil conditions, particularly in acidic soils, and may enhance plant growth instead of hindering it.

Solution: C

• Industrial slag, especially steel and blast furnace slag, can undergo lithification, a process similar to natural sedimentary rock formation, where loose granular material hardens over time due to compaction and cementation. This allows slag-based artificial ground to mimic geological processes seen in nature, making statement 1 correct.

• Statement 2 is also correct because slag contains calcium- and magnesium-rich minerals that can react with atmospheric carbon dioxide through carbonation, forming stable carbonate minerals. This process effectively locks carbon dioxide into solid form, contributing to long-term carbon sequestration and offering potential climate mitigation benefits.

• Statement 3 is incorrect because slag is generally alkaline, not acidic. When used in artificial ground or soil conditioning, slag often raises soil pH rather than increasing acidity. In many cases, this alkalinity can actually improve soil conditions, particularly in acidic soils, and may enhance plant growth instead of hindering it.

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