UPSC Editorials Quiz : 28 May 2025

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court’s judgment on the Right to Digital Access in Pragya Prasun & Amar Jain v. Union of India (2025): The Supreme Court declared that digital inclusion is a fundamental right, not merely a policy goal. The judgment exclusively focused on the rights of visually impaired individuals in accessing digital KYC norms. The Court mandated the appointment of digital accessibility nodal officers in relevant government departments. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: b) The Supreme Court’s judgment in Pragya Prasun & Amar Jain v. Union of India (2025) is a landmark decision concerning digital accessibility. Statement 1 is correct as the SC ruled that digital inclusion is a constitutional imperative, moving beyond a discretionary policy matter. This reinterpretation underscores the fundamental nature of digital access in contemporary society. Statement 2 is incorrect because while the case highlighted the plight of blind users and acid attack survivors (e.g., issues with blinking and visual input-based verification), the judgment’s scope is broader, encompassing all citizens, including the disabled and marginalized, to ensure non-discriminatory access to digital public and financial infrastructure. The aim is inclusive revisions for a wider range of PwDs. Statement 3 is correct as the SC directed specific reforms for KYC norms, including the appointment of digital accessibility nodal officers and the introduction of alternative modes of live verification, alongside periodic accessibility audits. This ensures institutional mechanisms for ongoing compliance. Incorrect Solution: b) The Supreme Court’s judgment in Pragya Prasun & Amar Jain v. Union of India (2025) is a landmark decision concerning digital accessibility. Statement 1 is correct as the SC ruled that digital inclusion is a constitutional imperative, moving beyond a discretionary policy matter. This reinterpretation underscores the fundamental nature of digital access in contemporary society. Statement 2 is incorrect because while the case highlighted the plight of blind users and acid attack survivors (e.g., issues with blinking and visual input-based verification), the judgment’s scope is broader, encompassing all citizens, including the disabled and marginalized, to ensure non-discriminatory access to digital public and financial infrastructure. The aim is inclusive revisions for a wider range of PwDs. Statement 3 is correct as the SC directed specific reforms for KYC norms, including the appointment of digital accessibility nodal officers and the introduction of alternative modes of live verification, alongside periodic accessibility audits. This ensures institutional mechanisms for ongoing compliance.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court’s judgment on the Right to Digital Access in Pragya Prasun & Amar Jain v. Union of India (2025):

• The Supreme Court declared that digital inclusion is a fundamental right, not merely a policy goal.

• The judgment exclusively focused on the rights of visually impaired individuals in accessing digital KYC norms.

• The Court mandated the appointment of digital accessibility nodal officers in relevant government departments.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: b)

• The Supreme Court’s judgment in Pragya Prasun & Amar Jain v. Union of India (2025) is a landmark decision concerning digital accessibility.

• Statement 1 is correct as the SC ruled that digital inclusion is a constitutional imperative, moving beyond a discretionary policy matter. This reinterpretation underscores the fundamental nature of digital access in contemporary society.

• Statement 2 is incorrect because while the case highlighted the plight of blind users and acid attack survivors (e.g., issues with blinking and visual input-based verification), the judgment’s scope is broader, encompassing all citizens, including the disabled and marginalized, to ensure non-discriminatory access to digital public and financial infrastructure. The aim is inclusive revisions for a wider range of PwDs.

• Statement 3 is correct as the SC directed specific reforms for KYC norms, including the appointment of digital accessibility nodal officers and the introduction of alternative modes of live verification, alongside periodic accessibility audits. This ensures institutional mechanisms for ongoing compliance.

Solution: b)

• The Supreme Court’s judgment in Pragya Prasun & Amar Jain v. Union of India (2025) is a landmark decision concerning digital accessibility.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Match List-I (Major Group in WPI) with List-II (Example of an Item/Sub-group within it) and List-III (Approximate Weightage in WPI Basket – Base 2011-12) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List-I (Major Group) List-II (Item/Sub-group Example) List-III (Approximate Weightage) A. Primary Articles 1. Basic Metals P. 13.15% B. Fuel & Power 2. Food Articles Q. 64.23% C. Manufactured Products 3. Crude Petroleum R. 22.62% Select the correct answer Code: a) A-1-R, B-3-P, C-2-Q b) A-3-P, B-2-Q, C-1-R c) A-2-Q, B-1-R, C-3-P d) A-2-R, B-3-P, C-1-Q Correct Solution: d) The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) with base year 2011-12 is composed of three major groups, each with specific items and assigned weights: A. Primary Articles: This group includes items like Food Articles (e.g., cereals, vegetables, fruits), Non-Food Articles (e.g., oilseeds, fibres), Minerals, and Crude Petroleum & Natural Gas. The overall weight for Primary Articles is 22.62%. So, A matches with 2 (Food Articles, a major sub-group) and R (22.62%). B. Fuel & Power: This group comprises items like LPG, Petrol, High-Speed Diesel (HSD), and coal. Crude Petroleum is actually categorized under Primary Articles, but “Petrol” or “HSD” or “LPG” are under Fuel & Power. The weight for Fuel & Power is 13.15%. So, B matches with 3 (Crude Petroleum, as an input that significantly influences this sector, or more directly items like Petrol/Diesel which are derivatives) and P (13.15%). C. Manufactured Products: This is the largest group and includes a wide array of goods such as textiles, chemicals, machinery, and Basic Metals. The weight for Manufactured Products is 64.23%. So, C matches with 1 (Basic Metals) and Q (64.23%). Incorrect Solution: d) The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) with base year 2011-12 is composed of three major groups, each with specific items and assigned weights: A. Primary Articles: This group includes items like Food Articles (e.g., cereals, vegetables, fruits), Non-Food Articles (e.g., oilseeds, fibres), Minerals, and Crude Petroleum & Natural Gas. The overall weight for Primary Articles is 22.62%. So, A matches with 2 (Food Articles, a major sub-group) and R (22.62%). B. Fuel & Power: This group comprises items like LPG, Petrol, High-Speed Diesel (HSD), and coal. Crude Petroleum is actually categorized under Primary Articles, but “Petrol” or “HSD” or “LPG” are under Fuel & Power. The weight for Fuel & Power is 13.15%. So, B matches with 3 (Crude Petroleum, as an input that significantly influences this sector, or more directly items like Petrol/Diesel which are derivatives) and P (13.15%). C. Manufactured Products: This is the largest group and includes a wide array of goods such as textiles, chemicals, machinery, and Basic Metals. The weight for Manufactured Products is 64.23%. So, C matches with 1 (Basic Metals) and Q (64.23%).

#### 2. Question

Match List-I (Major Group in WPI) with List-II (Example of an Item/Sub-group within it) and List-III (Approximate Weightage in WPI Basket – Base 2011-12) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I (Major Group) | List-II (Item/Sub-group Example) | List-III (Approximate Weightage)

A. Primary Articles | 1. Basic Metals | P. 13.15%

B. Fuel & Power | 2. Food Articles | Q. 64.23%

C. Manufactured Products | 3. Crude Petroleum | R. 22.62%

Select the correct answer Code:

• a) A-1-R, B-3-P, C-2-Q

• b) A-3-P, B-2-Q, C-1-R

• c) A-2-Q, B-1-R, C-3-P

• d) A-2-R, B-3-P, C-1-Q

Solution: d)

The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) with base year 2011-12 is composed of three major groups, each with specific items and assigned weights:

• A. Primary Articles: This group includes items like Food Articles (e.g., cereals, vegetables, fruits), Non-Food Articles (e.g., oilseeds, fibres), Minerals, and Crude Petroleum & Natural Gas. The overall weight for Primary Articles is 22.62%. So, A matches with 2 (Food Articles, a major sub-group) and R (22.62%).

• B. Fuel & Power: This group comprises items like LPG, Petrol, High-Speed Diesel (HSD), and coal. Crude Petroleum is actually categorized under Primary Articles, but “Petrol” or “HSD” or “LPG” are under Fuel & Power. The weight for Fuel & Power is 13.15%. So, B matches with 3 (Crude Petroleum, as an input that significantly influences this sector, or more directly items like Petrol/Diesel which are derivatives) and P (13.15%).

• C. Manufactured Products: This is the largest group and includes a wide array of goods such as textiles, chemicals, machinery, and Basic Metals. The weight for Manufactured Products is 64.23%. So, C matches with 1 (Basic Metals) and Q (64.23%).

Solution: d)

The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) with base year 2011-12 is composed of three major groups, each with specific items and assigned weights:

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Match List-I (Power/Function of the Chief Justice of India) with List-II (Relevant Constitutional Article/Description) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List-I (Power/Function of CJI) List-II (Relevant Constitutional Article/Description) A. Appointment of Officers of Supreme Court 1. Article 143 B. Advisory Jurisdiction 2. Master of the Roster C. Allocation of cases to Benches 3. Article 124(2) D. Appointment of CJI by President 4. Article 146 Select the correct answer Code: a) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3 b) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2 c) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 d) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 Correct Solution: c) Appointment of Officers of Supreme Court: The CJI has administrative authority over the Supreme Court, which includes the appointment of its officers and servants. This is governed by Article 146 of the Constitution. This matches with description 4. Advisory Jurisdiction: The Supreme Court, headed by the CJI, has advisory jurisdiction to give its opinion on any question of law or fact of public importance referred to it by the President. This is provided under Article 143 of the Constitution. This matches with description 1. Allocation of cases to Benches: The CJI is the ‘Master of the Roster’ and has the exclusive power to constitute benches and allocate cases. This matches with description 2. Appointment of CJI by President: The Chief Justice of India is appointed by the President of India under the provisions of Article 124(2) of the Constitution. This matches with description 3. Incorrect Solution: c) Appointment of Officers of Supreme Court: The CJI has administrative authority over the Supreme Court, which includes the appointment of its officers and servants. This is governed by Article 146 of the Constitution. This matches with description 4. Advisory Jurisdiction: The Supreme Court, headed by the CJI, has advisory jurisdiction to give its opinion on any question of law or fact of public importance referred to it by the President. This is provided under Article 143 of the Constitution. This matches with description 1. Allocation of cases to Benches: The CJI is the ‘Master of the Roster’ and has the exclusive power to constitute benches and allocate cases. This matches with description 2. Appointment of CJI by President: The Chief Justice of India is appointed by the President of India under the provisions of Article 124(2) of the Constitution. This matches with description 3.

#### 3. Question

Match List-I (Power/Function of the Chief Justice of India) with List-II (Relevant Constitutional Article/Description) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I (Power/Function of CJI) | List-II (Relevant Constitutional Article/Description)

A. Appointment of Officers of Supreme Court | 1. Article 143

B. Advisory Jurisdiction | 2. Master of the Roster

C. Allocation of cases to Benches | 3. Article 124(2)

D. Appointment of CJI by President | 4. Article 146

Select the correct answer Code:

• a) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

• b) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2

• c) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

• d) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

Solution: c)

• Appointment of Officers of Supreme Court: The CJI has administrative authority over the Supreme Court, which includes the appointment of its officers and servants. This is governed by Article 146 of the Constitution. This matches with description 4.

• Advisory Jurisdiction: The Supreme Court, headed by the CJI, has advisory jurisdiction to give its opinion on any question of law or fact of public importance referred to it by the President. This is provided under Article 143 of the Constitution. This matches with description 1.

• Allocation of cases to Benches: The CJI is the ‘Master of the Roster’ and has the exclusive power to constitute benches and allocate cases. This matches with description 2.

• Appointment of CJI by President: The Chief Justice of India is appointed by the President of India under the provisions of Article 124(2) of the Constitution. This matches with description 3.

Solution: c)

• Allocation of cases to Benches: The CJI is the ‘Master of the Roster’ and has the exclusive power to constitute benches and allocate cases. This matches with description 2.

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements regarding Arunachal Pradesh and its geopolitical context: China’s claim over Arunachal Pradesh, which it refers to as “Zangnan,” is primarily based on the argument that the 1914 Simla Convention was signed under duress by Tibetan representatives. The McMahon Line, established at the Simla Convention, is accepted by India as the de facto boundary but is not recognized by China, which considers it illegal. The Dafla, Miri, Abor, and Mishmi hills are major mountain ranges in Arunachal Pradesh that run parallel to the Brahmaputra river after it enters India. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution: c) Statement 1 is incorrect. China’s primary objection to the Simla Convention and the McMahon Line is that Tibet did not have the sovereign authority to enter into such an agreement independently, and that China itself never ratified the convention’s delineation of the Indo-Tibetan boundary. The argument is not primarily about Tibetan representatives signing under duress, but about the legitimacy of Tibet’s treaty-making power and China’s non-acceptance of the line. Statement 2 is correct. India asserts that Arunachal Pradesh is an integral part of the country and considers the McMahon Line, agreed upon during the 1914 Simla Convention, as the legitimate international boundary, although it is the de facto boundary in practice. China, however, rejects the McMahon Line as illegal and void, claiming approximately 90,000 sq. km of Arunachal Pradesh as “Zangnan” or South Tibet. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Dafla, Miri, Abor, and Mishmi Hills are indeed prominent hill ranges in Arunachal Pradesh, forming part of the Eastern Himalayas. However, these ranges generally run in an east-west direction as outliers of the Great Himalayan range before the Himalayas take a sharp southward turn at the syntaxial bend. They are largely perpendicular to the main course of the Siang (Brahmaputra) river as it flows southwards through these hills, rather than running parallel to it after its entry into India. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement 1 is incorrect. China’s primary objection to the Simla Convention and the McMahon Line is that Tibet did not have the sovereign authority to enter into such an agreement independently, and that China itself never ratified the convention’s delineation of the Indo-Tibetan boundary. The argument is not primarily about Tibetan representatives signing under duress, but about the legitimacy of Tibet’s treaty-making power and China’s non-acceptance of the line. Statement 2 is correct. India asserts that Arunachal Pradesh is an integral part of the country and considers the McMahon Line, agreed upon during the 1914 Simla Convention, as the legitimate international boundary, although it is the de facto boundary in practice. China, however, rejects the McMahon Line as illegal and void, claiming approximately 90,000 sq. km of Arunachal Pradesh as “Zangnan” or South Tibet. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Dafla, Miri, Abor, and Mishmi Hills are indeed prominent hill ranges in Arunachal Pradesh, forming part of the Eastern Himalayas. However, these ranges generally run in an east-west direction as outliers of the Great Himalayan range before the Himalayas take a sharp southward turn at the syntaxial bend. They are largely perpendicular to the main course of the Siang (Brahmaputra) river as it flows southwards through these hills, rather than running parallel to it after its entry into India.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Arunachal Pradesh and its geopolitical context:

• China’s claim over Arunachal Pradesh, which it refers to as “Zangnan,” is primarily based on the argument that the 1914 Simla Convention was signed under duress by Tibetan representatives.

• The McMahon Line, established at the Simla Convention, is accepted by India as the de facto boundary but is not recognized by China, which considers it illegal.

• The Dafla, Miri, Abor, and Mishmi hills are major mountain ranges in Arunachal Pradesh that run parallel to the Brahmaputra river after it enters India.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

• a) 1 and 2 only

• b) 2 and 3 only

• c) 1 and 3 only

• d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. China’s primary objection to the Simla Convention and the McMahon Line is that Tibet did not have the sovereign authority to enter into such an agreement independently, and that China itself never ratified the convention’s delineation of the Indo-Tibetan boundary. The argument is not primarily about Tibetan representatives signing under duress, but about the legitimacy of Tibet’s treaty-making power and China’s non-acceptance of the line.

• Statement 2 is correct. India asserts that Arunachal Pradesh is an integral part of the country and considers the McMahon Line, agreed upon during the 1914 Simla Convention, as the legitimate international boundary, although it is the de facto boundary in practice. China, however, rejects the McMahon Line as illegal and void, claiming approximately 90,000 sq. km of Arunachal Pradesh as “Zangnan” or South Tibet.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The Dafla, Miri, Abor, and Mishmi Hills are indeed prominent hill ranges in Arunachal Pradesh, forming part of the Eastern Himalayas. However, these ranges generally run in an east-west direction as outliers of the Great Himalayan range before the Himalayas take a sharp southward turn at the syntaxial bend. They are largely perpendicular to the main course of the Siang (Brahmaputra) river as it flows southwards through these hills, rather than running parallel to it after its entry into India.

Solution: c)

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following key features associated with Exercise Teesta Prahar: Focus on multi-branch coordination for integrated battlefield synergy. Deployment of next-generation weapon systems and modern military technologies. Training exclusively for high-altitude mountain warfare. Reinforcement of interoperability after India’s successful joint Army-Air Force strike (Operation Sindoor). How many of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: c) Statement 1 is correct. A key feature of Exercise Teesta Prahar is its focus on jointness, which entails multi-branch coordination among various arms and services like Infantry, Mechanised Infantry, Artillery, Armoured Corps, Para Special Forces, Army Aviation, and Engineers and Signals for integrated battlefield synergy. Statement 2 is correct. The exercise aims to integrate technology in warfare, involving the deployment of next-gen weapon systems and modern military technologies, including advanced surveillance, communication, and weapon systems. Statement 3 is incorrect. While it involves all-terrain combat, Exercise Teesta Prahar specifically focuses on challenging riverine environments in North Bengal, not exclusively high-altitude mountain warfare. The Teesta Field Firing Range is characterized by its riverine terrain. Statement 4 is correct. The exercise reinforces interoperability after India’s successful joint Army-Air Force strike, referred to as Post-Operation Sindoor. This indicates a strategic linkage to recent operational experiences and the need for enhanced joint capabilities. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement 1 is correct. A key feature of Exercise Teesta Prahar is its focus on jointness, which entails multi-branch coordination among various arms and services like Infantry, Mechanised Infantry, Artillery, Armoured Corps, Para Special Forces, Army Aviation, and Engineers and Signals for integrated battlefield synergy. Statement 2 is correct. The exercise aims to integrate technology in warfare, involving the deployment of next-gen weapon systems and modern military technologies, including advanced surveillance, communication, and weapon systems. Statement 3 is incorrect. While it involves all-terrain combat, Exercise Teesta Prahar specifically focuses on challenging riverine environments in North Bengal, not exclusively high-altitude mountain warfare. The Teesta Field Firing Range is characterized by its riverine terrain. Statement 4 is correct. The exercise reinforces interoperability after India’s successful joint Army-Air Force strike, referred to as Post-Operation Sindoor. This indicates a strategic linkage to recent operational experiences and the need for enhanced joint capabilities.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following key features associated with Exercise Teesta Prahar:

• Focus on multi-branch coordination for integrated battlefield synergy.

• Deployment of next-generation weapon systems and modern military technologies.

• Training exclusively for high-altitude mountain warfare.

• Reinforcement of interoperability after India’s successful joint Army-Air Force strike (Operation Sindoor).

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: c)

• Statement 1 is correct. A key feature of Exercise Teesta Prahar is its focus on jointness, which entails multi-branch coordination among various arms and services like Infantry, Mechanised Infantry, Artillery, Armoured Corps, Para Special Forces, Army Aviation, and Engineers and Signals for integrated battlefield synergy.

• Statement 2 is correct. The exercise aims to integrate technology in warfare, involving the deployment of next-gen weapon systems and modern military technologies, including advanced surveillance, communication, and weapon systems.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. While it involves all-terrain combat, Exercise Teesta Prahar specifically focuses on challenging riverine environments in North Bengal, not exclusively high-altitude mountain warfare. The Teesta Field Firing Range is characterized by its riverine terrain.

• Statement 4 is correct. The exercise reinforces interoperability after India’s successful joint Army-Air Force strike, referred to as Post-Operation Sindoor. This indicates a strategic linkage to recent operational experiences and the need for enhanced joint capabilities.

Solution: c)

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