UPSC Editorials Quiz : 28 January 2026

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question With reference to the removal of a judge of the High Court in India, as mentioned in the Constitution of India, consider the following statements: A High Court judge can be removed only on the grounds of “proved misbehaviour” or “incapacity.” The procedure for the removal of a High Court judge is different from that of a Supreme Court judge. The Constitution uses the term “impeachment” for the removal of judges. A removal motion in the Rajya Sabha must be signed by at least 100 members. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is the only correct statement. According to Article 217(1)(b), a High Court judge can be removed from office on the grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. These are the only two grounds mentioned in the Constitution. Statement 2 is incorrect; Article 218 explicitly states that the provisions for the removal of a Supreme Court judge (found in Article 124(4)) apply to High Court judges as well. The process is identical. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Constitution uses the word “impeachment” only for the President (Article 61). For judges, it refers to the process as “removal”. Statement 4 is incorrect because a motion in the Rajya Sabha requires only 50 signatures, while the Lok Sabha requires 100. The process is designed to be exceptionally difficult to protect judicial independence. It involves an inquiry committee comprising a Supreme Court judge, a High Court Chief Justice, and a distinguished jurist. If the committee finds the judge guilty, the motion must then be passed by a special majority in each House (majority of total membership AND 2/3rd of those present and voting) before the President issues the final order. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is the only correct statement. According to Article 217(1)(b), a High Court judge can be removed from office on the grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. These are the only two grounds mentioned in the Constitution. Statement 2 is incorrect; Article 218 explicitly states that the provisions for the removal of a Supreme Court judge (found in Article 124(4)) apply to High Court judges as well. The process is identical. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Constitution uses the word “impeachment” only for the President (Article 61). For judges, it refers to the process as “removal”. Statement 4 is incorrect because a motion in the Rajya Sabha requires only 50 signatures, while the Lok Sabha requires 100. The process is designed to be exceptionally difficult to protect judicial independence. It involves an inquiry committee comprising a Supreme Court judge, a High Court Chief Justice, and a distinguished jurist. If the committee finds the judge guilty, the motion must then be passed by a special majority in each House (majority of total membership AND 2/3rd of those present and voting) before the President issues the final order.

#### 1. Question

With reference to the removal of a judge of the High Court in India, as mentioned in the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

• A High Court judge can be removed only on the grounds of “proved misbehaviour” or “incapacity.”

• The procedure for the removal of a High Court judge is different from that of a Supreme Court judge.

• The Constitution uses the term “impeachment” for the removal of judges.

• A removal motion in the Rajya Sabha must be signed by at least 100 members.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is the only correct statement. According to Article 217(1)(b), a High Court judge can be removed from office on the grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. These are the only two grounds mentioned in the Constitution.

• Statement 2 is incorrect; Article 218 explicitly states that the provisions for the removal of a Supreme Court judge (found in Article 124(4)) apply to High Court judges as well. The process is identical.

• Statement 3 is incorrect; the Constitution uses the word “impeachment” only for the President (Article 61). For judges, it refers to the process as “removal”.

• Statement 4 is incorrect because a motion in the Rajya Sabha requires only 50 signatures, while the Lok Sabha requires 100. The process is designed to be exceptionally difficult to protect judicial independence. It involves an inquiry committee comprising a Supreme Court judge, a High Court Chief Justice, and a distinguished jurist. If the committee finds the judge guilty, the motion must then be passed by a special majority in each House (majority of total membership AND 2/3rd of those present and voting) before the President issues the final order.

Solution: A

• Statement 3 is incorrect; the Constitution uses the word “impeachment” only for the President (Article 61). For judges, it refers to the process as “removal”.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements regarding the “Gyan Bharatam Mission” (GBM): It is a Central Sector Scheme aimed at preserving, digitizing, and disseminating India’s vast manuscript heritage. The mission targets the digitization of over one crore manuscripts through a nationwide network of Manuscript Resource Centres (MRCs). The Mission is exclusively funded by international grants from organizations like UNESCO to ensure global accessibility. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correctas the Gyan Bharatam Mission is a Central Sector Scheme approved for the period 2024–31. It integrates tradition with technology to protect India’s civilizational knowledge traditions. Statement 2 is correctbecause the mission aims to identify and digitize over one crore manuscripts—one of the largest such efforts globally—using a network of 31 partner institutions categorized as Cluster and Independent Centres. Statement 3 is incorrectbecause the GBM is funded by the Government of India and is a national movement aimed at achieving the vision of a Viksit Bharat by 2047. While it seeks global accessibility through a National Digital Repository, its primary impetus and funding are domestic. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correctas the Gyan Bharatam Mission is a Central Sector Scheme approved for the period 2024–31. It integrates tradition with technology to protect India’s civilizational knowledge traditions. Statement 2 is correctbecause the mission aims to identify and digitize over one crore manuscripts—one of the largest such efforts globally—using a network of 31 partner institutions categorized as Cluster and Independent Centres. Statement 3 is incorrectbecause the GBM is funded by the Government of India and is a national movement aimed at achieving the vision of a Viksit Bharat by 2047. While it seeks global accessibility through a National Digital Repository, its primary impetus and funding are domestic.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the “Gyan Bharatam Mission” (GBM):

• It is a Central Sector Scheme aimed at preserving, digitizing, and disseminating India’s vast manuscript heritage.

• The mission targets the digitization of over one crore manuscripts through a nationwide network of Manuscript Resource Centres (MRCs).

• The Mission is exclusively funded by international grants from organizations like UNESCO to ensure global accessibility.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correctas the Gyan Bharatam Mission is a Central Sector Scheme approved for the period 2024–31. It integrates tradition with technology to protect India’s civilizational knowledge traditions.

• Statement 2 is correctbecause the mission aims to identify and digitize over one crore manuscripts—one of the largest such efforts globally—using a network of 31 partner institutions categorized as Cluster and Independent Centres.

• Statement 3 is incorrectbecause the GBM is funded by the Government of India and is a national movement aimed at achieving the vision of a Viksit Bharat by 2047. While it seeks global accessibility through a National Digital Repository, its primary impetus and funding are domestic.

Solution: B

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question The concept of ‘Augmented Intelligence’ discussed at the Global Fintech Fest 2025 refers to: (a) Replacing human decision-making entirely with AI algorithms in stock trading. (b) Combining AI capabilities with human insight to enhance financial decision-making. (c) Using Virtual Reality (VR) to conduct bank branch visits. (d) The use of biologically enhanced microchips in credit cards. Correct Solution: B The concept of Augmented Intelligence, as discussed at the Global Fintech Fest 2025, emphasizes a collaborative approach between humans and artificial intelligence rather than full automation. Unlike artificial intelligence models that aim to replace human judgment, augmented intelligence is designed to support, enhance, and complement human decision-making. In the financial sector, this means AI systems process vast datasets, identify patterns, flag risks, and generate predictive insights, while humans apply contextual understanding, ethical reasoning, regulatory awareness, and strategic judgment. This approach is particularly relevant in fintech, where decisions often involve uncertainty, systemic risk, consumer protection, and regulatory compliance—areas where purely algorithmic decisions may be inadequate or risky. Augmented intelligence allows financial professionals to make faster, more informed, and more accountable decisions by leveraging machine efficiency alongside human discretion. Incorrect Solution: B The concept of Augmented Intelligence, as discussed at the Global Fintech Fest 2025, emphasizes a collaborative approach between humans and artificial intelligence rather than full automation. Unlike artificial intelligence models that aim to replace human judgment, augmented intelligence is designed to support, enhance, and complement human decision-making. In the financial sector, this means AI systems process vast datasets, identify patterns, flag risks, and generate predictive insights, while humans apply contextual understanding, ethical reasoning, regulatory awareness, and strategic judgment. This approach is particularly relevant in fintech, where decisions often involve uncertainty, systemic risk, consumer protection, and regulatory compliance—areas where purely algorithmic decisions may be inadequate or risky. Augmented intelligence allows financial professionals to make faster, more informed, and more accountable decisions by leveraging machine efficiency alongside human discretion.

#### 3. Question

The concept of ‘Augmented Intelligence’ discussed at the Global Fintech Fest 2025 refers to:

• (a) Replacing human decision-making entirely with AI algorithms in stock trading.

• (b) Combining AI capabilities with human insight to enhance financial decision-making.

• (c) Using Virtual Reality (VR) to conduct bank branch visits.

• (d) The use of biologically enhanced microchips in credit cards.

Solution: B

• The concept of Augmented Intelligence, as discussed at the Global Fintech Fest 2025, emphasizes a collaborative approach between humans and artificial intelligence rather than full automation. Unlike artificial intelligence models that aim to replace human judgment, augmented intelligence is designed to support, enhance, and complement human decision-making.

• In the financial sector, this means AI systems process vast datasets, identify patterns, flag risks, and generate predictive insights, while humans apply contextual understanding, ethical reasoning, regulatory awareness, and strategic judgment.

• This approach is particularly relevant in fintech, where decisions often involve uncertainty, systemic risk, consumer protection, and regulatory compliance—areas where purely algorithmic decisions may be inadequate or risky. Augmented intelligence allows financial professionals to make faster, more informed, and more accountable decisions by leveraging machine efficiency alongside human discretion.

Solution: B

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question The bacterium Bordetella holmesii was recently in the news. Which of the following statements best explains the public health concern associated with it? (a) It is a multi-drug resistant superbug found in hospital ICUs that causes fatal sepsis. (b) It causes symptoms indistinguishable from Whooping Cough (Pertussis) and is often misdiagnosed, complicating surveillance. (c) It is a zoonotic pathogen transmitted from cattle to humans, causing severe gastrointestinal distress. (d) It is a novel bio-indicator species used to detect heavy metal contamination in groundwater. Correct Solution: B Bordetella holmesii has emerged as a public health concern primarily because of its close clinical resemblance to Bordetella pertussis, the bacterium responsible for whooping cough (pertussis). Infected individuals often present with prolonged coughing illness, sometimes accompanied by paroxysms similar to classical pertussis, making it extremely difficult to distinguish between the two based on symptoms alone. This similarity leads to frequent misdiagnosis, especially when routine diagnostic tests are designed to detect pertussis and may not reliably identify B. holmesii. As a result, cases caused by B. holmesii can be incorrectly recorded as pertussis, distorting disease surveillance data and potentially misleading public health responses, including vaccination impact assessments. Although holmesii can occasionally cause invasive infections in immunocompromised individuals, its major concern lies in diagnostic ambiguity rather than drug resistance, zoonotic transmission, or environmental monitoring. This misclassification challenge complicates outbreak investigations, burden estimation, and policy decisions related to respiratory disease control. Incorrect Solution: B Bordetella holmesii has emerged as a public health concern primarily because of its close clinical resemblance to Bordetella pertussis, the bacterium responsible for whooping cough (pertussis). Infected individuals often present with prolonged coughing illness, sometimes accompanied by paroxysms similar to classical pertussis, making it extremely difficult to distinguish between the two based on symptoms alone. This similarity leads to frequent misdiagnosis, especially when routine diagnostic tests are designed to detect pertussis and may not reliably identify B. holmesii. As a result, cases caused by B. holmesii can be incorrectly recorded as pertussis, distorting disease surveillance data and potentially misleading public health responses, including vaccination impact assessments. Although holmesii can occasionally cause invasive infections in immunocompromised individuals, its major concern lies in diagnostic ambiguity rather than drug resistance, zoonotic transmission, or environmental monitoring. This misclassification challenge complicates outbreak investigations, burden estimation, and policy decisions related to respiratory disease control.

#### 4. Question

The bacterium Bordetella holmesii was recently in the news. Which of the following statements best explains the public health concern associated with it?

• (a) It is a multi-drug resistant superbug found in hospital ICUs that causes fatal sepsis.

• (b) It causes symptoms indistinguishable from Whooping Cough (Pertussis) and is often misdiagnosed, complicating surveillance.

• (c) It is a zoonotic pathogen transmitted from cattle to humans, causing severe gastrointestinal distress.

• (d) It is a novel bio-indicator species used to detect heavy metal contamination in groundwater.

Solution: B

• Bordetella holmesii has emerged as a public health concern primarily because of its close clinical resemblance to Bordetella pertussis, the bacterium responsible for whooping cough (pertussis). Infected individuals often present with prolonged coughing illness, sometimes accompanied by paroxysms similar to classical pertussis, making it extremely difficult to distinguish between the two based on symptoms alone.

• This similarity leads to frequent misdiagnosis, especially when routine diagnostic tests are designed to detect pertussis and may not reliably identify B. holmesii. As a result, cases caused by B. holmesii can be incorrectly recorded as pertussis, distorting disease surveillance data and potentially misleading public health responses, including vaccination impact assessments.

• Although holmesii can occasionally cause invasive infections in immunocompromised individuals, its major concern lies in diagnostic ambiguity rather than drug resistance, zoonotic transmission, or environmental monitoring. This misclassification challenge complicates outbreak investigations, burden estimation, and policy decisions related to respiratory disease control.

Solution: B

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question With reference to the ‘PM Dhan Dhaanya Krishi Yojana’, the term ‘One Nation, One Agriculture, One Team’ implies: (a) Centralizing all agricultural marketing under a single APMC act. (b) Creating a single national political party for farmers. (c) Synchronizing the efforts of Central and State governments to bridge productivity gaps and promote crop diversification. (d) Mandating a single crop type for every district to maximize export potential. Correct Solution: C The phrase “One Nation, One Agriculture, One Team” under the PM Dhan Dhaanya Krishi Yojana does not imply centralisation of agriculture into a single law, institution, or crop pattern. Instead, it reflects a cooperative federal approach to agricultural transformation. Indian agriculture is marked by wide inter-state and intra-district productivity gaps, differences in agro-climatic conditions, cropping intensity, irrigation access, and institutional capacity. Addressing these challenges cannot be done by the Union or States acting in isolation. The slogan emphasizes synchronised action—where Central ministries, State governments, line departments, research institutions, extension machinery, and local administrations function as a single coordinated team. The focus is on bridging yield gaps, encouraging crop diversification suited to local ecology, improving input efficiency, and aligning schemes related to irrigation, seeds, credit, technology, and market access. It also reinforces outcome-based planning at the district level rather than imposing uniform solutions. Incorrect Solution: C The phrase “One Nation, One Agriculture, One Team” under the PM Dhan Dhaanya Krishi Yojana does not imply centralisation of agriculture into a single law, institution, or crop pattern. Instead, it reflects a cooperative federal approach to agricultural transformation. Indian agriculture is marked by wide inter-state and intra-district productivity gaps, differences in agro-climatic conditions, cropping intensity, irrigation access, and institutional capacity. Addressing these challenges cannot be done by the Union or States acting in isolation. The slogan emphasizes synchronised action—where Central ministries, State governments, line departments, research institutions, extension machinery, and local administrations function as a single coordinated team. The focus is on bridging yield gaps, encouraging crop diversification suited to local ecology, improving input efficiency, and aligning schemes related to irrigation, seeds, credit, technology, and market access. It also reinforces outcome-based planning at the district level rather than imposing uniform solutions.

#### 5. Question

With reference to the ‘PM Dhan Dhaanya Krishi Yojana’, the term ‘One Nation, One Agriculture, One Team’ implies:

• (a) Centralizing all agricultural marketing under a single APMC act.

• (b) Creating a single national political party for farmers.

• (c) Synchronizing the efforts of Central and State governments to bridge productivity gaps and promote crop diversification.

• (d) Mandating a single crop type for every district to maximize export potential.

Solution: C

• The phrase “One Nation, One Agriculture, One Team” under the PM Dhan Dhaanya Krishi Yojana does not imply centralisation of agriculture into a single law, institution, or crop pattern. Instead, it reflects a cooperative federal approach to agricultural transformation. Indian agriculture is marked by wide inter-state and intra-district productivity gaps, differences in agro-climatic conditions, cropping intensity, irrigation access, and institutional capacity. Addressing these challenges cannot be done by the Union or States acting in isolation.

• The slogan emphasizes synchronised action—where Central ministries, State governments, line departments, research institutions, extension machinery, and local administrations function as a single coordinated team. The focus is on bridging yield gaps, encouraging crop diversification suited to local ecology, improving input efficiency, and aligning schemes related to irrigation, seeds, credit, technology, and market access. It also reinforces outcome-based planning at the district level rather than imposing uniform solutions.

Solution: C

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