UPSC Editorials Quiz : 28 August 2025

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Which of the following statements is correct in respect of the Ninth Schedule? (a) The Ninth Schedule was introduced to provide a mechanism for the central government to legislate on state subjects. (b) The "basic structure" doctrine, as laid down in the Kesavananda Bharati case, has no bearing on the laws placed in the Ninth Schedule. (c) The number of laws in the Ninth Schedule has remained static since its inception. (d) The primary objective of the Ninth Schedule was to facilitate agrarian reforms and the abolition of the zamindari system. Correct Solution: D The Ninth Schedule was introduced with the primary objective of protecting laws related to agrarian reforms and the abolition of the zamindari system from being challenged in courts. At the time of the First Amendment, several state governments were facing legal hurdles in implementing land reform legislation, and the Ninth Schedule was seen as a way to overcome these challenges. The initial list of 13 laws in the schedule predominantly dealt with these issues. The Ninth Schedule is not a mechanism for the central government to legislate on state subjects. The “basic structure” doctrine is directly relevant to the Ninth Schedule, as established in the R. Coelho case. The number of laws in the Ninth Schedule has grown significantly over the years. Incorrect Solution: D The Ninth Schedule was introduced with the primary objective of protecting laws related to agrarian reforms and the abolition of the zamindari system from being challenged in courts. At the time of the First Amendment, several state governments were facing legal hurdles in implementing land reform legislation, and the Ninth Schedule was seen as a way to overcome these challenges. The initial list of 13 laws in the schedule predominantly dealt with these issues. The Ninth Schedule is not a mechanism for the central government to legislate on state subjects. The “basic structure” doctrine is directly relevant to the Ninth Schedule, as established in the R. Coelho case. The number of laws in the Ninth Schedule has grown significantly over the years.

#### 1. Question

Which of the following statements is correct in respect of the Ninth Schedule?

• (a) The Ninth Schedule was introduced to provide a mechanism for the central government to legislate on state subjects.

• (b) The "basic structure" doctrine, as laid down in the Kesavananda Bharati case, has no bearing on the laws placed in the Ninth Schedule.

• (c) The number of laws in the Ninth Schedule has remained static since its inception.

• (d) The primary objective of the Ninth Schedule was to facilitate agrarian reforms and the abolition of the zamindari system.

Solution: D

• The Ninth Schedule was introduced with the primary objective of protecting laws related to agrarian reforms and the abolition of the zamindari system from being challenged in courts.

• At the time of the First Amendment, several state governments were facing legal hurdles in implementing land reform legislation, and the Ninth Schedule was seen as a way to overcome these challenges. The initial list of 13 laws in the schedule predominantly dealt with these issues.

• The Ninth Schedule is not a mechanism for the central government to legislate on state subjects. The “basic structure” doctrine is directly relevant to the Ninth Schedule, as established in the R. Coelho case. The number of laws in the Ninth Schedule has grown significantly over the years.

Solution: D

• The Ninth Schedule was introduced with the primary objective of protecting laws related to agrarian reforms and the abolition of the zamindari system from being challenged in courts.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements about notable Bengali women revolutionaries: Begum Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain used literature, exemplified by her work Sultana’s Dream, as a primary tool for social reform and advocating for women’s education. Kalpana Datta was arrested for her participation in the armed attack on the European Club at Chittagong. Bina Das defied orthodoxy by wearing khadi and writing about banned books in her examinations even before her attempt on the Governor’s life. Matangini Hazra was associated with the Jugantar revolutionary group and was known for smuggling arms. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. Begum Rokeya was a pioneering social reformer whose primary weapons were her pen and her educational initiatives. Her satirical feminist utopia, Sultana’s Dream, and her relentless campaign for the Sakhawat Memorial Girls’ School showcase her focus on using literature and education to challenge patriarchy. Statement 2 is incorrect. Kalpana Datta was a key member of Surya Sen’s group and participated in the Chittagong Armoury Raid (1930). The attack on the European Club (1932) was led by Pritilata Waddedar. Statement 3 is correct. Bina Das’s revolutionary zeal was evident before her famous assassination attempt. Her earlier acts of defiance, such as wearing khadi (a symbol of Gandhian nationalism) and using her university examinations as a platform to write about banned revolutionary literature, demonstrated her intellectual and political commitment. Statement 4 is incorrect. Matangini Hazra, known as “Gandhi Buri,” was a Gandhian and participated in the Quit India Movement. She represents grassroots, popular resistance. The activities of smuggling arms are associated with revolutionaries from groups like Jugantar, such as Kamala Das Gupta, not Matangini Hazra. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. Begum Rokeya was a pioneering social reformer whose primary weapons were her pen and her educational initiatives. Her satirical feminist utopia, Sultana’s Dream, and her relentless campaign for the Sakhawat Memorial Girls’ School showcase her focus on using literature and education to challenge patriarchy. Statement 2 is incorrect. Kalpana Datta was a key member of Surya Sen’s group and participated in the Chittagong Armoury Raid (1930). The attack on the European Club (1932) was led by Pritilata Waddedar. Statement 3 is correct. Bina Das’s revolutionary zeal was evident before her famous assassination attempt. Her earlier acts of defiance, such as wearing khadi (a symbol of Gandhian nationalism) and using her university examinations as a platform to write about banned revolutionary literature, demonstrated her intellectual and political commitment. Statement 4 is incorrect. Matangini Hazra, known as “Gandhi Buri,” was a Gandhian and participated in the Quit India Movement. She represents grassroots, popular resistance. The activities of smuggling arms are associated with revolutionaries from groups like Jugantar, such as Kamala Das Gupta, not Matangini Hazra.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements about notable Bengali women revolutionaries:

• Begum Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain used literature, exemplified by her work Sultana’s Dream, as a primary tool for social reform and advocating for women’s education.

• Kalpana Datta was arrested for her participation in the armed attack on the European Club at Chittagong.

• Bina Das defied orthodoxy by wearing khadi and writing about banned books in her examinations even before her attempt on the Governor’s life.

• Matangini Hazra was associated with the Jugantar revolutionary group and was known for smuggling arms.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. Begum Rokeya was a pioneering social reformer whose primary weapons were her pen and her educational initiatives. Her satirical feminist utopia, Sultana’s Dream, and her relentless campaign for the Sakhawat Memorial Girls’ School showcase her focus on using literature and education to challenge patriarchy.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. Kalpana Datta was a key member of Surya Sen’s group and participated in the Chittagong Armoury Raid (1930). The attack on the European Club (1932) was led by Pritilata Waddedar.

• Statement 3 is correct. Bina Das’s revolutionary zeal was evident before her famous assassination attempt. Her earlier acts of defiance, such as wearing khadi (a symbol of Gandhian nationalism) and using her university examinations as a platform to write about banned revolutionary literature, demonstrated her intellectual and political commitment.

• Statement 4 is incorrect. Matangini Hazra, known as “Gandhi Buri,” was a Gandhian and participated in the Quit India Movement. She represents grassroots, popular resistance. The activities of smuggling arms are associated with revolutionaries from groups like Jugantar, such as Kamala Das Gupta, not Matangini Hazra.

Solution: B

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements regarding Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF). Statement-I: The adoption of Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF) in India faces significant challenges despite its environmental benefits. Statement-II: SAF is currently more cost-effective and easier to produce on a large scale than conventional jet fuel. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: C Statement-I is correct. The adoption of SAF in India faces several challenges, including its high cost, the difficulty in collecting feedstock from dispersed sources, and resistance from airlines due to fears of increased fuel costs. These hurdles need to be addressed for the widespread adoption of SAF. Statement-II is incorrect. SAF is currently nearly three times costlier than conventional jet fuel. The production of SAF also faces challenges in scaling up to meet the demands of the aviation industry. The high cost and production challenges are major impediments to its adoption, not facilitators. Incorrect Solution: C Statement-I is correct. The adoption of SAF in India faces several challenges, including its high cost, the difficulty in collecting feedstock from dispersed sources, and resistance from airlines due to fears of increased fuel costs. These hurdles need to be addressed for the widespread adoption of SAF. Statement-II is incorrect. SAF is currently nearly three times costlier than conventional jet fuel. The production of SAF also faces challenges in scaling up to meet the demands of the aviation industry. The high cost and production challenges are major impediments to its adoption, not facilitators.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF).

Statement-I: The adoption of Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF) in India faces significant challenges despite its environmental benefits.

Statement-II: SAF is currently more cost-effective and easier to produce on a large scale than conventional jet fuel.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: C

• Statement-I is correct. The adoption of SAF in India faces several challenges, including its high cost, the difficulty in collecting feedstock from dispersed sources, and resistance from airlines due to fears of increased fuel costs. These hurdles need to be addressed for the widespread adoption of SAF.

• Statement-II is incorrect. SAF is currently nearly three times costlier than conventional jet fuel. The production of SAF also faces challenges in scaling up to meet the demands of the aviation industry. The high cost and production challenges are major impediments to its adoption, not facilitators.

Solution: C

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements regarding Arctic Reindeer: Statement I: Arctic Reindeer populations are facing a significant threat from climate change. Statement II: Climate change leads to increased rainfall in winter, which creates a layer of ice over the lichens that reindeer feed on. Statement III: Industrial development in the Arctic has led to the expansion of the reindeer’s habitat. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct Correct Solution: C Statement I is correct. Climate change is one of the major threats to the survival of Arctic Reindeer. Statement II is correct and explains one of the primary mechanisms through which climate change impacts reindeer. Warmer temperatures in the Arctic can lead to rain-on-snow events in winter. The rain freezes into a layer of ice, preventing the reindeer from accessing the lichens, their primary winter food source. This can lead to starvation and population decline. Statement III is incorrect. Industrial development in the Arctic, including oil and gas exploration and mining, leads to habitat degradation and fragmentation, which is a threat to reindeer populations, not an expansion of their habitat. Incorrect Solution: C Statement I is correct. Climate change is one of the major threats to the survival of Arctic Reindeer. Statement II is correct and explains one of the primary mechanisms through which climate change impacts reindeer. Warmer temperatures in the Arctic can lead to rain-on-snow events in winter. The rain freezes into a layer of ice, preventing the reindeer from accessing the lichens, their primary winter food source. This can lead to starvation and population decline. Statement III is incorrect. Industrial development in the Arctic, including oil and gas exploration and mining, leads to habitat degradation and fragmentation, which is a threat to reindeer populations, not an expansion of their habitat.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Arctic Reindeer:

Statement I: Arctic Reindeer populations are facing a significant threat from climate change.

Statement II: Climate change leads to increased rainfall in winter, which creates a layer of ice over the lichens that reindeer feed on.

Statement III: Industrial development in the Arctic has led to the expansion of the reindeer’s habitat.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

• (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

• (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

• (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Solution: C

• Statement I is correct. Climate change is one of the major threats to the survival of Arctic Reindeer.

• Statement II is correct and explains one of the primary mechanisms through which climate change impacts reindeer. Warmer temperatures in the Arctic can lead to rain-on-snow events in winter. The rain freezes into a layer of ice, preventing the reindeer from accessing the lichens, their primary winter food source. This can lead to starvation and population decline.

Statement III is incorrect. Industrial development in the Arctic, including oil and gas exploration and mining, leads to habitat degradation and fragmentation, which is a threat to reindeer populations, not an expansion of their habitat.

Solution: C

• Statement I is correct. Climate change is one of the major threats to the survival of Arctic Reindeer.

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Match the Union Territory in List-I with the corresponding provision for nominated members in its Legislative Assembly in List-II. List-I (Union Territory) List-II (Provision for Nominated Members) A. Jammu & Kashmir 1. Up to three members nominated by the Central Government. B. Puducherry 2. No provision for nominated members. C. Delhi 3. Up to five members may be nominated by the Lieutenant Governor. Select the correct answer code: (a) A-3, B-1, C-2 (b) A-1, B-3, C-2 (c) A-3, B-2, C-1 (d) A-2, B-1, C-3 Correct Solution: A Jammu & Kashmir (A): According to Section 14 of the J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019 (as amended in 2023), the Lieutenant Governor may nominate up to five members to the assembly. This includes specific representation for two women, two Kashmiri migrants, and one displaced person from Pakistan-occupied Kashmir (PoK). Therefore, A matches with 3. Puducherry (B): Under Section 3 of the Government of Union Territories Act, 1963, the Central Government has the authority to nominate up to three members to the Puducherry Legislative Assembly. This power has been a subject of judicial scrutiny and has been upheld by the courts. Therefore, B matches with 1. Delhi (C): The Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (GNCTD) Act, 1991, which governs the Delhi Legislative Assembly, has no provision for nominated members. The assembly consists solely of 70 elected members. Therefore, C matches with 2. Incorrect Solution: A Jammu & Kashmir (A): According to Section 14 of the J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019 (as amended in 2023), the Lieutenant Governor may nominate up to five members to the assembly. This includes specific representation for two women, two Kashmiri migrants, and one displaced person from Pakistan-occupied Kashmir (PoK). Therefore, A matches with 3. Puducherry (B): Under Section 3 of the Government of Union Territories Act, 1963, the Central Government has the authority to nominate up to three members to the Puducherry Legislative Assembly. This power has been a subject of judicial scrutiny and has been upheld by the courts. Therefore, B matches with 1. Delhi (C): The Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (GNCTD) Act, 1991, which governs the Delhi Legislative Assembly, has no provision for nominated members. The assembly consists solely of 70 elected members. Therefore, C matches with 2.

#### 5. Question

Match the Union Territory in List-I with the corresponding provision for nominated members in its Legislative Assembly in List-II.

List-I (Union Territory) | List-II (Provision for Nominated Members)

A. Jammu & Kashmir | 1. Up to three members nominated by the Central Government.

B. Puducherry | 2. No provision for nominated members.

C. Delhi | 3. Up to five members may be nominated by the Lieutenant Governor.

Select the correct answer code:

• (a) A-3, B-1, C-2

• (b) A-1, B-3, C-2

• (c) A-3, B-2, C-1

• (d) A-2, B-1, C-3

Solution: A

• Jammu & Kashmir (A): According to Section 14 of the J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019 (as amended in 2023), the Lieutenant Governor may nominate up to five members to the assembly. This includes specific representation for two women, two Kashmiri migrants, and one displaced person from Pakistan-occupied Kashmir (PoK). Therefore, A matches with 3.

• Puducherry (B): Under Section 3 of the Government of Union Territories Act, 1963, the Central Government has the authority to nominate up to three members to the Puducherry Legislative Assembly. This power has been a subject of judicial scrutiny and has been upheld by the courts. Therefore, B matches with 1.

• Delhi (C): The Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (GNCTD) Act, 1991, which governs the Delhi Legislative Assembly, has no provision for nominated members. The assembly consists solely of 70 elected members. Therefore, C matches with 2.

Solution: A

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