UPSC Editorials Quiz : 27 June 2025

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements regarding the six-stage action framework of the UNEP Cooling Guidelines: Countries are mandated to adopt Minimum Energy Performance Standards (MEPS) as part of the Policy Actions stage. The framework suggests creating cross-ministerial, gender-responsive coordination mechanisms for effective policy implementation. Developing robust Monitoring, Reporting, and Verification (MRV) systems is a preliminary step before defining the baseline emissions. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. Under the ‘Policy Actions’ stage, countries should “Adopt Minimum Energy Performance Standards (MEPS), Kigali-compliant refrigerant phase-down, urban greening, and passive cooling.” Statement 2 is correct. The ‘Governance’ stage of the framework explicitly calls for the creation of “cross-ministerial, gender-responsive coordination mechanisms for effective cooling policy implementation,” highlighting the need for integrated and inclusive governance structures. Statement 3 is incorrect. The framework follows a logical sequence. The first stage is Baseline Definition, where countries “assess current HFC emissions and energy use”. The development of MRV Systems is a subsequent stage to track progress against this baseline and the formulated targets. You cannot monitor progress before defining what you are measuring. Incorrect Solution: B Statement 1 is correct. Under the ‘Policy Actions’ stage, countries should “Adopt Minimum Energy Performance Standards (MEPS), Kigali-compliant refrigerant phase-down, urban greening, and passive cooling.” Statement 2 is correct. The ‘Governance’ stage of the framework explicitly calls for the creation of “cross-ministerial, gender-responsive coordination mechanisms for effective cooling policy implementation,” highlighting the need for integrated and inclusive governance structures. Statement 3 is incorrect. The framework follows a logical sequence. The first stage is Baseline Definition, where countries “assess current HFC emissions and energy use”. The development of MRV Systems is a subsequent stage to track progress against this baseline and the formulated targets. You cannot monitor progress before defining what you are measuring.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the six-stage action framework of the UNEP Cooling Guidelines:

• Countries are mandated to adopt Minimum Energy Performance Standards (MEPS) as part of the Policy Actions stage.

• The framework suggests creating cross-ministerial, gender-responsive coordination mechanisms for effective policy implementation.

• Developing robust Monitoring, Reporting, and Verification (MRV) systems is a preliminary step before defining the baseline emissions.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. Under the ‘Policy Actions’ stage, countries should “Adopt Minimum Energy Performance Standards (MEPS), Kigali-compliant refrigerant phase-down, urban greening, and passive cooling.”

• Statement 2 is correct. The ‘Governance’ stage of the framework explicitly calls for the creation of “cross-ministerial, gender-responsive coordination mechanisms for effective cooling policy implementation,” highlighting the need for integrated and inclusive governance structures.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The framework follows a logical sequence. The first stage is Baseline Definition, where countries “assess current HFC emissions and energy use”. The development of MRV Systems is a subsequent stage to track progress against this baseline and the formulated targets. You cannot monitor progress before defining what you are measuring.

Solution: B

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements regarding Euthanasia and related Supreme Court judgments in India: In the Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab (1996) case, the Supreme Court upheld the “Right to Die” as an integral part of Article 21. The judgment in Aruna Shanbaug v. Union of India (2011) was the first instance where the court permitted Active Euthanasia under strict judicial supervision. An ‘Advance Directive’ allows a person to refuse medical treatment in the future if they become terminally ill and unable to consent. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Gian Kaur judgment “Denied ‘Right to Die’ under Article 21.” It upheld the right to a dignified life but differentiated it from a right to end one’s life. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Aruna Shanbaug case allowed for Passive Euthanasia, which is the withdrawal of life support, not Active Euthanasia (which involves a deliberate act to end life, like an injection) and it was done under strict conditions. Statement 3 is correct. This statement accurately describes the purpose of an ‘Advance Directive’. The Common Cause (2018) judgment, “permitted Advance Directives for terminally ill patients,” which aligns perfectly with this description. It is a living will that specifies future medical care choices. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Gian Kaur judgment “Denied ‘Right to Die’ under Article 21.” It upheld the right to a dignified life but differentiated it from a right to end one’s life. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Aruna Shanbaug case allowed for Passive Euthanasia, which is the withdrawal of life support, not Active Euthanasia (which involves a deliberate act to end life, like an injection) and it was done under strict conditions. Statement 3 is correct. This statement accurately describes the purpose of an ‘Advance Directive’. The Common Cause (2018) judgment, “permitted Advance Directives for terminally ill patients,” which aligns perfectly with this description. It is a living will that specifies future medical care choices.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Euthanasia and related Supreme Court judgments in India:

• In the Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab (1996) case, the Supreme Court upheld the “Right to Die” as an integral part of Article 21.

• The judgment in Aruna Shanbaug v. Union of India (2011) was the first instance where the court permitted Active Euthanasia under strict judicial supervision.

• An ‘Advance Directive’ allows a person to refuse medical treatment in the future if they become terminally ill and unable to consent.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Gian Kaur judgment “Denied ‘Right to Die’ under Article 21.” It upheld the right to a dignified life but differentiated it from a right to end one’s life.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Aruna Shanbaug case allowed for Passive Euthanasia, which is the withdrawal of life support, not Active Euthanasia (which involves a deliberate act to end life, like an injection) and it was done under strict conditions.

• Statement 3 is correct. This statement accurately describes the purpose of an ‘Advance Directive’. The Common Cause (2018) judgment, “permitted Advance Directives for terminally ill patients,” which aligns perfectly with this description. It is a living will that specifies future medical care choices.

Solution: A

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question With reference to the Total Revolution, consider the following statements: It was a movement exclusively focused on political reforms to establish a ‘party-less democracy’. The Navnirman Movement in Gujarat was one of the catalysts that contributed to the call for this revolution. The revolution advocated for a bottom-up approach to governance and socio-economic restructuring based on Sarvodaya ideals. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: B The concept of Total Revolution (Sampoorna Kranti), articulated by Jayaprakash Narayan, was a comprehensive and holistic movement, not one focused exclusively on political change. Statement 1 is incorrect because the revolution encompassed seven components: political, economic, social, cultural, ideological, educational, and spiritual. Its aim was a complete transformation of society. Statement 2 is correct. The student-led agitations, particularly the Navnirman Movement in Gujarat and similar protests in Bihar against misgovernance, corruption, and unemployment, created the fertile ground for JP’s call for a nationwide revolution. These movements highlighted widespread public discontent. Statement 3 is correct. The Total Revolution was deeply influenced by Gandhian philosophy, particularly the ideal of Sarvodaya (welfare of all). It championed decentralised, participatory democracy (a “bottom-up” approach) and sought fundamental changes in economic structures, such as land redistribution, to create a more equitable society, directly challenging the existing centralised models of governance. Incorrect Solution: B The concept of Total Revolution (Sampoorna Kranti), articulated by Jayaprakash Narayan, was a comprehensive and holistic movement, not one focused exclusively on political change. Statement 1 is incorrect because the revolution encompassed seven components: political, economic, social, cultural, ideological, educational, and spiritual. Its aim was a complete transformation of society. Statement 2 is correct. The student-led agitations, particularly the Navnirman Movement in Gujarat and similar protests in Bihar against misgovernance, corruption, and unemployment, created the fertile ground for JP’s call for a nationwide revolution. These movements highlighted widespread public discontent. Statement 3 is correct. The Total Revolution was deeply influenced by Gandhian philosophy, particularly the ideal of Sarvodaya (welfare of all). It championed decentralised, participatory democracy (a “bottom-up” approach) and sought fundamental changes in economic structures, such as land redistribution, to create a more equitable society, directly challenging the existing centralised models of governance.

#### 3. Question

With reference to the Total Revolution, consider the following statements:

• It was a movement exclusively focused on political reforms to establish a ‘party-less democracy’.

• The Navnirman Movement in Gujarat was one of the catalysts that contributed to the call for this revolution.

• The revolution advocated for a bottom-up approach to governance and socio-economic restructuring based on Sarvodaya ideals.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: B

• The concept of Total Revolution (Sampoorna Kranti), articulated by Jayaprakash Narayan, was a comprehensive and holistic movement, not one focused exclusively on political change.

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the revolution encompassed seven components: political, economic, social, cultural, ideological, educational, and spiritual. Its aim was a complete transformation of society.

• Statement 2 is correct. The student-led agitations, particularly the Navnirman Movement in Gujarat and similar protests in Bihar against misgovernance, corruption, and unemployment, created the fertile ground for JP’s call for a nationwide revolution. These movements highlighted widespread public discontent.

• Statement 3 is correct. The Total Revolution was deeply influenced by Gandhian philosophy, particularly the ideal of Sarvodaya (welfare of all). It championed decentralised, participatory democracy (a “bottom-up” approach) and sought fundamental changes in economic structures, such as land redistribution, to create a more equitable society, directly challenging the existing centralised models of governance.

Solution: B

• The concept of Total Revolution (Sampoorna Kranti), articulated by Jayaprakash Narayan, was a comprehensive and holistic movement, not one focused exclusively on political change.

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Sustainable Development Report (SDR) 2025: It is an official annual report published by the United Nations General Assembly to track SDG progress. The 2025 edition prioritises the theme of reforming the Global Financial Architecture (GFA) to achieve SDG targets. India’s entry into the top 100 rankings for the first time is primarily attributed to its significant progress in climate action (SDG 13) and press freedom (SDG 16). How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Sustainable Development Report (SDR) is released by the UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN), an independent body, not directly by the UN General Assembly. Statement 2 is correct. The focus of the 2025 edition of the SDR is on financing the SDGs by 2030 and reforming the Global Financial Architecture (GFA). This reflects a growing global consensus that existing financial systems are inadequate for meeting the ambitious 2030 Agenda. Statement 3 is incorrect. While India did enter the top 100 with a rank of 99, the report highlights that its progress was notable in areas like digital infrastructure (SDG 9), healthcare (SDG 3), and electricity access (SDG 7). India faces significant challenges in climate action (SDG 13) and press freedom (SDG 16), which are areas of concern, not progress. Incorrect Solution: A Statement 1 is incorrect. The Sustainable Development Report (SDR) is released by the UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN), an independent body, not directly by the UN General Assembly. Statement 2 is correct. The focus of the 2025 edition of the SDR is on financing the SDGs by 2030 and reforming the Global Financial Architecture (GFA). This reflects a growing global consensus that existing financial systems are inadequate for meeting the ambitious 2030 Agenda. Statement 3 is incorrect. While India did enter the top 100 with a rank of 99, the report highlights that its progress was notable in areas like digital infrastructure (SDG 9), healthcare (SDG 3), and electricity access (SDG 7). India faces significant challenges in climate action (SDG 13) and press freedom (SDG 16), which are areas of concern, not progress.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the Sustainable Development Report (SDR) 2025:

• It is an official annual report published by the United Nations General Assembly to track SDG progress.

• The 2025 edition prioritises the theme of reforming the Global Financial Architecture (GFA) to achieve SDG targets.

• India’s entry into the top 100 rankings for the first time is primarily attributed to its significant progress in climate action (SDG 13) and press freedom (SDG 16).

How many of the statements given above are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) All three

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Sustainable Development Report (SDR) is released by the UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN), an independent body, not directly by the UN General Assembly.

• Statement 2 is correct. The focus of the 2025 edition of the SDR is on financing the SDGs by 2030 and reforming the Global Financial Architecture (GFA). This reflects a growing global consensus that existing financial systems are inadequate for meeting the ambitious 2030 Agenda.

Statement 3 is incorrect. While India did enter the top 100 with a rank of 99, the report highlights that its progress was notable in areas like digital infrastructure (SDG 9), healthcare (SDG 3), and electricity access (SDG 7). India faces significant challenges in climate action (SDG 13) and press freedom (SDG 16), which are areas of concern, not progress.

Solution: A

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 introduced significant changes to the Emergency provisions in the Indian Constitution. In this context, which of the following was a primary consequence of this amendment? (a) It extended the term of the Lok Sabha from five to six years during an Emergency. (b) It empowered the executive to suspend the right to move court for the enforcement of Article 21. (c) It replaced the ground of “internal disturbance” with “armed rebellion” for proclaiming a National Emergency. (d) It made the proclamation of an Emergency immune from judicial review. Correct Solution: C The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978, was enacted to reverse many of the distortions introduced by the 42nd Amendment during the Emergency and to introduce safeguards against the future misuse of Emergency powers. Option (a) is incorrect. The 42nd Amendment had extended the Lok Sabha term to six years. The 44th Amendment restored the original term of five years. Option (b) is incorrect. A landmark provision of the 44th Amendment was to ensure that the Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Articles 20 and 21 (Right to life and personal liberty) cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency. This reversed the position taken during the 1975 Emergency. Option (c) is correct. To prevent the misuse of vague terms to impose an Emergency, the 44th Amendment substituted the words “internal disturbance” with “armed rebellion” in Article 352. This made the conditions for declaring an internal emergency much more stringent and objective. Option (d) is incorrect. The 44th Amendment explicitly provided for judicial review of a proclamation of Emergency, overturning the provision of the 42nd Amendment which had sought to make the President’s satisfaction in proclaiming an Emergency final and conclusive. Incorrect Solution: C The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978, was enacted to reverse many of the distortions introduced by the 42nd Amendment during the Emergency and to introduce safeguards against the future misuse of Emergency powers. Option (a) is incorrect. The 42nd Amendment had extended the Lok Sabha term to six years. The 44th Amendment restored the original term of five years. Option (b) is incorrect. A landmark provision of the 44th Amendment was to ensure that the Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Articles 20 and 21 (Right to life and personal liberty) cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency. This reversed the position taken during the 1975 Emergency. Option (c) is correct. To prevent the misuse of vague terms to impose an Emergency, the 44th Amendment substituted the words “internal disturbance” with “armed rebellion” in Article 352. This made the conditions for declaring an internal emergency much more stringent and objective. Option (d) is incorrect. The 44th Amendment explicitly provided for judicial review of a proclamation of Emergency, overturning the provision of the 42nd Amendment which had sought to make the President’s satisfaction in proclaiming an Emergency final and conclusive.

#### 5. Question

The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 introduced significant changes to the Emergency provisions in the Indian Constitution. In this context, which of the following was a primary consequence of this amendment?

• (a) It extended the term of the Lok Sabha from five to six years during an Emergency.

• (b) It empowered the executive to suspend the right to move court for the enforcement of Article 21.

• (c) It replaced the ground of “internal disturbance” with “armed rebellion” for proclaiming a National Emergency.

• (d) It made the proclamation of an Emergency immune from judicial review.

Solution: C

• The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978, was enacted to reverse many of the distortions introduced by the 42nd Amendment during the Emergency and to introduce safeguards against the future misuse of Emergency powers.

• Option (a) is incorrect. The 42nd Amendment had extended the Lok Sabha term to six years. The 44th Amendment restored the original term of five years.

• Option (b) is incorrect. A landmark provision of the 44th Amendment was to ensure that the Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Articles 20 and 21 (Right to life and personal liberty) cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency. This reversed the position taken during the 1975 Emergency.

• Option (c) is correct. To prevent the misuse of vague terms to impose an Emergency, the 44th Amendment substituted the words “internal disturbance” with “armed rebellion” in Article 352. This made the conditions for declaring an internal emergency much more stringent and objective.

• Option (d) is incorrect. The 44th Amendment explicitly provided for judicial review of a proclamation of Emergency, overturning the provision of the 42nd Amendment which had sought to make the President’s satisfaction in proclaiming an Emergency final and conclusive.

Solution: C

• Option (a) is incorrect. The 42nd Amendment had extended the Lok Sabha term to six years. The 44th Amendment restored the original term of five years.

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