UPSC Editorials Quiz : 27 February 2026

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question The “Vibrant Villages Programme–II” (VVP–II), launched in 2026, primarily aims to: (a) Provide urban-style luxury housing in metropolitan cities like Delhi and Mumbai. (b) Boost development and security in border villages to prevent migration and enhance territorial integrity. (c) Establish a new chain of international schools for the children of diplomatic staff. (d) Digitize the land records of agricultural communities in the fertile plains of Punjab. Correct Solution: B The Vibrant Villages Programme–II (VVP–II) is a strategic initiative for border management. Option (b) is correct. Launched by the Union Home Minister in Assam in February 2026, the programme covers 1,954 border villages across 15 States and 2 Union Territories. The goal is to provide essential infrastructure, improve livelihoods, and boost security in these remote areas to prevent residents from migrating to cities. By keeping these villages populated and prosperous, the government aims to strengthen India’s territorial integrity against external threats. This programme is a key part of the “Act East” policy and broader national security strategies focused on border development. Incorrect Solution: B The Vibrant Villages Programme–II (VVP–II) is a strategic initiative for border management. Option (b) is correct. Launched by the Union Home Minister in Assam in February 2026, the programme covers 1,954 border villages across 15 States and 2 Union Territories. The goal is to provide essential infrastructure, improve livelihoods, and boost security in these remote areas to prevent residents from migrating to cities. By keeping these villages populated and prosperous, the government aims to strengthen India’s territorial integrity against external threats. This programme is a key part of the “Act East” policy and broader national security strategies focused on border development.

#### 1. Question

The “Vibrant Villages Programme–II” (VVP–II), launched in 2026, primarily aims to:

• (a) Provide urban-style luxury housing in metropolitan cities like Delhi and Mumbai.

• (b) Boost development and security in border villages to prevent migration and enhance territorial integrity.

• (c) Establish a new chain of international schools for the children of diplomatic staff.

• (d) Digitize the land records of agricultural communities in the fertile plains of Punjab.

Solution: B

• The Vibrant Villages Programme–II (VVP–II) is a strategic initiative for border management.

• Option (b) is correct. Launched by the Union Home Minister in Assam in February 2026, the programme covers 1,954 border villages across 15 States and 2 Union Territories.

• The goal is to provide essential infrastructure, improve livelihoods, and boost security in these remote areas to prevent residents from migrating to cities. By keeping these villages populated and prosperous, the government aims to strengthen India’s territorial integrity against external threats.

• This programme is a key part of the “Act East” policy and broader national security strategies focused on border development.

Solution: B

• The Vibrant Villages Programme–II (VVP–II) is a strategic initiative for border management.

• Option (b) is correct. Launched by the Union Home Minister in Assam in February 2026, the programme covers 1,954 border villages across 15 States and 2 Union Territories.

• This programme is a key part of the “Act East” policy and broader national security strategies focused on border development.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question Consider the following statements regarding Chambal River. Statement-I: The Chambal River is often cited as one of the cleanest and least polluted rivers in India. Statement-II: The river flows through a rugged topography of ravines and badlands, which has historically restricted large-scale industrialization and intensive agriculture along its banks. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A The Chambal River, a major tributary of the Yamuna, is unique in the Indian river system. Statement-I is correct; it is widely regarded as one of India’s pristine rivers, hosting critical populations of the Gharial and the Ganges River Dolphin. Statement-II provides the geographical and historical reason for this cleanliness. The river passes through the Vindhyan scarplands and creates a vast network of ravines (badlands). This difficult terrain has made the region unsuitable for major industrial hubs or large-scale human settlements, which are the primary sources of river pollution in India. Furthermore, the absence of intensive canal-based agriculture in its immediate vicinity has reduced the runoff of chemical fertilizers. This “natural protection” provided by the ravine topography has allowed the river to remain relatively free of the pollutants that plague the Ganga and Yamuna. However, this ecosystem is currently threatened by illegal sand mining, which destroys the nesting grounds of the Red-crowned Roof Turtle and the Gharial. The river’s flow is managed by a series of dams, including the Gandhi Sagar and Rana Pratap Sagar, but its middle reaches remain a sanctuary for riverine biodiversity. Incorrect Solution: A The Chambal River, a major tributary of the Yamuna, is unique in the Indian river system. Statement-I is correct; it is widely regarded as one of India’s pristine rivers, hosting critical populations of the Gharial and the Ganges River Dolphin. Statement-II provides the geographical and historical reason for this cleanliness. The river passes through the Vindhyan scarplands and creates a vast network of ravines (badlands). This difficult terrain has made the region unsuitable for major industrial hubs or large-scale human settlements, which are the primary sources of river pollution in India. Furthermore, the absence of intensive canal-based agriculture in its immediate vicinity has reduced the runoff of chemical fertilizers. This “natural protection” provided by the ravine topography has allowed the river to remain relatively free of the pollutants that plague the Ganga and Yamuna. However, this ecosystem is currently threatened by illegal sand mining, which destroys the nesting grounds of the Red-crowned Roof Turtle and the Gharial. The river’s flow is managed by a series of dams, including the Gandhi Sagar and Rana Pratap Sagar, but its middle reaches remain a sanctuary for riverine biodiversity.

#### 2. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Chambal River.

Statement-I: The Chambal River is often cited as one of the cleanest and least polluted rivers in India.

Statement-II: The river flows through a rugged topography of ravines and badlands, which has historically restricted large-scale industrialization and intensive agriculture along its banks.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• The Chambal River, a major tributary of the Yamuna, is unique in the Indian river system. Statement-I is correct; it is widely regarded as one of India’s pristine rivers, hosting critical populations of the Gharial and the Ganges River Dolphin. Statement-II provides the geographical and historical reason for this cleanliness.

• The river passes through the Vindhyan scarplands and creates a vast network of ravines (badlands). This difficult terrain has made the region unsuitable for major industrial hubs or large-scale human settlements, which are the primary sources of river pollution in India.

• Furthermore, the absence of intensive canal-based agriculture in its immediate vicinity has reduced the runoff of chemical fertilizers. This “natural protection” provided by the ravine topography has allowed the river to remain relatively free of the pollutants that plague the Ganga and Yamuna.

• However, this ecosystem is currently threatened by illegal sand mining, which destroys the nesting grounds of the Red-crowned Roof Turtle and the Gharial. The river’s flow is managed by a series of dams, including the Gandhi Sagar and Rana Pratap Sagar, but its middle reaches remain a sanctuary for riverine biodiversity.

Solution: A

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following table regarding recent GI Tags: Item Category State I. Ambaji Marble Natural Goods Gujarat II. Tungbuk Handicraft (Musical Instrument) Sikkim III. Meerut Bugle Manufactured Goods Uttar Pradesh Which of the above are correctly matched? (a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III Correct Solution: D Row I is Correct: Ambaji Marble is a Natural Good (stone/mineral) extracted from the mines of Banaskantha, Gujarat. Row II is Correct: Tungbuk is a Handicraft (handmade musical instrument) belonging to the Lepcha tribe of Sikkim. Row III is Correct: The Meerut Bugle is a Manufactured Good/Handicraft produced in Meerut, Uttar Pradesh. Incorrect Solution: D Row I is Correct: Ambaji Marble is a Natural Good (stone/mineral) extracted from the mines of Banaskantha, Gujarat. Row II is Correct: Tungbuk is a Handicraft (handmade musical instrument) belonging to the Lepcha tribe of Sikkim. Row III is Correct: The Meerut Bugle is a Manufactured Good/Handicraft produced in Meerut, Uttar Pradesh.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following table regarding recent GI Tags:

Item | Category | State

I. Ambaji Marble | Natural Goods | Gujarat

II. Tungbuk | Handicraft (Musical Instrument) | Sikkim

III. Meerut Bugle | Manufactured Goods | Uttar Pradesh

Which of the above are correctly matched?

• (a) I and II only

• (b) II and III only

• (c) I and III only

• (d) I, II and III

Solution: D

• Row I is Correct: Ambaji Marble is a Natural Good (stone/mineral) extracted from the mines of Banaskantha, Gujarat.

• Row II is Correct: Tungbuk is a Handicraft (handmade musical instrument) belonging to the Lepcha tribe of Sikkim.

• Row III is Correct: The Meerut Bugle is a Manufactured Good/Handicraft produced in Meerut, Uttar Pradesh.

Solution: D

• Row I is Correct: Ambaji Marble is a Natural Good (stone/mineral) extracted from the mines of Banaskantha, Gujarat.

• Row II is Correct: Tungbuk is a Handicraft (handmade musical instrument) belonging to the Lepcha tribe of Sikkim.

• Row III is Correct: The Meerut Bugle is a Manufactured Good/Handicraft produced in Meerut, Uttar Pradesh.

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question With reference to ‘Operation Cyber Suraksha’, conducted in 2025, which of the following statements is correct? (a) It was a joint exercise between the Indian CERT-In and the US Cyber Command. (b) It was a tri-service military exercise conducted by the Defence Cyber Agency (DCyA) to test the resilience of defence infrastructure. (c) It was a nationwide awareness campaign launched by the Ministry of Home Affairs to prevent financial fraud. (d) It was a specialized operation to rescue Indian citizens trapped in cyber-scam compounds in Southeast Asia. Correct Solution: B Option (b) is Correct: Cyber Suraksha was a major internal military exercise. It was organized by the Defence Cyber Agency (DCyA) and involved the Army, Navy, and Air Force. The objective was to simulate cyber-attacks on critical military networks and test the response mechanisms of the armed forces. Option (a) and (c) are Incorrect: It was neither a bilateral exercise with the US nor a civilian awareness campaign. Incorrect Solution: B Option (b) is Correct: Cyber Suraksha was a major internal military exercise. It was organized by the Defence Cyber Agency (DCyA) and involved the Army, Navy, and Air Force. The objective was to simulate cyber-attacks on critical military networks and test the response mechanisms of the armed forces. Option (a) and (c) are Incorrect: It was neither a bilateral exercise with the US nor a civilian awareness campaign.

#### 4. Question

With reference to ‘Operation Cyber Suraksha’, conducted in 2025, which of the following statements is correct?

• (a) It was a joint exercise between the Indian CERT-In and the US Cyber Command.

• (b) It was a tri-service military exercise conducted by the Defence Cyber Agency (DCyA) to test the resilience of defence infrastructure.

• (c) It was a nationwide awareness campaign launched by the Ministry of Home Affairs to prevent financial fraud.

• (d) It was a specialized operation to rescue Indian citizens trapped in cyber-scam compounds in Southeast Asia.

Solution: B

• Option (b) is Correct: Cyber Suraksha was a major internal military exercise. It was organized by the Defence Cyber Agency (DCyA) and involved the Army, Navy, and Air Force. The objective was to simulate cyber-attacks on critical military networks and test the response mechanisms of the armed forces.

• Option (a) and (c) are Incorrect: It was neither a bilateral exercise with the US nor a civilian awareness campaign.

Solution: B

• Option (a) and (c) are Incorrect: It was neither a bilateral exercise with the US nor a civilian awareness campaign.

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements regarding Official Secrets Act (OSA): Statement I: The Official Secrets Act (OSA), 1923, remains applicable to armed forces personnel even after their retirement. Statement II: The Act is designed to prevent the unauthorized disclosure of classified information that could prejudice the sovereignty and integrity of India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: A The Official Secrets Act, 1923 (OSA) imposes a continuing obligation of secrecy. The duty not to disclose classified or sensitive information does not end upon retirement from service. Former members of the armed forces (or any public servants) remain bound by the Act if they are in possession of official information obtained during their tenure. Unauthorized disclosure after retirement can still attract prosecution under the Act. The Act was enacted during the colonial period but continues to operate in independent India to safeguard national security. Its primary objective is to prevent espionage, unauthorized communication, or leakage of information that may be useful to an enemy or prejudicial to the sovereignty, integrity, and security of India. The logic is that sensitive defence or security information remains sensitive irrespective of whether the individual is currently serving or retired. Incorrect Solution: A The Official Secrets Act, 1923 (OSA) imposes a continuing obligation of secrecy. The duty not to disclose classified or sensitive information does not end upon retirement from service. Former members of the armed forces (or any public servants) remain bound by the Act if they are in possession of official information obtained during their tenure. Unauthorized disclosure after retirement can still attract prosecution under the Act. The Act was enacted during the colonial period but continues to operate in independent India to safeguard national security. Its primary objective is to prevent espionage, unauthorized communication, or leakage of information that may be useful to an enemy or prejudicial to the sovereignty, integrity, and security of India. The logic is that sensitive defence or security information remains sensitive irrespective of whether the individual is currently serving or retired.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Official Secrets Act (OSA):

Statement I: The Official Secrets Act (OSA), 1923, remains applicable to armed forces personnel even after their retirement.

Statement II: The Act is designed to prevent the unauthorized disclosure of classified information that could prejudice the sovereignty and integrity of India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: A

• The Official Secrets Act, 1923 (OSA) imposes a continuing obligation of secrecy. The duty not to disclose classified or sensitive information does not end upon retirement from service. Former members of the armed forces (or any public servants) remain bound by the Act if they are in possession of official information obtained during their tenure. Unauthorized disclosure after retirement can still attract prosecution under the Act.

• The Act was enacted during the colonial period but continues to operate in independent India to safeguard national security. Its primary objective is to prevent espionage, unauthorized communication, or leakage of information that may be useful to an enemy or prejudicial to the sovereignty, integrity, and security of India. The logic is that sensitive defence or security information remains sensitive irrespective of whether the individual is currently serving or retired.

Solution: A

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