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UPSC Editorials Quiz : 26 May 2025

Kartavya Desk Staff

Introducing QUED – Questions from Editorials (UPSC Editorials Quiz) , an innovative initiative from InsightsIAS. Considering the significant number of questions in previous UPSC Prelims from editorials, practicing MCQs from this perspective can provide an extra edge. While we cover important editorials separately in our Editorial Section and SECURE Initiative, adding QUED (UPSC Editorials Quiz) to your daily MCQ practice alongside Static Quiz, Current Affairs Quiz, and InstaDART can be crucial for better performance. We recommend utilizing this initiative to enhance your preparation, with 5 MCQs posted daily at 11 am from Monday to Saturday on our website under the QUIZ menu.

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• Question 1 of 5 1. Question Consider the following statements regarding the E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2022, in India: The rules mandate Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) exclusively for importers of electrical and electronic equipment. Producers are required to physically establish their own collection and recycling facilities to meet EPR targets. A centralised digital portal has been introduced for the traceability of e-waste movement and EPR certification. The rules aim to formalise the e-waste recycling sector and reduce environmental hazards associated with informal processing. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Correct Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. The E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2022, mandate Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) for a range of entities including manufacturers, producers, importers, and bulk consumers of electrical and electronic equipment. It is not exclusive to importers. Statement 2 is incorrect. While producers have EPR obligations, they are not necessarily required to physically establish their own collection and recycling facilities. The rules allow for mechanisms like the EPR certificate system, where producers can buy certificates from authorised recyclers to meet their targets. This provides flexibility and encourages a market-based approach. Statement 3 is correct. A key feature of the new rules is the introduction of a centralised digital portal for tracking e-waste. This enhances transparency and accountability in the e-waste management chain, ensuring traceability of e-waste movement and the genuineness of EPR certification. Statement 4 is correct. A primary objective of the E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2022, is to bring the largely informal e-waste processing sector (which handles about 95% of India’s e-waste) into the formal domain. This helps in reducing environmental pollution and health hazards caused by unscientific dismantling and recycling methods, while promoting resource recovery. Incorrect Solution: b) Statement 1 is incorrect. The E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2022, mandate Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) for a range of entities including manufacturers, producers, importers, and bulk consumers of electrical and electronic equipment. It is not exclusive to importers. Statement 2 is incorrect. While producers have EPR obligations, they are not necessarily required to physically establish their own collection and recycling facilities. The rules allow for mechanisms like the EPR certificate system, where producers can buy certificates from authorised recyclers to meet their targets. This provides flexibility and encourages a market-based approach. Statement 3 is correct. A key feature of the new rules is the introduction of a centralised digital portal for tracking e-waste. This enhances transparency and accountability in the e-waste management chain, ensuring traceability of e-waste movement and the genuineness of EPR certification. Statement 4 is correct. A primary objective of the E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2022, is to bring the largely informal e-waste processing sector (which handles about 95% of India’s e-waste) into the formal domain. This helps in reducing environmental pollution and health hazards caused by unscientific dismantling and recycling methods, while promoting resource recovery.

#### 1. Question

Consider the following statements regarding the E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2022, in India:

• The rules mandate Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) exclusively for importers of electrical and electronic equipment.

• Producers are required to physically establish their own collection and recycling facilities to meet EPR targets.

• A centralised digital portal has been introduced for the traceability of e-waste movement and EPR certification.

• The rules aim to formalise the e-waste recycling sector and reduce environmental hazards associated with informal processing.

How many of the above statements are correct?

• (a) Only one

• (b) Only two

• (c) Only three

• (d) All four

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is incorrect. The E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2022, mandate Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) for a range of entities including manufacturers, producers, importers, and bulk consumers of electrical and electronic equipment. It is not exclusive to importers.

Statement 2 is incorrect. While producers have EPR obligations, they are not necessarily required to physically establish their own collection and recycling facilities. The rules allow for mechanisms like the EPR certificate system, where producers can buy certificates from authorised recyclers to meet their targets. This provides flexibility and encourages a market-based approach.

Statement 3 is correct. A key feature of the new rules is the introduction of a centralised digital portal for tracking e-waste. This enhances transparency and accountability in the e-waste management chain, ensuring traceability of e-waste movement and the genuineness of EPR certification.

Statement 4 is correct. A primary objective of the E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2022, is to bring the largely informal e-waste processing sector (which handles about 95% of India’s e-waste) into the formal domain. This helps in reducing environmental pollution and health hazards caused by unscientific dismantling and recycling methods, while promoting resource recovery.

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is incorrect. The E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2022, mandate Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) for a range of entities including manufacturers, producers, importers, and bulk consumers of electrical and electronic equipment. It is not exclusive to importers.

Statement 2 is incorrect. While producers have EPR obligations, they are not necessarily required to physically establish their own collection and recycling facilities. The rules allow for mechanisms like the EPR certificate system, where producers can buy certificates from authorised recyclers to meet their targets. This provides flexibility and encourages a market-based approach.

Statement 3 is correct. A key feature of the new rules is the introduction of a centralised digital portal for tracking e-waste. This enhances transparency and accountability in the e-waste management chain, ensuring traceability of e-waste movement and the genuineness of EPR certification.

Statement 4 is correct. A primary objective of the E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2022, is to bring the largely informal e-waste processing sector (which handles about 95% of India’s e-waste) into the formal domain. This helps in reducing environmental pollution and health hazards caused by unscientific dismantling and recycling methods, while promoting resource recovery.

• Question 2 of 5 2. Question With reference to the Dirang Geothermal Well project, which of the following technologies is primarily being employed to tap Earth’s subsurface heat for sustainable applications? a) Enhanced Geothermal System (EGS) b) Flash Steam Power Plant c) Closed-loop binary Organic Rankine Cycle (ORC) d) Dry Steam Power Plant Correct Solution: c) The Dirang Geothermal Well project in Arunachal Pradesh is a renewable geothermal energy initiative that utilizes a closed-loop binary Organic Rankine Cycle (ORC) This advanced system is designed to tap into the Earth’s subsurface heat. In an ORC system, geothermal water (or steam) heats a secondary working fluid with a lower boiling point, such as an organic compound. This secondary fluid vaporizes and drives a turbine, which in turn generates electricity or provides heat for direct applications. The closed-loop nature ensures that the geothermal fluid is reinjected back into the reservoir, making it a sustainable and environmentally friendly approach. This technology is particularly suitable for moderate-temperature geothermal resources like the one found in Dirang (around 115∘C), allowing for efficient energy extraction for applications such as electricity generation, space heating, and agricultural processing. Incorrect Solution: c) The Dirang Geothermal Well project in Arunachal Pradesh is a renewable geothermal energy initiative that utilizes a closed-loop binary Organic Rankine Cycle (ORC) This advanced system is designed to tap into the Earth’s subsurface heat. In an ORC system, geothermal water (or steam) heats a secondary working fluid with a lower boiling point, such as an organic compound. This secondary fluid vaporizes and drives a turbine, which in turn generates electricity or provides heat for direct applications. The closed-loop nature ensures that the geothermal fluid is reinjected back into the reservoir, making it a sustainable and environmentally friendly approach. This technology is particularly suitable for moderate-temperature geothermal resources like the one found in Dirang (around 115∘C), allowing for efficient energy extraction for applications such as electricity generation, space heating, and agricultural processing.

#### 2. Question

With reference to the Dirang Geothermal Well project, which of the following technologies is primarily being employed to tap Earth’s subsurface heat for sustainable applications?

• a) Enhanced Geothermal System (EGS)

• b) Flash Steam Power Plant

• c) Closed-loop binary Organic Rankine Cycle (ORC)

• d) Dry Steam Power Plant

Solution: c)

• The Dirang Geothermal Well project in Arunachal Pradesh is a renewable geothermal energy initiative that utilizes a closed-loop binary Organic Rankine Cycle (ORC)

• This advanced system is designed to tap into the Earth’s subsurface heat. In an ORC system, geothermal water (or steam) heats a secondary working fluid with a lower boiling point, such as an organic compound.

• This secondary fluid vaporizes and drives a turbine, which in turn generates electricity or provides heat for direct applications. The closed-loop nature ensures that the geothermal fluid is reinjected back into the reservoir, making it a sustainable and environmentally friendly approach.

• This technology is particularly suitable for moderate-temperature geothermal resources like the one found in Dirang (around 115∘C), allowing for efficient energy extraction for applications such as electricity generation, space heating, and agricultural processing.

Solution: c)

• The Dirang Geothermal Well project in Arunachal Pradesh is a renewable geothermal energy initiative that utilizes a closed-loop binary Organic Rankine Cycle (ORC)

• This advanced system is designed to tap into the Earth’s subsurface heat. In an ORC system, geothermal water (or steam) heats a secondary working fluid with a lower boiling point, such as an organic compound.

• This secondary fluid vaporizes and drives a turbine, which in turn generates electricity or provides heat for direct applications. The closed-loop nature ensures that the geothermal fluid is reinjected back into the reservoir, making it a sustainable and environmentally friendly approach.

• This technology is particularly suitable for moderate-temperature geothermal resources like the one found in Dirang (around 115∘C), allowing for efficient energy extraction for applications such as electricity generation, space heating, and agricultural processing.

• Question 3 of 5 3. Question Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Jenu Kuruba tribe possesses a rich oral tradition and a belief system deeply connected to nature and ancestral forces, which is largely distinct from mainstream Hinduism. Statement-II: The recognition of the Jenu Kuruba as a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) is primarily due to their assimilation into mainstream religious practices and their adoption of modern agricultural techniques. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: c) Statement-I is correct. The Jenu Kuruba tribe has a rich heritage of oral traditions, including songs, dances, and myths that revolve around nature, marriage, and various rituals. Their belief system shows a deep reverence for sylvan deities, nature spirits, and ancestral forces. While there might be some Hindu overlays in festivals like Holi and Diwali, their core religious practices are rooted in animism and are largely distinct from mainstream Hinduism. Statement-II is incorrect. The recognition of a tribe as a PVTG is based on criteria such as declining or stagnant population, low literacy levels, pre-agricultural level of technology, and economic backwardness. The Jenu Kuruba’s PVTG status reflects their vulnerability due to factors like displacement from forests, loss of traditional livelihoods (like honey collection and minor forest produce gathering), and resulting poverty, not their assimilation into mainstream religious practices or adoption of modern agriculture. In fact, their traditional practices are often non-agricultural or pre-agricultural. Therefore, Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement-I is correct. The Jenu Kuruba tribe has a rich heritage of oral traditions, including songs, dances, and myths that revolve around nature, marriage, and various rituals. Their belief system shows a deep reverence for sylvan deities, nature spirits, and ancestral forces. While there might be some Hindu overlays in festivals like Holi and Diwali, their core religious practices are rooted in animism and are largely distinct from mainstream Hinduism. Statement-II is incorrect. The recognition of a tribe as a PVTG is based on criteria such as declining or stagnant population, low literacy levels, pre-agricultural level of technology, and economic backwardness. The Jenu Kuruba’s PVTG status reflects their vulnerability due to factors like displacement from forests, loss of traditional livelihoods (like honey collection and minor forest produce gathering), and resulting poverty, not their assimilation into mainstream religious practices or adoption of modern agriculture. In fact, their traditional practices are often non-agricultural or pre-agricultural. Therefore, Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

#### 3. Question

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Jenu Kuruba tribe possesses a rich oral tradition and a belief system deeply connected to nature and ancestral forces, which is largely distinct from mainstream Hinduism.

Statement-II: The recognition of the Jenu Kuruba as a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) is primarily due to their assimilation into mainstream religious practices and their adoption of modern agricultural techniques.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: c)

Statement-I is correct. The Jenu Kuruba tribe has a rich heritage of oral traditions, including songs, dances, and myths that revolve around nature, marriage, and various rituals. Their belief system shows a deep reverence for sylvan deities, nature spirits, and ancestral forces. While there might be some Hindu overlays in festivals like Holi and Diwali, their core religious practices are rooted in animism and are largely distinct from mainstream Hinduism.

Statement-II is incorrect. The recognition of a tribe as a PVTG is based on criteria such as declining or stagnant population, low literacy levels, pre-agricultural level of technology, and economic backwardness. The Jenu Kuruba’s PVTG status reflects their vulnerability due to factors like displacement from forests, loss of traditional livelihoods (like honey collection and minor forest produce gathering), and resulting poverty, not their assimilation into mainstream religious practices or adoption of modern agriculture. In fact, their traditional practices are often non-agricultural or pre-agricultural.

• Therefore, Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

Solution: c)

Statement-I is correct. The Jenu Kuruba tribe has a rich heritage of oral traditions, including songs, dances, and myths that revolve around nature, marriage, and various rituals. Their belief system shows a deep reverence for sylvan deities, nature spirits, and ancestral forces. While there might be some Hindu overlays in festivals like Holi and Diwali, their core religious practices are rooted in animism and are largely distinct from mainstream Hinduism.

Statement-II is incorrect. The recognition of a tribe as a PVTG is based on criteria such as declining or stagnant population, low literacy levels, pre-agricultural level of technology, and economic backwardness. The Jenu Kuruba’s PVTG status reflects their vulnerability due to factors like displacement from forests, loss of traditional livelihoods (like honey collection and minor forest produce gathering), and resulting poverty, not their assimilation into mainstream religious practices or adoption of modern agriculture. In fact, their traditional practices are often non-agricultural or pre-agricultural.

• Therefore, Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

• Question 4 of 5 4. Question Consider the following statements with regard to ‘Operation Black Forest’: Statement-I: Operation Black Forest was primarily aimed at dismantling Naxal headquarters and neutralizing top Maoist leadership in the Kurraguttalu Hills. Statement-II: The operation involved a short, swift strike by a single elite force to minimize engagement time. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct Solution: c) Statement-I is correct. Operation Black Forest was a high-intensity counterinsurgency mission with the clear objective to dismantle Naxal headquarters and operational infrastructure, neutralize top Maoist leadership, and regain control over insurgent zones within the Kurraguttalu Hills (KGH). This area was considered a unified headquarters for several Naxal formations. Statement-II is incorrect. Operation Black Forest was not a short, swift strike by a single force. It was a 21-day high-intensity mission, described as one of India’s largest anti-Naxal operations, involving approximately 26,000 personnel. The forces involved were a combination of Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), including its elite CoBRA units, Chhattisgarh Police, Special Task Force (STF), and District Reserve Guard (DRG). The duration and scale indicate a sustained and comprehensive operation rather than a brief engagement. Incorrect Solution: c) Statement-I is correct. Operation Black Forest was a high-intensity counterinsurgency mission with the clear objective to dismantle Naxal headquarters and operational infrastructure, neutralize top Maoist leadership, and regain control over insurgent zones within the Kurraguttalu Hills (KGH). This area was considered a unified headquarters for several Naxal formations. Statement-II is incorrect. Operation Black Forest was not a short, swift strike by a single force. It was a 21-day high-intensity mission, described as one of India’s largest anti-Naxal operations, involving approximately 26,000 personnel. The forces involved were a combination of Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), including its elite CoBRA units, Chhattisgarh Police, Special Task Force (STF), and District Reserve Guard (DRG). The duration and scale indicate a sustained and comprehensive operation rather than a brief engagement.

#### 4. Question

Consider the following statements with regard to ‘Operation Black Forest’:

Statement-I: Operation Black Forest was primarily aimed at dismantling Naxal headquarters and neutralizing top Maoist leadership in the Kurraguttalu Hills.

Statement-II: The operation involved a short, swift strike by a single elite force to minimize engagement time.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

• a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

• b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

• c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

• d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: c)

Statement-I is correct. Operation Black Forest was a high-intensity counterinsurgency mission with the clear objective to dismantle Naxal headquarters and operational infrastructure, neutralize top Maoist leadership, and regain control over insurgent zones within the Kurraguttalu Hills (KGH). This area was considered a unified headquarters for several Naxal formations.

Statement-II is incorrect. Operation Black Forest was not a short, swift strike by a single force. It was a 21-day high-intensity mission, described as one of India’s largest anti-Naxal operations, involving approximately 26,000 personnel. The forces involved were a combination of Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), including its elite CoBRA units, Chhattisgarh Police, Special Task Force (STF), and District Reserve Guard (DRG). The duration and scale indicate a sustained and comprehensive operation rather than a brief engagement.

Solution: c)

Statement-I is correct. Operation Black Forest was a high-intensity counterinsurgency mission with the clear objective to dismantle Naxal headquarters and operational infrastructure, neutralize top Maoist leadership, and regain control over insurgent zones within the Kurraguttalu Hills (KGH). This area was considered a unified headquarters for several Naxal formations.

Statement-II is incorrect. Operation Black Forest was not a short, swift strike by a single force. It was a 21-day high-intensity mission, described as one of India’s largest anti-Naxal operations, involving approximately 26,000 personnel. The forces involved were a combination of Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), including its elite CoBRA units, Chhattisgarh Police, Special Task Force (STF), and District Reserve Guard (DRG). The duration and scale indicate a sustained and comprehensive operation rather than a brief engagement.

• Question 5 of 5 5. Question Consider the following statements regarding Ayurveda Day: Ayurveda Day was traditionally observed on the day of Dhanteras, coinciding with the birth anniversary of Lord Dhanvantari. From 2025 onwards, Ayurveda Day will be celebrated annually on the day of the summer solstice to symbolize cosmic energy. The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare is the nodal ministry responsible for the declaration and promotion of Ayurveda Day. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 3 only Correct Solution: a) Statement 1 is correct. Ayurveda Day was initially observed on Dhanteras, which is traditionally considered the birth anniversary of Lord Dhanvantari, the Hindu god of medicine. Statement 2 is incorrect. From 2025 onwards, Ayurveda Day will be observed annually on 23rd September. This date coincides with the autumnal equinox, a day symbolizing balance, which is a core principle in Ayurvedic philosophy, not the summer solstice. The shift to a fixed date aims to facilitate better planning for national and global celebrations. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Ministry of Ayush is the nodal ministry responsible for the declaration, promotion, and organization of Ayurveda Day in India. It was the Ministry of Ayush that announced the change in the celebration date through a Gazette notification. Incorrect Solution: a) Statement 1 is correct. Ayurveda Day was initially observed on Dhanteras, which is traditionally considered the birth anniversary of Lord Dhanvantari, the Hindu god of medicine. Statement 2 is incorrect. From 2025 onwards, Ayurveda Day will be observed annually on 23rd September. This date coincides with the autumnal equinox, a day symbolizing balance, which is a core principle in Ayurvedic philosophy, not the summer solstice. The shift to a fixed date aims to facilitate better planning for national and global celebrations. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Ministry of Ayush is the nodal ministry responsible for the declaration, promotion, and organization of Ayurveda Day in India. It was the Ministry of Ayush that announced the change in the celebration date through a Gazette notification.

#### 5. Question

Consider the following statements regarding Ayurveda Day:

• Ayurveda Day was traditionally observed on the day of Dhanteras, coinciding with the birth anniversary of Lord Dhanvantari.

• From 2025 onwards, Ayurveda Day will be celebrated annually on the day of the summer solstice to symbolize cosmic energy.

• The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare is the nodal ministry responsible for the declaration and promotion of Ayurveda Day.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• b) 1 and 2 only

• c) 2 and 3 only

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is correct. Ayurveda Day was initially observed on Dhanteras, which is traditionally considered the birth anniversary of Lord Dhanvantari, the Hindu god of medicine.

Statement 2 is incorrect. From 2025 onwards, Ayurveda Day will be observed annually on 23rd September. This date coincides with the autumnal equinox, a day symbolizing balance, which is a core principle in Ayurvedic philosophy, not the summer solstice. The shift to a fixed date aims to facilitate better planning for national and global celebrations.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Ministry of Ayush is the nodal ministry responsible for the declaration, promotion, and organization of Ayurveda Day in India. It was the Ministry of Ayush that announced the change in the celebration date through a Gazette notification.

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is correct. Ayurveda Day was initially observed on Dhanteras, which is traditionally considered the birth anniversary of Lord Dhanvantari, the Hindu god of medicine.

Statement 2 is incorrect. From 2025 onwards, Ayurveda Day will be observed annually on 23rd September. This date coincides with the autumnal equinox, a day symbolizing balance, which is a core principle in Ayurvedic philosophy, not the summer solstice. The shift to a fixed date aims to facilitate better planning for national and global celebrations.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Ministry of Ayush is the nodal ministry responsible for the declaration, promotion, and organization of Ayurveda Day in India. It was the Ministry of Ayush that announced the change in the celebration date through a Gazette notification.

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